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Last Update on : October 14, 2026

Duration: 120 Β· Questions: 150 Β· Max Marks: 150

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Latest BWSSB Assistant Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Paper

Question Bank BWSSB Assistant Engineer Paper-1 Exam - English

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General Paper

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
  1. A.National Income Committee
  2. B.Planning Commission
  3. C.Reserve Bank Of India
  4. D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
  1. A.April 1951         
  2. B.April 1955
  3. C.April 1957         
  4. D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
  1. A.2008     
  2. B.2009
  3. C.2010     
  4. D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
  1. A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
  2. B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
  3. C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
  4. D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
  1. A.President
  2. B.Prime Minister
  3. C.Finance Minister
  4. D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
  1. A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
  2. B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
  3. C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
  4. D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
  1. A.Dutt committee
  2. B.Lakdawala committee
  3. C.Cheliah Committee
  4. D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
  1. A.1975                 
  2. B.1981
  3. C.1991                 
  4. D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
            Which of the above statements are correct
  1. A.1,2 and 3          
  2. B.1,2 and 4
  3. C.1,3 and 4          
  4. D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
  1. A.April 2001         
  2. B.March 2000
  3. C.June 2002
  4. D.April 2002
Q 21 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 22 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 23 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 24 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 25 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
Q 26 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 27 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 28 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 29 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 31 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
Q 32 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 33 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
Q 34 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
Q 35 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
Q 36 :
Choose the industrial cities that grew rapidly in Britain in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries:
  1. A.Leeds and Manchester
  2. B.Bristol and Manchester
  3. C.Carlisle and Leeds
  4. D.Chester and Leeds
Q 37 :
Which were the three Presidency cities of Colonial India in late eighteenth century?
  1. A.Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
  2. B.Calcutta, Bombay and Surat
  3. C.Bombay, Madras and Delhi
  4. D.None of these
Q 38 :
What is Urbanization?
  1. A.Migration of population from rural to urban area
  2. B.Migration of people from urban to rural
  3. C.Migration of people from one country to another
  4. D.Migration of population from one state to another one
Q 39 :
What is de urbanization in the colonial context?
  1. A.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports emerged due to emergence of new cities.
  2. B.The process by which many old towns, trading centers and ports declined due to emergence of new cities.
  3. C.a and b both
  4. D.None of these
Q 40 :
Which of the following Indian cities which were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
i. Machlipatnam
ii. Surat
iii. Seringapatam
iv. Bombay
  1. A.i and ii
  2. B.i, iv and ii
  3. C.i, ii and iii
  4. D.i, ii, iii and iv
Q 41 :
The state of Karnataka lies in........... region of India.
  1. A.North east
  2. B.South east
  3. C.North west
  4. D.South west
Q 42 :
. Karnataka shares its boundaries with
  1. A.Tamil Nadu
  2. B.Madhya Pradesh
  3. C.Odisha
  4. D.West Bengal
Q 43 :
The state of Karnataka took birth in
  1. A.August 15,1927
  2. B.November 30,1945
  3. C.August 15,1947
  4. D.November 1,1956
Q 44 :
Total number of districts at present is
  1. A.30
  2. B.40
  3. C.50
  4. D.60
Q 45 :
Official language of the state of Karnataka is
  1. A.Telgu
  2. B.English
  3. C.Tamil
  4. D.Karnanada and English
Q 46 :
Pick the odd one out among the following:
  1. A.Yakshagana
  2. B.Asian elephant
  3. C.Indian Roller
  4. D.Sunflower
Q 47 :
The following is state is state symbol of Karnataka
  1. A.Lotus
  2. B.Sunflower
  3. C.Jasmine
  4. D.Rose
Q 48 :
On June 5,2016 revenue minister of the following state resigned over corruption charges.
  1. A.Karnataka
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Goa
  4. D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 49 :
Along with kaveri the other major river system of Karnataka is
  1. A.Ganga
  2. B.Krishna
  3. C.Mahanadi
  4. D.Yamuna
Q 50 :
One of the following is not the tributary of Kaveri
  1. A.Hewavati
  2. B.Kabiri
  3. C.Lakshuana
  4. D.Bhima

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