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Latest CFW AP Civil Assistant Surgeon Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Studies & Mental Ability
Question Bank CFW AP Civil Assistant Surgeon Exam Paper I - English
General Studies & Mental Ability
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 17 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 18 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 19 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 20 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 21 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 23 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 24 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 25 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 26 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 28 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 29 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 30 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 31 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 32 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 33 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 34 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 35 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 36 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 37 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 38 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 39 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 40 :
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 41 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 42 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 43 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 44 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
Q 45 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.27
C.48
D.42
E.24
Q 46 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.187
B.323
C.119
D.221
E.289
Q 47 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.35
B.80
C.45
D.60
E.75
Q 48 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.31
B.39
C.47
D.41
E.43
Q 49 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.27
B.64
C.125
D.216
E.384
Q 50 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.25
B.64
C.189
D.225
E.121
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CFW AP Civil Assistant Surgeon Exam PAPER I Question Bank Book - English
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.23
B.29
C.37
D.39
E.31
Q 52 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.115
B.145
C.95
D.155
E.75
Q 53 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.126
B.217
C.345
D.513
E.730
Q 54 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.144
B.169
C.256
D.288
E.324
Q 55 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.143
B.168
C.224
D.195
E.257
Q 56 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.29
B.85
C.147
D.125
E.53
Q 57 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alphabet series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group, if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed separately?
A.FH
B.SU
C.MA
D.CK
E.LB
Q 58 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.MPQO
B.DGHF
C.RUTV
D.VYZX
E.JMNL
Q 59 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.AMCL
B.WIVK
C.GVIU
D.XDZC
E.HRJQ
Q 60 :
Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A. AZMN
B.BYEF
C.CXUV
D.FUNO
E.IRDV
Q 61 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.LOJ
B.FID
C.RUP
D.ILN
E.CFA
Q 62 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.RICE : ECIR
B.WINGS : SGNIW
C.SMART : RTSMA
D.COUSIN : SINCOU
E.BRAKE : AKRFB
Q 63 :
the one that does not belong to that group?
A.VT
B.MK
C.DB
D.KH
E.XV
Q 64 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PS
B.FI
C.AD
D.KN
E.GD
Q 65 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.PARENT : RPBTEO
B.MOSTLY : SMPYTM
C.SIMPLE : MSJEPM
D.MOTHER : TMPRHD
E.SUNDAY : NSVYDB
Q 66 :
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
A.(50,59,71)
B.(46, 56, 66)
C.(60, 69, 72)
D.(60, 69, 82)
E.None of these
Q 67 :
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
A.(56, 52, 44)
B.(64, 61, 53)
C.(92, 88, 79)
D.(75, 71, 60)
E.None of these
Q 68 :
Kick : Football
A.Mop : Sweep
B.Dust : Rage
C.Wash : Dishes
D.Throw : Ring
E.None of these
Q 69 :
Rectangle : Pentagon
A.Triangle : Rectangle
B.Diagonal : Perimeter
C.Side : Angle
D.Circle : Square
E.None of the above
Q 70 :
Inherit : Acquire
A.Instinct : Habbit
B.Learn : Discover
C.Loss : Gain
D.Hierarchical : Succession
E.None of the above
Q 71 :
Court : Justic
A.Police : Crime
B.Teacher : Study
C.Doctor : Sickness
D.Auditor : Accuracy
E.None of these
Q 72 :
Coal : Thermal
A.Power : Energy
B.Bulb : Light
C.Air : Atmosphere
D.Water : Hydel
E.None of the above
Q 73 :
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion I is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 74 :
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 75 :
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 76 :
Statements S< L< I = P E> R : L > Q Conclusion
I. L> R
II.E> Q
A.Only conclusion II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Either conclusion I or II is true
E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 77 :
Statements C > W > E=R < B < S: H< R >D Conculsions
I. C > D
II.H < S
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 78 :
Statements V= D < Y < A > G> E :P= R : A < V Conclusions
I. E > P
II. P > E
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 79 :
Statements S>J =T< O :T< P Conculsions
I. S O
II. P < S
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 80 :
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 81 :
Statements C>W> E =R< B< S:H< R > D
Conculsions
I. B C
Ii.W D
A.Either conclusion I or II is true
B.Only conclusion I is true
C.Both conclusions I and II are true
D.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
E.Only conclusion II is true
Q 82 :
Statements I=H > C> N < E = S Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C >S
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 83 :
Statements J < K > O = Z , K < Q< S Conculsions
I. Q > Z
II. S < Z
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 84 :
Statements P < I > V > O = T < S Conculsions
I. O > P
II. S > V
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 85 :
Statements G < R < I < =N; R > Q> S Colculsions
I. N > Q
II. N = Q
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 86 :
Statements G< R< I=N: R> Q > S Conculsions
I. I > S
II. Q I
A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
B.Either conclusion I or II is true
C.Only conclusion II is true
D.Only conclusion II is true
E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 87 :
Statements M > A> B=Q< P < J < Y : Z > A > S Conculsions
I. B<Y
II. X > J
A.If only conclusion I is true
B.If neither conclusion I nor II is true
C.If only conclusion II is true
D.If both conclusions are true
E.If either conclusion I or II is true
Q 88 :
Statements M > A > B = Q < P < J < Y : Z > A > X Conculsions
I. Z = Q
II. Z > Q
A.If only conclusion I is true
B.If neither conclusion I nor II is true
C.If only conclusion II is true
D.If both conclusions are true
E.If either conclusion I or II is true
Q 89 :
Statements G < R = A < S : T <S Conculsions
I. G < S
II. S > T
A.If only conclusion I is true
B.If neither conclusion I nor II is true
C.If only conclusion II is true
D.If both conclusions are true
E.If either conclusion I or II is true
Q 90 :
A.If only conclusion I is true
B.If neither conclusion I nor II is true
C.If only conclusion II is true
D.If both conclusions are true
E.If either conclusion I or II is true
Q 91 :
Total number of districts in Andhra Pradesh ?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D.17
Q 92 :
Which one is the largest district by area wise in Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Kurnool
B. Anantapur
C. Kadapa
D.Nellore
Q 93 :
Who is the first sports person to received Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award from Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Pullela Gopichand
B.Karnam Malleswari
C.Saina Nehwal
D.Sania Mirza
Q 94 :
Before Hyderabad was made capital in 1956, which city was the capital of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.Warangal
B.Vijayawada
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kurnool
Q 95 :
In which district, the TirumalaVenkateswara Temple is located ?
A.Chittoor
B.Krishna
C.Kurnool
D.Vizianagaram
Q 96 :
Who was the first person to translate the Mahabharata into Telugu language ?
A.Pothana
B.Tikkana
C.Nannayya
D.Vemana
Q 97 :
Which one was the first dynasty to rule Vijayanagara Empire ?
A.Tuluva dynasty
B.Saluva dynasty
C.Sangama dynasty
D.Aravidu dynasty
Q 98 :
Who is not in the group known as Kavitraya (three great poets) of Telugu literature ?
A.Nannaya
B.Tikanna
C.Yerrapragada
D.Pothana
Q 99 :
When NT Rama Rao become the first chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ?
A.1978
B. 1983
C.1985
D. 1992
Q 100 :
Which one is the only constituency from where NT Rama Rao defeated in assembly election ?
A.Kalwakurthy
B.Hindupur
C.Tekkali
D. Nalgonda
Q 101 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 102 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 103 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 104 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 105 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 106 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 107 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 108 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 109 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 110 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 111 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 112 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 113 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 114 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 115 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 116 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 117 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 118 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 119 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 120 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 121 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 122 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 123 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 124 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 125 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 126 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 127 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 128 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 129 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 130 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 131 :
What is the name of the tourism app recently launched by the Delhi Government?
A.My Delhi
B.Dekho Meri Dilli
C.Tour Delhi
D.Hamara Delhi
Q 132 :
Quarterly Employment Survey provides the employment and related variables of how many sectors of the country?
A.3
B.9
C.15
D.23
Q 133 :
What was the original duration of the Foreign Trade Policy, which is being currently implemented?
A.2015-2020
B.2014-2019
C.2016-2021
D.2017-2022
Q 134 :
What is “Akash Prime”, that is seen in the news recently?
A.New broadcasting station of AIR
B.New broadband service by BSNL
C.New Version of Akash Missile
D.Navigation satellite of ISRO
Q 135 :
Where is the ‘National Institute of Biotic Stress Tolerance’ located?
A.Mumbai
B.Pune
C.Ahmedabad
D.Raipur
Q 136 :
Where was the 3-day long musical festival “Nata-Sankirtana” held?
A.Assam
B.Manipur
C.Gujarat
D.Sikkim
Q 137 :
What is the Total financial allocations for “Promotion of Medical Device Parks” by the Central government for a tenure FY21 to FY25?
A.Rs 400 crore
B.Rs 200 crore
C.Rs 600 crore
D.Rs 800 crore
Q 138 :
Which Country recently (in Sept’ 21) signed a Mutual Recognition Arrangement with India to recognize each other as Authorised Economic Operators?
A.Finland
B.Mexico
C.USA
D.Singapore
Q 139 :
Which Bank recently (in Sept’ 21) approved to provide credit support for ‘yak husbandry’ in Arunachal Pradesh?
A.SIDBI
B.State Bank of India
C.Punjab National Bank
D.NABARD
Q 140 :
What was India’s GDP growth rate projected by ‘S&P Global Ratings’ for FY22, as of September 2021?
A.7.2%
B.8.9%
C.10.2%
D.9.5%
Q 141 :
“Seafarers: at the core of shipping’s future” is the theme of which day, celebrated on 30 September?
A.World Seafarers Day
B.World Maritime Day
C.World Oceanography Day
D.World Fishery Day
Q 142 :
Which company has launched ‘Future Engineer Programme’ in India?
A.Google
B.Amazon
C.Microsoft
D.Facebook
Q 143 :
Gold Exchange and Social Stock Exchange, which were in the news recently, are approved by which organization?
A.SEBI
B.RBI
C.ECGC
D.NSDL
Q 144 :
India unveiled a ‘National Action Plan for Dog Mediated Rabies Elimination’ (NAPRE), to eliminate rabies by which year?
A.2025
B.2027
C.2030
D.2032
Q 145 :
Padmaja Chunduru, former MD & CEO of Indian Bank, has been appointed as the new MD & CEO of which organization?
A.NSDL
B.SEBI MF
C.SBI
D.LIC
Q 146 :
Which Payment Bank recently (in Sept’ 21) joined hands with Dairy-tech startup ‘Stellapps’ to enable cashless payment transfers to small dairy farmers?
A.Paytm Payment Bank
B.NSDL Payments Bank
C.Airtel Payment Bank
D.Jio Payments Bank
Q 147 :
Which bank was removed by RBI (in Sept’ 21) from its Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework?
A.Punjab National Bank
B.Central Bank of India
C.YES Bank
D.Indian Overseas Bank
Q 148 :
Which Environmental Organization won the 2021’s Right Livelihood Award’?
A.Greenpeace India
B.Centre for Science and Environment
C.National Ganga River Basin Authority
D.Legal Initiative for Forest and Environment
Q 149 :
Who was recently (in Sept’ 21) appointed as the President of the ruling’ Liberal Democratic Party’ & set to become the 100thPM of Japan.
A.Shinzo Abe
B.Yoshihide Suga
C.Fumio Kishida
D.Naruhito
Q 150 :
In September 2021, MSME Minister Narayan Tatu Rane inaugurated the India Export Initiative and SME Forum’s portal named ______ to increase export by 50% in 2022.
