The principle of “Similia Similibus Curentur” means?
A
Treat opposite with opposite
B
Treat like with like
C
Treat symptoms only
D
Treat disease naturally
Question 3Single Answer
The doctrine of Vital Force in Homoeopathy refers to?
A
Physical strength of the patient
B
Immunity only
C
Dynamic force maintaining health
D
Hereditary traits
Question 4Single Answer
How many aphorisms are in the Organon of Medicine 6th edition?
A
291
B
200
C
250
D
350
Question 5Single Answer
Case taking in Homoeopathy primarily focuses on?
A
Totality of symptoms
B
General symptoms only
C
Laboratory reports
D
Physical examination only
Question 6Single Answer
Who revised the Organon of Medicine to the 6th edition?
A
William Boericke
B
James Tyler Kent
C
Constantine Hering
D
Samuel Hahnemann
Question 7Single Answer
What is the purpose of posology in Homoeopathy?
A
Selection of remedy
B
Prognosis assessment
C
Disease diagnosis
D
Dosage and administration
Question 8Single Answer
The term ‘Materia Medica’ refers to?
A
Clinical study of diseases
B
Study of homeopathic remedies
C
Study of pathology
D
Case taking technique
Question 9Single Answer
Prognosis in Homoeopathy is concerned with?
A
Dosage calculation
B
Selection of remedy
C
Preparation of medicines
D
Future course of disease
Question 10Single Answer
Hahnemann introduced the concept of “chronic miasms” in which book?
A
Chronic Diseases
B
Organon of Medicine
C
Materia Medica Pura
D
Lesser Writings
Question 11Single Answer
The concept of ‘disease’ in Homoeopathy is primarily due to?
A
Bacterial infection
B
Disturbance of Vital Force
C
Nutritional deficiency
D
Genetic abnormality
Question 12Single Answer
The first edition of Organon of Medicine was published in?
A
1796
B
1810
C
1825
D
1833
Question 13Single Answer
Minimum dose in Homoeopathy is intended to?
A
Avoid side effects
B
Stimulate Vital Force
C
Cure symptoms slowly
D
Reduce toxicity
Question 14Single Answer
A remedy is selected in Homoeopathy based on?
A
Symptom totality
B
Disease name
C
Patient age only
D
Laboratory tests
Question 15Single Answer
The term ‘Organon’ literally means?
A
Healing system
B
Medicine
C
Tool or instrument
D
Prescription
Question 16Single Answer
The Organon emphasizes that the physician should?
A
Focus on disease
B
Prescribe high doses
C
Focus on patient’s symptoms
D
Rely on laboratory tests
Question 17Single Answer
Hahnemann’s method of potentization involves?
A
Dilution and succussion
B
Grinding only
C
Boiling the drug
D
Mixing with sugar
Question 18Single Answer
What is the main goal of Homoeopathy?
A
Symptom suppression
B
Treating only chronic diseases
C
Surgery and therapy
D
Cure by stimulating Vital Force
Question 19Single Answer
The “law of Similars” is also called?
A
Heteropathy
B
Principle of contraries
C
Vital force principle
D
Principle of similarity
Question 20Single Answer
Hahnemann recommended that remedies should be given in?
A
Large doses
B
Minimum doses
C
Continuous infusion
D
Intravenous injection
Question 21Single Answer
What is the main tool of the homeopathic physician?
A
Medicine
B
Surgery
C
Observation and case analysis
D
Laboratory equipment
Question 22Single Answer
The 5th edition of Organon introduced which concept?
A
Chronic miasms
B
Vital Force
C
Materia Medica
D
Single remedy at a time
Question 23Single Answer
According to Hahnemann, chronic diseases are mostly caused by?
A
Miasms
B
Acute infections
C
Trauma
D
Poor nutrition
Question 24Single Answer
Homoeopathic philosophy views disease as?
A
Only a local pathology
B
Always hereditary
C
A disturbance of Vital Force
D
Caused by bacteria
Question 25Single Answer
What is meant by ‘totality of symptoms’?
A
Counting all laboratory values
B
Considering physical, mental, and emotional symptoms together
C
Observing only chief complaint
D
Focusing on chronic disease only
Question 26Single Answer
The Organon lays stress on the physician’s?
A
Technical skills only
B
Moral and intellectual qualities
C
Financial management
D
Laboratory knowledge
Question 27Single Answer
Hahnemann emphasized that the physician should be?
A
Strictly scientific
B
Sensitive and observant
C
Authoritative
D
Detached
Question 28Single Answer
Aphorism 1 of Organon mentions?
A
Disease is physical only
B
Vital Force is unimportant
C
Remedies should be cheap
D
The physician’s duty is to cure the sick
Question 29Single Answer
Homoeopathy prefers which type of remedies?
A
Single remedies
B
Complex remedies
C
Allopathic drugs
D
Polypharmacy
Question 30Single Answer
The main principle in Homoeopathy is based on?
A
Herbal medicine
B
Surgery
C
Law of Similars
D
Vaccination
Question 31Single Answer
Hahnemann considered chronic miasms to be?
A
Hidden causes of long-standing diseases
B
Localized infections
C
Nutritional deficiencies
D
Psychosomatic disorders
Question 32Single Answer
Homoeopathic medicines act primarily on?
A
Pathogens
B
Tissues only
C
Organs
D
Vital Force
Question 33Single Answer
The term ‘Prognosis’ is derived from?
A
Greek
B
Latin
C
French
D
German
Question 34Single Answer
Hahnemann emphasized careful observation of?
A
Drug side effects
B
Patient’s mental, emotional, and physical symptoms
C
Laboratory tests only
D
Environmental conditions
Question 35Single Answer
Posology in Homoeopathy refers to?
A
Remedy selection
B
Case taking
C
Dose, repetition, and potency of medicine
D
Prognosis
Question 36Single Answer
Hahnemann believed the physician should first?
A
Perform surgery
B
Prescribe high doses
C
Observe and understand the disease thoroughly
D
Use injections
Question 37Single Answer
The Organon is considered a?
A
Medical journal
B
Surgical manual
C
Book on chemistry
D
Guiding text for homeopathic practice
Question 38Single Answer
“Dynamization” in Homoeopathy means?
A
Increasing molecular weight
B
Diluting the disease
C
Increasing the dynamic power of the remedy
D
Energizing the patient
Question 39Single Answer
Which aphorism deals with the single remedy?
A
Aphorism 50
B
Aphorism 21
C
Aphorism 273
D
Aphorism 100
Question 40Single Answer
Homeopathy is based on which type of treatment?
A
Symptomatic treatment only
B
Chemotherapy
C
Surgery
D
Holistic treatment stimulating Vital Force
Question 41Single Answer
The functional unit of the kidney is?
A
Nephron
B
Glomerulus
C
Tubule
D
Loop of Henle
Question 42Single Answer
The largest gland in the human body is?
A
Liver
B
Pancreas
C
Thyroid
D
Spleen
Question 43Single Answer
The smallest bone in the human body is?
A
Stapes
B
Malleus
C
Incus
D
Hyoid
Question 44Single Answer
The longest bone in the human body is?
A
Fibula
B
Tibia
C
Humerus
D
Femur
Question 45Single Answer
The human heart has how many chambers?
A
Four
B
Two
C
Three
D
Five
Question 46Single Answer
The brain is covered by how many meninges?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Four
D
One
Question 47Single Answer
The middle layer of the meninges is called?
A
Pia mater
B
Dura mater
C
Arachnoid mater
D
Epimysium
Question 48Single Answer
The outermost covering of the heart is called?
A
Epicardium
B
Endocardium
C
Pericardium
D
Myocardium
Question 49Single Answer
The main artery supplying blood to the brain is?
A
Pulmonary artery
B
Carotid artery
C
Aortic arch
D
Coronary artery
Question 50Single Answer
The functional unit of the nervous system is?
A
Synapse
B
Axon
C
Dendrite
D
Neuron
Important Questions Package
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Homoeopathic Subjects
Question 51Single Answer
The rib cage protects which organs?
A
Kidney and bladder
B
Liver and spleen
C
Stomach and pancreas
D
Heart and lungs
Question 52Single Answer
The number of pairs of ribs in a human body is?
A
11
B
10
C
14
D
12
Question 53Single Answer
The normal location of the heart in the thorax is?
A
Pleural cavity
B
Mediastinum
C
Abdominal cavity
D
Peritoneal cavity
Question 54Single Answer
The main organ of the circulatory system is?
A
Heart
B
Brain
C
Lungs
D
Kidneys
Question 55Single Answer
The trachea divides into how many primary bronchi?
A
Three
B
Two
C
Four
D
One
Question 56Single Answer
The voice box is also known as?
A
Pharynx
B
Larynx
C
Trachea
D
Bronchus
Question 57Single Answer
The diaphragm separates which two cavities?
A
Thoracic and abdominal
B
Abdominal and pelvic
C
Thoracic and cranial
D
Pelvic and spinal
Question 58Single Answer
The organ of hearing is located in which part of the body?
A
Eye
B
Nose
C
Ear
D
Tongue
Question 59Single Answer
The retina is part of which organ?
A
Brain
B
Ear
C
Eye
D
Nose
Question 60Single Answer
The pituitary gland is located in which part of the brain?
A
Sella turcica
B
Cerebellum
C
Hypothalamus
D
Corpus callosum
Question 61Single Answer
The spinal cord ends at which vertebral level in adults?
A
T12
B
L1-L2
C
L4-L5
D
S1
Question 62Single Answer
The pancreas is located in which region of the abdomen?
A
Iliac
B
Umbilical
C
Hypogastric
D
Epigastric
Question 63Single Answer
The bile is stored in?
A
Stomach
B
Liver
C
Pancreas
D
Gallbladder
Question 64Single Answer
The main function of red blood cells is to?
A
Fight infections
B
Produce antibodies
C
Transport oxygen
D
Regulate hormones
Question 65Single Answer
The number of bones in an adult human skeleton is?
A
210
B
208
C
206
D
201
Question 66Single Answer
The thyroid gland is located in which part of the body?
A
Chest
B
Neck
C
Abdomen
D
Brain
Question 67Single Answer
The main function of the cerebellum is?
A
Memory
B
Coordination of movement
C
Vision
D
Hearing
Question 68Single Answer
The largest artery in the human body is?
A
Femoral artery
B
Pulmonary artery
C
Carotid artery
D
Aorta
Question 69Single Answer
The esophagus connects?
A
Mouth to lungs
B
Pharynx to stomach
C
Nose to larynx
D
Larynx to trachea
Question 70Single Answer
The spleen is located in which quadrant of the abdomen?
A
Left lower quadrant
B
Right upper quadrant
C
Left upper quadrant
D
Right lower quadrant
Question 71Single Answer
The structure connecting two cerebral hemispheres is?
A
Midbrain
B
Thalamus
C
Hypothalamus
D
Corpus callosum
Question 72Single Answer
The heart valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is?
A
Aortic valve
B
Tricuspid valve
C
Pulmonary valve
D
Mitral valve
Question 73Single Answer
The white matter of the brain consists mainly of?
A
Myelinated axons
B
Neuronal cell bodies
C
Dendrites
D
Neuroglial cells
Question 74Single Answer
The basic structural and functional unit of life is?
A
Cell
B
Tissue
C
Organ
D
System
Question 75Single Answer
The main function of the large intestine is?
A
Absorption of glucose
B
Digestion of proteins
C
Secretion of bile
D
Absorption of water
Question 76Single Answer
The outermost layer of the skin is?
A
Epidermis
B
Dermis
C
Hypodermis
D
Subcutaneous tissue
Question 77Single Answer
The basic unit of a muscle is?
A
Actin
B
Myofibril
C
Myosin
D
Sarcomere
Question 78Single Answer
The cranial nerve responsible for smell is?
A
Trigeminal nerve
B
Optic nerve
C
Olfactory nerve
D
Facial nerve
Question 79Single Answer
The heart receives deoxygenated blood from?
A
Pulmonary veins
B
Aorta
C
Superior and inferior vena cava
D
Coronary arteries
Question 80Single Answer
The total number of cranial nerves in humans is?
A
14 pairs
B
10 pairs
C
12 pairs
D
11 pairs
Question 81Single Answer
The small intestine consists of how many parts?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
One
Question 82Single Answer
The part of the brain responsible for vision is?
A
Occipital lobe
B
Parietal lobe
C
Frontal lobe
D
Temporal lobe
Question 83Single Answer
The scapula is commonly known as?
A
Shoulder blade
B
Collar bone
C
Breast bone
D
Shin bone
Question 84Single Answer
The bones of the skull are joined by?
A
Ligaments
B
Joints
C
Sutures
D
Cartilage
Question 85Single Answer
The bone forming the lower jaw is called?
A
Temporal
B
Maxilla
C
Mandible
D
Frontal
Question 86Single Answer
The human vertebral column has how many bones?
A
33
B
32
C
34
D
31
Question 87Single Answer
The clavicle is also known as?
A
Pelvic bone
B
Shoulder blade
C
Breast bone
D
Collar bone
Question 88Single Answer
The number of bones in the human skull is?
A
22
B
21
C
24
D
23
Question 89Single Answer
The pelvic girdle consists of which bones?
A
Radius, ulna, humerus
B
Femur, tibia, fibula
C
Ilium, ischium, pubis
D
Sternum, clavicle, scapula
Question 90Single Answer
The muscles that move bones are known as?
A
Involuntary muscles
B
Smooth muscles
C
Cardiac muscles
D
Skeletal muscles
Research & Allied Topics
Question 91Single Answer
Standard normal distribution has mean = 0 and SD = ?
A
2
B
0
C
1
D
10
Question 92Single Answer
Probability values always lie between?
A
-1 and 1
B
0 and 1
C
1 and 100
D
0 and 2
Question 93Single Answer
The probability of an impossible event is?
A
1
B
0
C
0.5
D
Cannot be determined
Question 94Single Answer
The probability of a certain event is?
A
0.5
B
0
C
1
D
2
Question 95Single Answer
The sum of probabilities of all possible outcomes is?
A
Undefined
B
0
C
Infinite
D
1
Question 96Single Answer
Which test is used to compare means of two groups?
A
Chi-square test
B
t-test
C
ANOVA
D
Regression
Question 97Single Answer
Chi-square test is used to test?
A
Difference of means
B
Association between categorical variables
C
Linear relationship
D
Dispersion
Question 98Single Answer
Correlation coefficient (r) ranges from?
A
1 to 100
B
0 to 1
C
-1 to +1
D
-100 to +100
Question 99Single Answer
A positive correlation indicates?
A
Both decrease
B
One increases, other decreases
C
No relationship
D
Both variables increase together
Question 100Single Answer
Regression analysis is used to?
A
Find median
B
Test hypothesis
C
Predict one variable based on another
D
Compare means
Question 101Single Answer
ANOVA is used to compare?
A
Frequencies
B
Variance of two groups
C
Means of more than two groups
D
Medians
Question 102Single Answer
The null hypothesis assumes?
A
No difference between groups
B
Significant difference
C
Positive correlation
D
None
Question 103Single Answer
The probability of rejecting true null hypothesis is?
A
Significance
B
Type II error
C
Power
D
Type I error
Question 104Single Answer
The probability of accepting false null hypothesis is?
A
Significance level
B
Type I error
C
Type II error
D
Confidence interval
Question 105Single Answer
Level of significance commonly used in research is?
A
0.1
B
0.5
C
0.01
D
0.05
Question 106Single Answer
Confidence level of 95% means significance level of?
A
10%
B
1%
C
5%
D
2.5%
Question 107Single Answer
The power of a test is 1 minus?
A
Standard deviation
B
Type I error
C
Mean error
D
Type II error
Question 108Single Answer
Sampling is done to?
A
Eliminate hypothesis
B
Reduce error only
C
Avoid bias
D
Draw inferences about a population
Question 109Single Answer
Simple random sampling ensures?
A
Non-probability selection
B
Selection by convenience
C
Stratified representation
D
Each unit has equal chance of selection
Question 110Single Answer
Stratified sampling divides population into?
A
Heterogeneous groups
B
Homogeneous groups
C
Random clusters
D
Non-overlapping samples
Question 111Single Answer
Cluster sampling involves?
A
Selecting strata
B
Sampling groups rather than individuals
C
Random numbering
D
Systematic exclusion
Question 112Single Answer
Systematic sampling selects every nth unit after?
A
Sequential order
B
Random start
C
Sorting
D
Classification
Question 113Single Answer
Convenience sampling is a type of?
A
Probability sampling
B
Non-probability sampling
C
Stratified sampling
D
Cluster sampling
Question 114Single Answer
Sample size increases when?
A
Precision requirement decreases
B
Population decreases
C
Variability increases
D
Confidence level reduces
Question 115Single Answer
Standard error decreases as?
A
Variance increases
B
Sample size decreases
C
Sample size increases
D
Mean decreases
Question 116Single Answer
Larger sample size leads to?
A
More bias
B
Less accuracy
C
More precision
D
Less reliability
Question 117Single Answer
In hypothesis testing, p-value < 0.05 means?
A
Accept null hypothesis
B
Not significant
C
Significant result
D
Random error
Question 118Single Answer
The p-value indicates?
A
Sample size
B
Power of study
C
Mean difference
D
Probability that result is due to chance
Question 119Single Answer
A test with low p-value indicates?
A
Weak evidence
B
Strong evidence against null hypothesis
C
No evidence
D
Acceptance of null
Question 120Single Answer
If p-value > 0.05, result is considered?
A
Highly significant
B
Not significant
C
Marginally significant
D
Invalid
Question 121Single Answer
The graphical representation of cumulative frequency is called?
A
Histogram
B
Ogive
C
Bar chart
D
Pie chart
Question 122Single Answer
A normal distribution curve is also known as?
A
Skewed curve
B
Bell-shaped curve
C
Bimodal curve
D
Parabolic curve
Question 123Single Answer
If mean < median < mode, the distribution is?
A
Negatively skewed
B
Positively skewed
C
Normal
D
Bimodal
Question 124Single Answer
The central limit theorem is applicable to?
A
Qualitative data
B
Small samples
C
Large samples
D
Nominal data
Question 125Single Answer
The best measure of central tendency for skewed data is?
A
Variance
B
Mean
C
Mode
D
Median
Question 126Single Answer
The geometric mean is used for?
A
Growth rate data
B
Categorical data
C
Nominal data
D
Random data
Question 127Single Answer
When data have two peaks, it is called?
A
Bimodal distribution
B
Normal distribution
C
Skewed distribution
D
Uniform distribution
Question 128Single Answer
Quartile deviation measures?
A
Mean deviation
B
Entire data spread
C
Spread of middle 50% of data
D
Variance
Question 129Single Answer
Range is greatly affected by?
A
Probability
B
Median
C
Sample size
D
Extreme values
Question 130Single Answer
The unit of standard deviation is?
A
Same as mean
B
Square of mean
C
None
D
Reciprocal of mean
Question 131Single Answer
Which graphical method is best for showing proportion?