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Latest CDAC Project Engineer Exam Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, Reasoning, Numerical Ability, General Knowledge, Electrical/Civil/Mechanical, Mechanical/Electrical, Technical Ability
Question Bank CDAC Project Engineer Exam. - English
General English
Q 1 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The principle that
B.a pen is mightier
C.then a sword
D.was known to early Greeks.
E.No error
Q 2 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 3 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.There was such
B.a crowd that
C.he would not
D.find his brother.
E.No error
Q 4 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Having managed the
B.team of two
C.years, he knew
D.his players well.
E.No error
Q 5 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 6 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The State Government
B.has send reports
C.to the centre
D.on the situation.
E.No error
Q 7 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Whether a person
B.takes to smoking
C.depends a lot
D.in his social network.
E.No error
Q 8 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Every home and every office
B.needs the latest equipment
C.for keep up
D.with times.
E.No error
Q 9 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The idea of turning
B.invisible with the
C.swish of clock have
D.always fascinated scientists.
E.No error
Q 10 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.She had seen
B.the approaching truck
C.and had jumping
D.out of the way.
E.No error
Q 11 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.No country can long endure
B.if its foundations
C.were not laid deep
D.in the material prosperity.
E.No error
Q 12 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.I went 0 the liberarian and cashier
B.and they gave me
C.all facilities required
D.to complete the project
E.No error
Q 13 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.When she comes
B.to see us
C.she usually were bring
D.somethings with her.
E.No errors
Q 14 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Why did you
B.not told me
C.that the meeting
D.was postponed.
E.No error
Q 15 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.He picked up
B.the books
C.and put it
D.on the table.
E.No error
Q 16 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Almost
B.two hours have elapsed
C.since he fell
D.asleep.
E.All correct
Q 17 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Have you noticed
B.that the country is on the brink
C.of a serious
D.dissaster
E.All correct
Q 18 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.If the worst
B.comes to
C.worst,
D.I will have to bid good bye to my studies and join my family business.
E.No error
Q 19 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 20 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.The institute
B.imparts training
C.in
D.the French.
E.No error
Q 21 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Looking forward
B.to meet
C.you
D.soon.
E.No error
Q 22 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 23 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Pionear
B.Neighbour
C.Harmony
D.Propriety
E.All correct
Q 24 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.instantly
B.comfortable
C.Enforcement
D.wisedom
E.All correct
Q 25 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Enhance
B.Assumption
C.vehical
D.prisoner
E.All correct
Reasoning
Q 26 :
In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language ?
A.Si
B.Pa
C.Ti
D.Ke
E.None of these
Q 27 :
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below?
C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A A B ?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Q 28 :
How many meaningful English works can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letter only once in each word ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 29 :
The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternative shall replace the question mark?
AD, C, HK, MJ,?
A.NQ
B.OQ
C.OR
D.MP
E.None of these
Q 30 :
If the letters in the word 'DOLPHIN' are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
A.O
B.D
C.I
D.L
E.None of these
Q 31 :
In a certain code EXPERT is written as $Z%$Q5 and PETROL is written as %$5Q#9. How will 'EXPLORE' be writ n in that code?
A.$ Z % 9 Q # $
B.$ Z % 9 # Q $
C.$ Z % 9 # $ Q
D.$ Z % 9 $ # Q
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
A.Cannot be determined
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 33 :
In a certain code 'BACK' is written as '5914' and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is 'BEAT' written in that code?
A.5697
B.5967
C.4697
D.5687
E.None of these
Q 34 :
West : North - East :: South : ?
A.North - West
B.South - East
C.North
D.East
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.one
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.48
C.56
D.31
E.72
Q 37 :
In a certain code language, 'go and come' is written as 'na ta ka' and 'black and white' is written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in that code language?
A.na
B.ka
C.pa
D.na or ka
E.None of these
Q 38 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME written as 64 $ How is GEAR written in that code ?
A.74$@
B.7$4@
C.7%4@
D.7@$4
E.none of these
Q 41 :
How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 42 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
BDFH L NACE GIKMBDFHJ LACEGIKBDFBJ
A.B
B.L
C.M
D.F
E.None of these
Q 43 :
In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is GROU ED written in that code?
A.PSH EFO
B.NOFVCDO
C.NOF IEFO
D.PSHTCDO
E.None of these
Q 44 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.169
B.441
C.361
D.529
E.289
Q 45 :
Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than Wand lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest?
A.R
B.W
C.R or W
D.Data inadequate
E.None of these
Q 46 :
If 'R' denotes '+'; 'P' denotes 'x; 'W' denotes '+' and 'V' denotes '-'; then 14 W 16 R 4 V 3 P 5 = ?
A.15
B.4
C.6
D.3
E.None of these
Q 47 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PM
B.EB
C.TO
D.IF
E.VY
Q 48 :
Pointing to a woman, Suresh said, 'she is the daughter of my grandfather's only daughter'. How is Suresh related to the woman?
A.Brother
B.Cousin
C.Uncle
D.Can’t be determined
E.None of these
Q 49 :
'Visual’ is related to 'Light' in the same way as 'Audio' is relate to .
A.voice
B.Sound
C.Drama
D.noise
E.None of these
Q 50 :
In a class of 40 children, Sunetra's rank is eighth from the top. Sujit is five ranks below Sunetra. What is Sujit's rank from the bottom?
A.27
B.29
C.28
D.26
E.None of these
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Numerical Ability
Q 51 :
The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 34.2 what is 78% of that number ?
A.1342
B.1482
C.1558
D.1670
E.none of these
Q 52 :
What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount Rs. 4000 at the rate of 5% per annum after 3 yr
A.Rs. 612
B.Rs. 578
C.Rs. 525.5
D.Rs. 630.5
E.none of these
Q 53 :
A car covers a distance of 1450 km in 25 h. What is the speed of the car ?
A.58 km/h
B.66 km/h
C.72 km/h
D.cannot be determined
E.none of these
Q 54 :
The average age of a man and his son is 40 yr. The ratio of their ages is 7:3 respectively. What is the man’s age
A.70 yr
B.63 yr
C.56 yr
D.49 yr
E.none of these
Q 55 :
A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days
A.2256
B.322
C.196
D.2352
E.none of these
Q 56 :
The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.none of these
Q 57 :
The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D ?
A.11440
B.11024
C.10608
D.11232
E.none of these
Q 58 :
The owner of a cell phones shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?
A.Rs. 5845
B.Rs. 6750
C.Rs. 5900
D.Rs. 6925
E.none of these
Q 59 :
IF (16)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?
A.69
B.59
C.89
D.79
E.none of these
Q 60 :
If an amount of Rs 85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?
A.Rs. 2594
B.Rs. 2954
C.Rs. 2549
D.Rs. 2495
E.none of these
Q 61 :
43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?
A.416
B.429
C.403
D.384
E.none of these
Q 62 :
In Boolean algebra, which of the following statement is correct
A.(a + b)’ = a’ + b'
B.(a + b)’ = a’ . b'
C.(a + b)’ = (a’ . b’)
D.None of the above
E.none of these
Q 63 :
If (92)2 is added to the square of a number the answer so obtained is 10768 . what is the number
A.46
B.2304
C.48
D.2116
E.none of these
Q 64 :
The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school
A.49 : 52
B.51 : 50
C.50 : 51
D.52 : 49
E.none of these
Q 65 :
Sumit invests Rs. 4762, Which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income
A.Rs. 28572
B.Rs. 23810
C.Rs. 19048
D.Rs 14285
E.none of these
Q 66 :
There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
A.603
B.402
C.804
D.703
E.none of these
Q 67 :
In an examination shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination
A.83
B.65
C.82
D.78
E.70
Q 68 :
What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs 8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr ?
A.Rs. 5413
B.Rs. 2678
C.Rs. 3572
D.Rs 4752
E.none of these
Q 69 :
The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables
A.Rs. 19656
B.Rs. 29484
C.Rs. 39312
D.cannot be determined
E.none of these
Q 70 :
The smallest number of 4-digits which when divided by 6, 8, 12 and 20 leaves no remainder is
A.120
B.1040
C.1200
D.1080
E.None of these
Q 71 :
After deducting 10% from a certain sum and there from the remainder, there is ~ 14400 left. The on sum is
A.Rs. 18000
B.Rs. 20000
C.Rs. 22000
D.Rs 22250
E.None of these
Q 72 :
A vector which makes equal angle with the vectors 1/3(i – 2j + 2k), 1/5(- 4i – 3k) and j is
A.5i + j + 5k
B.– 6i + j + 5k
C.5i – j – 5k
D.5i + j – 5k
E.none of theses
Q 73 :
A cistern is normally filled in 8 h but takes two hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. : cistern is full, the leak will empty it in
A.10h
B.18h
C.30h
D.40h
E.None of these
Q 74 :
A and B are 20 km apart. A can walk at an average of 4 km/h and B at an average speed of 6 km/h, IF they start walking towards each other at 8 am at wha1 will they meet?
A.9:00 am
B.9:30 am
C.10:00 am
D.10:30 am
E.None of these
Q 75 :
15 persons can fill 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?
A.39
B.49
C.33
D.36
E.None of these
General Knowledge
Q 76 :
The first train in the country to have a Braille embedded AC coach the purushottam Express runs from
A.Delhi to puri
B.Delhi to bengaluru
C.Chennai to Rourkela
D.Kolkata to Bengaluru
E.Mumbai to Delhi
Q 77 :
Where has 15 th Express Technology sabha inaugurated as an established platform
A.Hyderabad
B.Bengaluru
C.Kochi
D.Kolkata
E.Chennai
Q 78 :
Justice Mudgal, Who had chaired a committee appointed by the supreme court to look into the matter of
A.International affairs
B.Law and order issues
C.Indian premier league match fixing allegations
D.Changes in the cinematograph Act 1952
E.Enactment of Rules and Regulatory act
Q 79 :
India’s only and first hospital for fish will set up in
A.Goa
B.Gujarat
C.Kerala
D.Tamil nadu
E.Sikkim
Q 80 :
Vinod kumar Duggal has been appointed as the new governor of
A.Mizoram
B.Manipur
C.Meghalaya
D.Asom
E.Maharashtra
Q 81 :
Who became the first woman to be appointed as the Director of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National PoliceAcademy?
A.Aruna M Bahuguna
B.Kiran Bedi
C.Kumud Chaudhary
D.Aruna Vishwas
E.M K Lakshmi
Q 82 :
The chief aim of Maulana Azad Taleem-e- Baligan is
A.fund for agriculture development
B.to spread communal harmony
C.achieve higher literacy for Muslim community
D.comprehensive adolescent health programme
E.constructing resilient houses
Q 83 :
Vamsadhar water Dispute Tribunal was constituted to resolve the water sharing dispute between
A.Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
B.Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
C.Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
D.Maharasrtra and Karnataka
E.Madhya pradesh and Maharashtra
Q 84 :
The first High Court in the country to provide court case details and judicial information in public domain
A.Karnatak
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Bombay
D.Madras
E.Delhi
Q 85 :
Which of the following city of Pakistan is worst affected by Polio?
A.Karachi
B.Peshawar
C.Swabi
D.Lasbela
E.Islamabad
Q 86 :
'Operation Valentine’ was launched in which country
A.Vietnam
B.Thailand
C.Syria
D.South Sudan
E.Libya
Q 87 :
Denomination (s) of coins issued by the RBI bearing images of Goddess Vaishno Devi
A.5, 10
B.2, 10
C.5, 2
D.1, 2
E.10, 2
Q 88 :
Legendary actress of yesteryears suchitra sen died in Kolkata. She was known as
A.Kokila
B.Perfectionist
C.Greta Garbo of india
D.lconic star of Tamil Cinema
E.Iron lady
Q 89 :
The palatna Power Project gas based power project is situated at
A.South Western Region
B.West East Region
C.North-Southern Region
D.South-Eastern Region
E.North-Eastern Region
Q 90 :
The ‘Sankirtana’ a famous tradition of ritual singing, drumming and dancing is practiced mainly in
A.Asom
B.Manipur
C.Kerala
D.Himachal Pradesh
E.Nagaland
Q 91 :
Which movies has won Golden Peacock Award at the 44 th international Film Festival (India) ?
A.Kush
B.Beatriz’s War
C.Apur Panchali
D.Megha Dhaka Tera
E.Anokha
Q 92 :
Who became the first female chief of police of district one (Kabul Province) in Afghanistan?
A.Jamila Bayaz
B.Amma
C.Nur Zamed
D.Shabnam Yusuf
E.Tabussom Yani
Q 93 :
World's first Bitcoin Storage Service that insures deposits of the digital currency loss and theft, has been launched in
A.Sydney
B.New York
C.London
D.Beijing
E.Singapore
Q 94 :
Tulsi is a medicinal plant and has anti-cancerous metabolites, is the name of compound found in Tulsi
A.Eugenol
B.Ursolic Acid
C.Rosmarinic Acid
D.Caryophyllene
E.Acetic Acid
Q 95 :
The Union Health and Family Welfare Minister, Gulam Nafi Azad inaugurated the All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) at
A.Bhopal
B.Bhubaneshwar
C.Ranchi
D.Jaipur
E.Ahmedabad
Q 96 :
On which river the multi-purpose project pulichintala located?
A.Narmada
B.Manjira
C.Tungabhadra
D.Krishna
E.Cauvery
Q 97 :
Who became the youngest person to reach the summit of Aconcagua, the highest mountain of America?
A.Arunima Singh
B.Tyler Armstrong
C.Rudolph Jackson
D.Saunim Day
E.None of these
Q 98 :
At which place, the Union Health and Family Welfare Minister, Gulam Nabi Azad inaugurated the All India Institute of Medical Science (AIIMS) on February 26, 2014?
A.Bhopal
B.Bhubaneshwar
C.Ranchi
D.Jaipur
E.Hyderabad
Q 99 :
The Union Government has cleared a proposal for setting up of National Cancer Institute. The proposed institute would be set-up in
A.New Delhi
B.Punjab
C.Haryana
D.Himachal Pradesh
E.Kolkata
Q 100 :
'Sangharsh Ke Safar Ka Nayak Mulayam' the book is written by
A.Devika Devaiah
B.Chetan Bhagat
C.Omveer Tomar
D.R D Reddy
E.Samir Chopra
Technical Ability
Q 101 :
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A.0.8 Ω
B.1.4 Ω
C.2 Ω
D.2.8 Ω
Q 102 :
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
D.7.0 × 1012 m3
Q 103 :
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A.9.2 × 105/m3
B.2.77 × 103/m3
C.2.43 × 1019/m3
D.8.9 × 1012/m3
Q 104 :
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A.By the mobility of the carriers
B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Q 105 :
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A.Parallel polarized
B.Perpendicularly polarized
C.Normally polarized
D.None of the above
Q 106 :
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Q 107 :
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Q 108 :
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A.High stiffness and strengths
B.Low densities
C.Unusual electrical property
D.Non-ductile
Q 109 :
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A.Meissner effect
B.Josephson effect
C.Isotope effect
D.x quantization experiments
Q 110 :
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A.Phenol formaldehyde
B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
C.Polyvinyl chloride
D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Q 111 :
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A.Ferrite
B.Piezoelectric
C.Pyroelectric
D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Q 112 :
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A.Peak temperature
B.Neel temperatur
C.Critical temperature
D.Weiss temperature
Q 113 :
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A.Seeback effect
B.Thomson effect
C.Hall effect
D.Joule effect
Q 114 :
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A.Soft magnetic materials
B.Hard magnetic materials
C.High eddy current loss materials
D.High hysteresis loss materials
Q 115 :
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.Neither 1 nor 2
C.1 only
D.2 only
Q 116 :
At temperature of 298 Kelvin, Silicon is not suitable for most-electronic applications, due to small amount of conductivity. This can be altered by
A.Gettering
B.Doping
C.Squeezing
D.Sintering
Q 117 :
By doping Germanium with Gallium, the types of semi-conductors formed are
1. N type
2. P type
3. Intrinsic
4. Extrinsic
A.1 and 4
B.2 and 4
C.1 and 3
D.2 and 3
Q 118 :
An n-type of silicon can be formed by adding impurity of:
1. Phosphorous
2. Arsenic
3. Boron
4. Aluminum
Which of the above are correct ?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Q 119 :
According to Einstein’s relationship for a semiconductor, the ratio of diffusion constant to the mobility of the charge carriers is
A.Variable and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
B.Constant and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
C.Equal to two and is twice the volt equivalent of the temperature
D.Equal to one and is equal to the volt equivalent of the temperature
Q 120 :
Swept-out voltage in PIN diode happens when PIN diode is
A.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
B.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
C.Forward biased and the thickness of the depletion layer increases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
D.Reverse biased and the thickness of the depletion layer decreases till I-region becomes free of mobile carriers
Q 121 :
The number of holes in an N-type silicon with intrinsic value 1.5 × 1010/cm3 and doping concentration of 1017/cm3, by using mass-action law is
A.6.67 × 106/cc
B.4.44 × 10-25/cc
C.1.5× 10-24/cc
D.2.25 × 103/cc
Q 122 :
A tunnel-diode is best suited for
A.Very low frequencies
B.50 Hz
C.100 Hz
D.Microwave frequencies
Q 123 :
Small recovery time of a diode is most significant for
A.Line-frequency rectification
B.Switching operations
C.High-frequency rectifications and switching operations
D.Low-frequency rectifications and switching operations
Q 124 :
In JFET, when operated above the pinch-off voltage, the
A.Depletion region becomes smaller
B.Drain current starts decreasing
C.Drain current remains practically constant
D.Drain current increases steeply
Q 125 :
Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because, as the temperature of FET increases
A.The drain current increases
B.The mobility of charge carriers decreases
C.The mobility of charge carriers increases
D.The transconductance increases
Q 126 :
Consider the following statements regarding an N-P-N Bipolar Junction Transistor:
1. Emitter diode is forward biased and collector diode is reverse biased
2. Emitter has many free electrons
3. Free electrons are injected into base and pass through collector
4. Depletion layers around junction J1 and J2 of BJT are widened
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 127 :
A freewheeling diode T phase controlled rectifier
A.Improves the line power factor
B.Enables inverse operation
C.Is responsible for additional reactive power
D.Is responsible for additional harmonics
Q 128 :
The zeners incorporated within the encapsulations of some MOSFETs are meant for
A.Reducing the cost
B.Biasing the gate circuit
C.Self-protecting the device against transients
D.None of the above
Q 129 :
When UJT is used for triggering an SCR, the wave-shape of the signal obtained from UJT circuit is
A.Sine wave
B.Saw tooth wave
C.Trapezoidal wave
D.Square wave
Q 130 :
Darlington pairs are frequently used in linear ICs because, they
C.Can be readily formed/hooked from two adjacent transistors
D.Resemble emitter follower
Mechanical/Electrical
Q 131 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 132 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 133 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 134 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 135 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 136 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 137 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 138 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 139 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 140 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Electrical/Civil/Mechanical
Q 141 :
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 142 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 143 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 144 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 145 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 146 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 147 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 148 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 149 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 150 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
