To boost your performance in BTSC Bihar MO exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in BTSC Bihar MO exams.
Latest BTSC Bihar MO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Knowledge, General English, Numerical Aptitude, Medical Officer
Question Bank BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Q 1 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 2 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 3 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 5 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 6 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 7 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 8 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 9 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 10 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 11 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 12 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 14 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 15 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 16 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 17 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 18 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 19 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 20 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 21 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 22 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 23 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 24 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 25 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 26 :
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 27 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 28 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 29 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 30 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
Q 31 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.27
C.48
D.42
E.24
Q 32 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.187
B.323
C.119
D.221
E.289
Q 33 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.35
B.80
C.45
D.60
E.75
Q 34 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.31
B.39
C.47
D.41
E.43
Q 35 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.27
B.64
C.125
D.216
E.384
Q 36 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.25
B.64
C.189
D.225
E.121
Q 37 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.23
B.29
C.37
D.39
E.31
Q 38 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.115
B.145
C.95
D.155
E.75
Q 39 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.126
B.217
C.345
D.513
E.730
Q 40 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.144
B.169
C.256
D.288
E.324
Q 41 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.143
B.168
C.224
D.195
E.257
Q 42 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.29
B.85
C.147
D.125
E.53
Q 43 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabet series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group, if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?
A.FH
B.SU
C.MA
D.CK
E.LB
Q 44 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.MPQO
B.DGHF
C.RUTV
D.VYZX
E.JMNL
Q 45 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.AMCL
B.WIVK
C.GVIU
D.XDZC
E.HRJQ
Q 46 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. AZMN
B.BYEF
C.CXUV
D.FUNO
E.IRDV
Q 47 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.LOJ
B.FID
C.RUP
D.ILN
E.CFA
Q 48 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.RICE : ECIR
B.WINGS : SGNIW
C.SMART : RTSMA
D.COUSIN : SINCOU
E.BRAKE : AKRFB
Q 49 :
the one that does not belong to that group?
A.VT
B.MK
C.DB
D.KH
E.XV
Q 50 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PS
B.FI
C.AD
D.KN
E.GD
Important Questions Package
BTSC Bihar MO Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy BTSC Bihar MO Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in BTSC Bihar MO question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English
Description : 2500 Question with Answer.
₹181[₹500]
3.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English
Description : <span style="color:#800000"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif"><strong>1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</strong></span></span></span>
₹151[₹450]
4.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam Question Bank Book - English
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English (New) (Old)
Description : 2500 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
6.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - Hindi (New) (Old)
Description : 2500 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
7.
BTSC Bihar Medical Officer Exam - English (Old)
Description : 2400 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
General Knowledge
Q 51 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 52 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 53 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 54 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 55 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 56 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 57 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 58 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 59 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 60 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 61 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 62 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 63 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 64 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 65 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 66 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 67 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 68 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 70 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 71 :
Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar ?
A.Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji
B.Ibrahim
C.Dariya Khan Noohani
D.Malik Husamuddin
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 72 :
Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar ?
A.Dr. Shri krishna Singh
B.Brij Kishor Prasad
C.B.P. Mandal
D.Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
E.None of the above/More than one of the above
Q 73 :
In which year the Chauri Revolt of Bihar took place ?
A.1842
B.1798
C.1784
D.1832
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 74 :
In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar ?
A.1936
B.1956
C.2000
D.1912
E.None of the above/ More than one of the above
Q 75 :
During which movement 'Azad Dasta' was active in Bihar ?
A.Non-Cooperation Movement
B.Civil Disobedience Movement
C.Quit India Movement
D.Champaran Satyagraha
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 76 :
Who established a branch of Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913 AD ?
A.Ramanada Sinha
B.Satish Jha
C.Sachindra Nath Sanyal
D.Bipin Jha
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 77 :
In which year was Bihar divided to create Jharkhand ?
A.2000
B.2001
C.2004
D.2005
E.None of the above More than one of the above
Q 78 :
Who invited Gandhiji to come Champaran ?
A.Raj Kumar Shukla
B.Rajendra Prasad
C.Jayaprakash Narayan
D.Krishna Sahay
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 79 :
Who had formed the Bihar Socialist Party in 1931 AD ?
A.Phulan Chand Tiwari and Rajendra Prasad
B.Phulan Prasad Varma and Jayaprakash Narayan
C.Raj Kumar Shukla and Swami Agnivesh
D.Swami Sahajananda and Swami Yogananda
E.None of the above More than one of the above
Q 80 :
Who formed the 'Bihar Socialist Party' in 1931 ?
A.Phulan Prasad Varma
B.Swami Yoganand
C.Narhari Parikh
D.Dadabhai Naoroji
E.None of the above / More than one of the above
Q 81 :
What major defence procurement deal was signed by India's Ministry of Defence in late 2025, effective in early 2026?
A.Rs 4,666 crore for carbines and torpedoes
B.Acquisition of Rafale jets
C.Purchase of S-400 systems
D.Indigenous aircraft carrier
Q 82 :
Which military appointment took place in the Indian Air Force on January 1, 2026?
A.Air Marshal Nagesh Kapoor as Vice Chief of Air Staff
B.New Chief of Defence Staff
C.Army Chief change
D.Navy Chief appointment
Q 83 :
Which event in Switzerland caused international mourning in early January 2026?
A.Fire at a ski resort bar
B.Political crisis
C.Earthquake
D.Floods
Q 84 :
Which country became the first to implement weekly credit score updates from January 1, 2026?
A.India
B.United States
C.China
D.United Kingdom
Q 85 :
What was the theme of the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting scheduled for January 19-23, 2026?
A.A Spirit of Dialogue
B.Rebuilding Trust
C.Future of Growth
D.Global Cooperation
Q 86 :
Which humanitarian organizations were suspended from operating in Gaza starting January 1, 2026?
A.Doctors Without Borders, IRC, Oxfam, Caritas
B.UNRWA, WHO, UNICEF
C.Red Cross, Amnesty International
D.Save the Children, World Vision
Q 87 :
What initiative was launched in India to empower rural women entrepreneurs in early 2026?
A.Gramin Shakti Yojana 2.0
B.Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
C.Stand-Up India
D.Mudra Yojana
Q 88 :
Which global market event occurred on January 2, 2026, marking the first trading day of the year?
A.US stocks closed mixed with Treasury yields higher
B.Major crash in Asian markets
C.Bitcoin hit $100,000
D.Oil prices dropped below $50
Q 89 :
What change occurred in India's 8th Pay Commission implementation from January 1, 2026?
A.Salary and pension revisions for central government employees
B.Elimination of DA
C.Reduction in basic pay
D.Merger with state pay scales
Q 90 :
Which international event marked the beginning of 2026 with widespread fireworks displays worldwide?
A.New Year's Eve celebrations
B.Republic Day parades
C.Lunar New Year
D.Winter Olympics opening
Q 91 :
Which country hosted the World Blitz Chess Championship in December 2025, with results announced in early January 2026?
A.India
B.Kazakhstan
C.Ukraine
D.Switzerland
Q 92 :
Which financial change was implemented in India from January 1, 2026, regarding credit scores?
A.Weekly updates by credit bureaus
B.Annual updates only
C.Mandatory credit score sharing with employers
D.Elimination of credit scores
Q 93 :
Who won the Women's section of the World Blitz Chess Championship announced in early January 2026?
A.Anna Muzychuk
B.Bibisara Assaubayeva
C.Hou Yifan
D.Ju Wenjun
Q 94 :
Which new law or change took effect in the US on January 1, 2026, related to foreign nationals?
A.Suspension of certain visa issuances to protect national security
B.Mandatory green card renewals
C.Free entry for tourists from allied nations
D.Ban on all student visas
Q 95 :
What significant economic milestone did India achieve by early 2026?
A.Became the world's third-largest economy
B.Surpassed Japan to become the fourth-largest economy
C.Achieved $5 trillion GDP
D.Overtook Germany in nominal GDP
Q 96 :
Who launched initiatives under the Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) programme on January 1, 2026?
A.Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B.President Droupadi Murmu
C.Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
D.Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Q 97 :
Which scheme completed nine years of implementation on January 1, 2026?
A.Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
B.Pradhan Mantri Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
C.Ayushman Bharat
D.PM-KISAN
Q 98 :
What tragic incident occurred in Crans-Montana, Switzerland, on New Year's Eve 2025/January 1, 2026?
A.A major earthquake
B.A fire and explosion at a bar killing at least 46 people
C.A political protest turning violent
D.A ski resort avalanche
Q 99 :
Which state in India became the first to establish a national Artificial Intelligence research institution under a PPP model, starting operations on January 1, 2026?
A.Karnataka
B.Maharashtra
C.Gujarat
D.Kerala
Q 100 :
What major policy change did India Post implement from January 1, 2026?
A.Discontinuation of certain outward international letter mail services
B.Introduction of free international parcel delivery
C.Mandatory digital tracking for all domestic mails
D.Increase in stamp prices for inland letters
General English
Q 101 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 102 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 103 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 104 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 105 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 106 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 107 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 108 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 109 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 110 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 111 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 112 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 113 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 114 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 115 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 116 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 117 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 118 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 119 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 120 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Q 121 :
My father generously donated money to the church.
A.Money is generously being donated to te church by my father.
B.Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C.Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D.Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
Q 122 :
We will send you your laboratory reports as soon as they are ready
A.you would be sent your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
B.Your laboratory reports will be sent to you as soon as they are ready.
C.You would be send your laboratory reports as soon as they will be ready.
D.Your laboratory reports should be sent to you as soon as they will be ready.
Q 123 :
I saw the master conducting the orchestra.
A.I saw that the orchestra was being conducted by the master.
B.I saw the orchestra being conducted by te master
C.The master was seen conducting the orchestra by me.
D.The master was conducting the orchestra and I saw that.
Q 124 :
The dog is being fed by us.
A.We fed the dog.
B.We have had been feeding the dog.
C.We are feeding the dog
D.We had been feeding the dog
Q 125 :
When did Rohit return my bike?
A.When was my bike returned by Rohit?
B.When was it that Rohit returned my bike?
C.Rohit returned my bike when?
D.When did my bike come back from Rohit?
Numerical Aptitude
Q 126 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 127 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 128 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 129 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 130 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 131 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 132 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 133 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 134 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 135 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 136 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 137 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 138 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 139 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 140 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 141 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 142 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 143 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 144 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 145 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 146 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 147 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 148 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 149 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 150 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Medical Officer
Q 151 :
Community medicine primarily focuses on :
A.Individual patient care
B.Preventive healthcare
C.Specialized surgeries
D.Emergency medicine
Q 152 :
Which of the following is a core principle of community medicine ?
A.Curative care
B.Early diagnosis
C.Health promotion and disease prevention
D.Surgery and interventions
Q 153 :
What is the main goal of primary healthcare ?
A.Treating complex diseases
B.Providing specialized surgeries
C.Delivering essential healthcare to all individuals and families
D.Managing chronic illnesses
Q 154 :
What does FMT stand for ?
A.Fecal Microbial Therapy
B.Fecal Microbiota Transplantation
C.Fecal Microbiome Treatment
D.Fecal Medical Transplant
Q 155 :
FMT is primarily used to treat which of the following conditions ?
A.Diabetes
B.Hypertension
C.Irritable Bowel Syndrome
D.Migraine
Q 156 :
In FMT, where is the donated fecal material typically sourced from ?
A.Animals
B.Synthetic sources
C.The patient's own stool
D.Healthy donors
Q 157 :
Which of the following microorganisms is known for causing tuberculosis ?
A.Escherichia coli
B.Staphylococcus aureus
C.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D.Streptococcus pyogenes
Q 158 :
What is the primary mode of transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ?
A.Airborne transmission
B.Vector - borne transmission
C.Contact transmission
D.Sexual transmission
Q 159 :
Which microorganism is responsible for causing strep throat and other respiratory infections ?
A.Haemophilus influenzae
B.Streptococcus pyogenes
C.Neisseria meningitidis
D.Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Q 160 :
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of inflammation ?
A.Redness
B.Pain
C.Decreased blood flow
D.Swelling
Q 161 :
Which cellular organelle is responsible for protein synthesis ?
A.Mitochondria
B.Golgi apparatus
C.Endoplasmic reticulum
D.Lysosome
Q 162 :
Which type of tissue is responsible for transmitting electrical signals in the body ?
A.Muscle tissue
B.Nervous tissue
C.Connective tissue
D.Epithelial tissue
Q 163 :
What term describes the study of how drugs affect the body and how the body affects drugs ?
A.Pathology
B.Physiology
C.Pharmacology
D.Histology
Q 164 :
Which phase of drug development involves testing a new drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety and dosage range ?
A.Phase I
B.Phase II
C.Phase III
D.Phase IV
Q 165 :
Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action ?
A.Oral
B.Intravenous
C.Subcutaneous
D.Topical
Q 166 :
What is the primary purpose of radio diagnosis in medicine ?
A.To provide treatment options
B.To perform surgeries
C.To diagnose medical conditions
D.To administer medication
Q 167 :
Which imaging technique uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of internal body structures ?
A.X-ray
B.Ultrasound
C.MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
D.CT scan (Computed Tomography
Q 168 :
Which type of imaging uses ionizing radiation to create images of the body's internal structures ?
A.Ultrasound
B.MRI
C.X - ray
D.PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography)
Q 169 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice
A.Appendicitis
B.Gallstones
C.Hypertension
D.Hernia
Q 170 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder
A.Gastrectomy
B.Appendectomy
C.Cholecystectomy
D.Thyroidectomy
Q 171 :
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and tenderness localized in the right lower quadrant. What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms
A.Gastroenteritis
B.Diverticulitis
C.Cholecystitis
D.Appendicitis
Q 172 :
Which of the following is NOT a common indication for surgery in a medical officer's practice ?
A.Appendicitis
B.Gallstones
C.Hypertension
D.Hernia
Q 173 :
What term refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder ?
A.Gastrectomy
B.Appendectomy
C.Cholecystectomy
D.Thyroidectomy
Q 174 :
A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and tenderness localized in the right lower quadrant. What condition is most likely responsible for these symptoms ?
A.Gastroenteritis
B.Diverticulitis
C.Cholecystitis
D.Appendicitis
Q 175 :
Which of the following is a macromolecule composed of amino acids ?
A.Nucleic acid
B.Lipid
C.Carbohydrate
D.Protein
Q 176 :
​Which of the following is the primary energy currency of the cell ?
A.ATP
B.DNA
C.RNA
D.Glucose
Q 177 :
Enzymes are examples of which type of biomolecule ?
A.Carbohydrates
B.Nucleic acids
C.Proteins
D.Lipids
Q 178 :
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat hypertension ?
A.Metformin
B.Lisinopril
C.Aspirin
D.Omeprazole
Q 179 :
What is the primary function of insulin in the body ?
A.Control blood pressure
B.Regulate blood sugar levels
C.Stimulate digestion
D.Increase heart rate
Q 180 :
Which medication is used to relieve pain and reduce fever ?
A.Propranolol
B.Ibuprofen
C.Metoprolol
D.Itinerant
Q 181 :
What is the normal duration of human pregnancy, commonly referred to as gestation ?
A.6 months
B.7 months
C.9 months
D.12 months
Q 182 :
Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy and preventing uterine contractions until labor begins ?
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D.Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q 183 :
What is the term for the delivery of a baby through an incision made in the abdominal and uterine walls ?
A.Vaginal delivery
B.Breech delivery
C.Cesarean section
D.Vacuum extraction
Q 184 :
Which presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks or feet are positioned to be delivered first instead of the head ?
A.Vertex presentation
B.Frank breech presentation
C.Complete breech presentation
D.Footling breech presentation
Q 185 :
What is the first-line treatment for a child experiencing an acute asthma attack ?
A.Antibiotics
B.Bronchodilators (e.g., albuterol)
C.Antipyretics
D.Intravenous fluids
Q 186 :
What is the most common cause of seizures in children aged 6 months to 5 years ?
A.Meningitis
B.Febrile illness
C.Hypoglycaemia
D.Head injury
Q 187 :
What is the recommended initial management for a child with a suspected foreign body aspiration ?
A.Administering antibiotics
B.Inducing vomiting
C.Performing chest compressions
D.Immediate bronchoscopy
Q 188 :
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kawasaki disease ?
A.Persistent cough
B.Strawberry tongue
C.Jaundice
D.Cyanosis
Q 189 :
What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
A.Atrial fibrillation
B.Hypertension
C.Atherosclerosis
D.Valvular heart disease
Q 190 :
Which enzyme is elevated in the blood during a myocardial infarction?
A.Lipase
B.Creatinine kinase (CK)
C.Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
D.Amylase
Q 191 :
Which of the following is a major risk factor for the development of coronary artery disease?
A.High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
B.Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
C.Triglycerides
D.Total cholesterol
Q 192 :
What is the primary symptom of angina pectoris?
A.Shortness of breath
B.Chest pain or discomfort
C.Irregular heartbeat
D.Dizziness
Q 193 :
What is the primary goal of exploratory laparotomy ?
A.Removal of gallbladder stones
B.Examination of the abdominal cavity
C.Repair of hernias
D.Removal of kidney stones
Q 194 :
Which surgical procedure is commonly performed for the treatment of appendicitis ?
A.Cholecystectomy
B.Appendectomy
C.Colostomy
D.Nephrectomy
Q 195 :
In which condition would a surgeon perform a thyroidectomy ?
A.Gallstones
B.Thyroid cancer
C.Appendicitis
D.Hernia
Q 196 :
What is the primary purpose of a mastectomy ?
A.Treatment of appendicitis
B.Removal of a breast
C.Repair of a hernia
D.Removal of kidney stones
Q 197 :
What is the term for the process of expulsion of the placenta and fetal membranes after childbirth ?
A.Effacement
B.Dilation
C.Expulsion
D.Crowning
Q 198 :
Which hormone is responsible for initiating and maintaining uterine contractions during labour ?
A.Progesterone
B.Estrogenic
C.Oxytocin
D.Prolactin
Q 199 :
What is the primary focus of Preventive Social and Community Medicine ?
A.Treatment of diseases
B.Preventing diseases and promoting health
C.Rehabilitation of patients
D.Diagnostic procedures
Q 200 :
Which of the following is an example of primary prevention in community medicine ?
5.015 =?