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Latest BVFCL Executive Trainee Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Civil, English, Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge, Reasoning
Question Bank BVFCL Executive Trainee Exam (Civil) - English
Civil
Q 1 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 2 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 3 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 4 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 5 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 6 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 7 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 8 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 9 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 10 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 11 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 12 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 13 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 14 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 15 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 16 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 17 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 18 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 19 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 20 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.3 and 4
Q 22 :
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 4
B.3 and 4
C.1 and 2
D.2 and 3
Q 23 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.1, 4 and 5
D.3, 4 and 5
Q 24 :
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A.4 and 5
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 4
D.3 and 5
Q 25 :
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 26 :
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A.625
B.480
C.330
D.250
Q 27 :
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Q 28 :
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 29 :
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 2
Q 30 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 31 :
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 32 :
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
A.ASCU treatment
B.Abel’s process
C.Creosoting
D.Tarring
Q 33 :
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 34 :
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 35 :
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A.75 kg/cm3
B.100kg/cm3
C.125 kg/cm3
D.150 kg/cm3
Q 36 :
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
A.English bond
B.Single Flemish bond
C.Double Flemish bond
D.Rat-trap bond
Q 37 :
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 38 :
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
A.Alumina content
B.Iron oxide content
C.Free lime content
D.Durability under sea water
Q 39 :
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 40 :
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
A.3
2
B.2
3
C.3
D.1
3
Q 41 :
Two different liquids are flowing through different pipes of the same diameter. In the first pipe, the flow is laminar with centerline velocity,Vmax.1,Whereas in the second pipe, the flow is turbulent. For turbulent flow, the average velocity is 0.82 times the centerline velocity,vmax.2 . For equal volumetric flow rates in both the pipes, the ratio Vmax.1/Vmax.2(up to two decimal place) is_____.
A.1.64
B.2.45
C.0.25
D.1.44
Q 42 :
Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.3. Then the ratio of Young’s modulus to bulk modulus is
A.0.6
B.0.8
C.1.2
D.1.4
Q 43 :
For a gas phase cracking reaction A→B+C at 300รขโฦ , the Gibbs free energy of the reaction at this temperature is รขหโ G°= -2750J/mol . The pressure is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The universal gas constant =8.314J/mol. K. The fractional molar conversion of A at equilibrium is________.
A.0.44
B.0.50
C.0.64
D.0.80
Q 44 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.In a ductile material elastic deformation is more predominant than plastic one.
2.Brittleness is not an absolute property of a metal.
3.Rate of loading has no influence in changing the behavior of a metal from ‘ductile’ to ‘brittle’ at low temperatures
4.Under hydrostatic compression, a brittle metal may change into a ductile one.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 45 :
The total deflection of a structure when subjected simultaneously to different sets of loading is equal to the sum of the deflections under each such set of loads as if acting separately on the structure. Which one the following justifies this statement?
A.Elastic limit is not exceeded
B.Elastic limit including buckling is not exceeded
C.Limit state is not exceeded
D.Proportional limit without buckling is not exceeded
Q 46 :
A rectangular bar of cross-sectional area a is subjected to an axial tensile load P. The maximum shear stress will occur on a plane at X° to any normal cross-section where X° is
A.90°
B.27°
C.180°
D.45°
Q 47 :
A solid circular shaft has been subjected to a pure torsion moment. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point would be
A.1 : 2
B.1 : 1
C.2 : 3
D.2 : 1
Q 48 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.All load carrying members transmit load through basic modes of tension, compression, torsion and shear only.
2.Beams carry transverse loads.
3.Combined loading is a complicated loading.
4.Nature of internal forces decides the aspect of combines loading.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 49 :
Identify the WRONG statement amongst the following:
A.steam distillation is used for mixtures that re immiscible with water.
B.Vacuum distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
C.Steam distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
D.vacuum distillation columns have larger diameter as compared to atmospheric columns for the same throughout
Q 50 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.Experimental results on thin-walled tubes show that maximum normal stress theory is valid.
2.Normal-stress theory is valid in case of brittle materials.
3.In case of pure shear, St. Venant’s theory is more valid than other theories.
4.Tresca’s theory is very closely substantiated by experimental results.
5.In maximum stress theory, the yield locus is a hexagon.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 4 and 5
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
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Civil
Q 51 :
A thin cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate is 1000 mm in diameter. It is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200N/mm2, the thickness of the plate in mm on the basis of Rankine’s theory of failure with assuming a factor of safety of 3 would be
A.10
B.12
C.15
D.18
Q 52 :
Which of the following can change if only the catalyst is changed for a reaction system?
A.Enthalpy of reaction
B.Activation energy
C.Free Energy of the reaction
D.Equilibrium constant
Q 53 :
Which of the following loads should be applied on a simply supported beam, so that the shear force is constant throughout its span?
A.U.D.L. over the entire span.
B.Two concentrated loads equally spaced in the span.
C.A central concentrated load and a U.D.L. over the entires pan.
D.A couple anywhere in the span.
Q 54 :
A simply supported rolled steel joist of I-section has flange width 250 mm and overall depth 600 mm. Its moment of inertia IXX = 12 × 106 mm4. The steel joist is used as a beam over a simply supported span of 6m. It carries a load of 40 kN/m including its self weight throughout the span. The maximum stress induced in the beam in N/mm2 due to bending would be
A.30
B.90
C.45
D.60
Q 55 :
Which of the following terms represents the torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length?
A.Torsional stress
B.Torsional rigidity
C.Flexural rigidity
D.Moment of resistance
Q 56 :
A 60 mm dia. shaft is subjected to a torque of 6 kN-m. C = 8 × 104 N/mm2. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft in N/mm2will be
A.8000
92
B.4000
9
C.12000
9
D.16000
9
Q 57 :
A water main 160 cm dia. contains water at a pressure head of 200m. Take weight of water to be 1000 kg/m3. The thickness of the metal shell required for the water main, given that the maximum permissible stress in the metal is 400kg/cm2, will be
A.1 cm
B.2 cm
C.3 cm
D.4 cm
Q 58 :
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
A.Star shakes
B.Annular rings
C.Cup shakes
D.Hear shakes
Q 59 :
Consider the following distinguishing characteristics of hardwood:
1.They have distinct annular rings.
2.They are not resinous.
Which of these characteristics of hardwood is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 60 :
Consider the following statements on the specific gravity of wood:
1.It is always greater than 2.
2.It is less than 1.
3.It is not dependent upon temperature and equilibrium moisture content.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 61 :
The age of a log of timber can be estimated by
A.Diameter of pith
B.Thickness of bark
C.Number of annular rings
D.Number of medullary rays
Q 62 :
Consider the following statements:Seasoning of timber results in
1.Increased strength
2.Increased durability
3.Reduced resilience
4.Increased dimensional stability
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 63 :
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II
Plywood 1. Furniture
Fiberboard 2. Cantilever arches
Laminated lumber 3. Insulation
Commercial blockboard 4. Lining of form-work in concrete Codes:
A.A B C D
1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C.4 2 3 1
D.4 2 3 1
Q 64 :
Consider the following statements:Perforated bricks are preferred in construction since
1.They are lighter
2.They are stronger than class 1 bricks
3.They have heat-insulating properties
4.They are cheaper and need less mortar
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 65 :
The standard size of a brick is
A.20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
B.19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
C.18 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
D.18 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements:More than 6% magnesium oxide by weight in cement results in
1.High early strength and high heat generation
2.Less tendency towards volume change and formation of cracks
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Neither 1 nor 2
D.Both 1 and 2
Q 67 :
Fineness if cement is measured in the units of
A.Volume/mass
B.Mass/volume
C.Area/mass
D.Mass/area
Q 68 :
The initial setting time of cement depends most on
A.Tricalcium aluminate
B.Tricalciumaluminoferrite
C.Dicalcium silicate
D.Dicalcium silicate
Q 69 :
Consider the following statements:Sand in cement mortar is used for
1.Increasing the strength
2.Reducing the shrinkage
3.Decreasing the surface area of the binding material
4.Decreasing the quantity of cement
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 70 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-cement ratio of the concrete mixture.
2.Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
3.Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio in the concrete mix.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1 and 4 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 71 :
According to the Indian Standard Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
A.90%
B.80%
C.60%
D.70%
Q 72 :
Consider the following statements:In a typical compression test with a cylindrical concrete specimen, failure is initiated by
1.Crushing in compression
2.Inclined shear failure
3.Longitudinal tensile cracks
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 73 :
If one intends to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
A.Round
B.Annular
C.Triangular
D.Flinty
Q 74 :
Consider the following statements as regards rheology of concrete:
1.It deals with strength of concrete.
2.It deals with deformation in concrete.
3.It is the study of deformation and flow of concrete.
4.It deals with rate of shear and shear stress in concrete.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.3 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 2 only
Q 75 :
Consider the following for durability of well-graded concrete:
1.The environment
2.Cover to embedded reinforcement
3.Shape and size of concrete member
Which of these are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 76 :
Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1.Consistency
2.Compacting factor
3.Vee-Bee
4.Setting time
5.Slump
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability ofconcrete?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 77 :
Gypsum is added into the raw materials during manufacture of cement so that the final product exhibits
A.Retarded initial setting time
B.Improved mouldability for cornices, etc
C.Increases compressive strength
D.Augmented bond strength
Q 78 :
Consider the following constituents of a high performance concrete (HPC):
1.Cement
2.Fine aggregate
3.Coarse aggregate
4.Water
5.Mineral admixture
6.Chemical admixture
Which of these constituentsare relevant for HPC?
A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
B.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C.2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
D.1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Q 79 :
A specimen is subjected to a pure shear stress regime of intensity.The resulting tensile and compressive stresses, which occur on planes inclined at 45° to the direction of the shear stresses, would be
A.T
B.T
2
C.T2
D.T3
Q 80 :
For a given elastic material, the Elastic modulus E is 210 GPa and its Poisson’s ratio is 0.27. What is the approximate value if its modulus of Rigidity ?
A.105 GPa
B.83 GPa
C.159 GPa
D.165 GPa
Q 81 :
Which of the following is not a basic type of strain ?
A.Compressive strain
B.Shear strain
C.Area strain
D.Volume strain
Q 82 :
Young's Modulus of elasticity is
A.Tensile stress / Tensile strain
B.Shear stress / Shear strain
C.Tensile stress / Shear strain
D.Shear stress / Tensile strain
Q 83 :
Which of the following stresses is measured on inclined surface in Mohr’s Circle Method ?
A.Principal stress
B.Normal stress
C.Tangential stress
D.Maximum stress
Q 84 :
Hooke's law is applicable within
A.Elastic limit
B.Plastic limit
C.Fracture point
D.Ultimate strength
Q 85 :
Lead, as a material used in construction, has E = 15 GPa and K = 50 GPa. What is its Poisson’s ratio?
A.0.225
B.0.30
C.0.40
D.0.45
Q 86 :
Crushing strength of good building stone should be more than:
A.500 kg/cm2
B.1000 kg/cm2
C.1400 kg/cm2
D.2000 kg/cm2
Q 87 :
Two planks each of 50 mm × 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form as section 50 mm × 100 mm; and used as a beam. If the shear force at the section is 1000 N, what is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
A.0.15 MPa
B.0.3MPa
C.0.6MPa
D.2.4MPa
Q 88 :
The probability distribution taken to represent the completion time in PERT analysis is
A.Gamma distribution
B.Normal distribution
C.Beta distribution
D.Log-normal distribution
Q 89 :
The state of stress at a point in 2-D stress system is characterized by direct stresses of 40 MPa compressive and 80 MPa tensile, on mutually perpendicular planes. Shear stress is absent on these planes. The maximum shear stress sat this point (along a duly identified plane) is
A.20 MPa
B.40MPa
C.60MPa
D.80MPa
Q 90 :
An electrical resistance strain rosette indicates strain of -400, +800 and +500 along the x,y and 45° axes. What is the shearing ratio yxy?
A.100
B.800
C.600
D.-200
Q 91 :
In a diagonal scale only
A.Units can be shown
B.Units, tenths can be shown
C.Units, tenths, hundredths can be shown
D.Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown
Q 92 :
A cylindrical pressure vessel is 1200 mm in diameter. It is made of rolled mild steel plate. The vessel is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200 N/mm2, what should be the minimum safe thickness of the plate, based on Maximum Principle Stress Theory?
A.18 mm
B.15 mm
C.12 mm
D.9 mm
Q 93 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C. Tricalcium aluminate
D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 94 :
A simply subjected beam of length 4 m is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m. What is the maximum shear stress is the cross-section is rectangular, 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep?
A.0.2 N/mm2
B.0.1 N/mm2
C.0.4 N/mm2
D.0.3 N/mm2
Q 95 :
A mild steel structural section is an unsymmetrical I-section, with the greater width at the top and the smaller width at the bottom. The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm, and the flange stresses at the top and the bottom of the beam are 150 N/mm2and 50 N/mm2 respectively. What is the height of the neutral axis of the beam from its bottom?
A.125 mm
B.100 mm
C.75 mm
D.50 mm
Q 96 :
The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called
A.City surveying
B.Location surveying
C.Cadastral surveying
D.Topographical surveying
Q 97 :
A circular shaft of diameter ‘D’ is made of a material for which the Young’s modulus of elasticity is ‘E’ and Poisson’s ratio is ‘v’. the ratio of flexural rigidity to torsional rigidity for the shaft is
A.4(1+v)
B.1.5(1-2v)
C.(1+v)
D.0.25(1+v)
Q 98 :
A closely coiled helical spring of round steel wire 5mm in diameter having 12 complete coils of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to an axial load of 100 N. Modulus of rigidity of the spring is 80kn/mm2. What is the deflection of the spring?
A.12 mm
B.24 mm
C.36 mm
D.48 mm
Q 99 :
What is the shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of isosceles triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm subjected to a shear force of 2 kN?
A.3 MPa
B.6MPa
C.10MPa
D.20MPa
Q 100 :
A beam of square cross-section is placed such that its neutral axis coincides with its diagonal, and it is subjected to a shear force F. What is the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the shear stress at the neutral axis?
A.9
8
B.8
9
C.7
8
D.8
7
English
Q 101 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 102 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 103 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 104 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 105 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 106 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 107 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 108 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 109 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 110 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
General Knowledge
Q 111 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 112 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 113 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 114 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 115 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 116 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 117 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 118 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 119 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 120 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 121 :
Which country is the highest contributor of per capita greenhouse gas emissions ?
A.China
B.USA
C.Russia
D.India
Q 122 :
Which institution released the ‘Commodity Markets Outlook report for October 2022’ ?
A.International Monetary Fund
B.World Bank
C.World Economic Forum
D.Reserve Bank of India
Q 123 :
‘Garuda VII’ is a bilateral exercise conducted by the Air Force of India and which country ?
A.Sri Lanka
B.France
C.Japan
D.Australia
Q 124 :
Which city is the host of the ‘India Space Congress, ISC 2022’ ?
A.Bengaluru
B.Mumbai
C.New Delhi
D.Hyderabad
Q 125 :
Which country co-chaired the High-Level Dialogue on Migration and Mobility (HLDMM), with the European Union ?
A.India
B.Australia
C.France
D.China
Q 126 :
Who has been appointed as the Chair of India’s Civil 20 (C20), an official engagement group of the G20, in October 2022 ?
A.Mata Amritanandamayi Devi
B.Sadhguru Jaggi Vasudev
C.PM Narendra Modi
D.Baba Ramdev
Q 127 :
India defeated Australia to win the Sultan of Johor Cup 2022 Hockey Tournament. The Final was held in ………..
A.Bangladesh
B.Oman
C.Egypt
D.Malaysia
Q 128 :
Poland has chosen the US Firm, Westinghouse, to build its first nuclear power plant. What is the Capital of Poland ?
A.Warsaw
B.Hamburg
C.Munich
D.Lublin
Q 129 :
NSDC International (NSDCI) and Perdaman have partnered to create an interface between Indian skilled youth and market opportunities in which country ?
A.Australia
B.Japan
C.South Korea
D.New Zealand
Q 130 :
Tata Steel has received Responsible Steel Certification for three of its production facilities in ………
A.Kalinganagar
B.Koraput
C.Jharia
D.Jamshedpur
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 131 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 132 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 133 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 134 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 135 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 136 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 137 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 138 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 139 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 140 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Reasoning
Q 141 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 142 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 143 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 144 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 145 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 146 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 147 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 148 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 149 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 150 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
