Medical Science, General Surgeon, General Medicine
Question 1Single Answer
Which one of the following organ break fats to produce cholesterol?
A
liver
B
lungs
C
kidney
D
pancreas
Question 2Single Answer
Insulim was discovered by?
A
F. Banting
B
Freaderick Sanger
C
Janer
D
Robert coach
Question 3Single Answer
Digestion of protein starts from-
A
small intestine
B
large intestine
C
mouth
D
stomach
Question 4Single Answer
Bile is produced by-
A
liver
B
kidney
C
Pancreas
D
appendix
Question 5Single Answer
Bile is stored in-
A
liver
B
Kidney
C
pancreas
D
gall bladder
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin E?
A
egg
B
fish
C
meat
D
fresh vegetable
Question 7Single Answer
The term used for bad breath from mouth is?
A
halitosis
B
pyorrhea
C
bromidrosis
D
hyperhidrosis
Question 8Single Answer
The amount of protein required by an Indian adult per days is?
A
1 gm/kg body wt.
B
2gm/kg body wt.
C
1.5gm /kg body wt
D
2.5gm /kg body w.t
Question 9Single Answer
The precursor of vitamin A-
A
carotene
B
retinol
C
calciferol
D
nicotinic acid
Question 10Single Answer
The daily requirement of vitamin D by an adult is-
A
2 microgram /day
B
2.5 microgram /day
C
3 microgram /day
D
4 microgram / day
Question 11Single Answer
Vitamin D deficiency in children causes-
A
osteoporosis
B
rickets
C
bone malignancies
D
osteomalacia
Question 12Single Answer
Vitamin which prevents haemorrhage is-
A
vitamin K
B
vitamin A
C
vitamin D
D
vitamin E
Question 13Single Answer
The vitamin which is essential for proper functioning of nervous system is-
A
vitamin K
B
vitamin A
C
vitamin D
D
vitamin E
Question 14Single Answer
Ber- Beri is caused due to the deficiney of-
A
vitamin B1
B
vitamin B2
C
vitamin B6
D
vitamin B12
Question 15Single Answer
The vitamin which is involved in fat, protein and carbohydrate metabolism is-
A
riboflavin
B
thiamine
C
niacin
D
folic acid
Question 16Single Answer
pellagra is caused due to the deficieny of-
A
niacin
B
ascorbic acid
C
riboflavin
D
pantothenic acid
Question 17Single Answer
The daily requirement of folic acid for an adult is-
A
50 microgram
B
100 microgram
C
300 microgram
D
200 microgram
Question 18Single Answer
Pernicious anaemia is caused due to the deficiency of-
A
vitamin B1
B
vitamin B2
C
vitamin B6
D
vitamin B12
Question 19Single Answer
Parkinson’s disease is due to the loss of one of the following neurotransmitters ?
A
Acetylcholine
B
Dopamine
C
Norepinephrine
D
Serotonin
Question 20Single Answer
According to RDA the normal daily requirement of protein in adult is-
A
1gm/ body w.t
B
2gm /body w.t
C
3gm /body w.t
D
1.5 gm/ body w.t
Question 21Single Answer
A person is said to killed by road traffic accident if he dies within how many days of accident -
A
12 days
B
30 days
C
40 days
D
47 days
Question 22Single Answer
Acceptable noise level in industries -
A
25-30 dB
B
30-40 dB
C
40-50 dB
D
60-80 dB
Question 23Single Answer
Aedes mosquito grows in -
A
Clean water
B
Artificial water collection
C
Stagnant drains
D
Water bodies containing plants
Question 24Single Answer
Replacement & periodic examination in radiation industary is recommended -
A
Every month
B
Every 2 months
C
Every 6 months
D
Every year
Question 25Single Answer
True about mosquito preventive nets are all except-
A
Hole size <0.0475
B
150 holes per square inch
C
Best pattern in circular
D
There should be no rent
Question 26Single Answer
Component of HDI are all except -
A
Life expectancy
B
Knowledge
C
Income
D
Social status
Question 27Single Answer
Extended sickness benefit is payable of -
A
91 days
B
150 days
C
207 days
D
309 days
Question 28Single Answer
Reservior for scrub typhus -
A
Mite
B
Humans
C
Rodents
D
Dogs
Question 29Single Answer
Least failure rate is seen in which IUD-
A
CUT-200
B
Lippes lood
C
LNG-IUD
D
Nova - T
Question 30Single Answer
Human milk contains how much calaries [per 100 gm]-
A
45
B
72
C
117
D
146
Question 31Single Answer
Rice is deficient in which amino acid -
A
Serine
B
Threonine
C
Methonine
D
Cystone
Question 32Single Answer
Rice protein is deficient in -
A
Methionine
B
Cystein
C
Lysine
D
Tryptophon
Question 33Single Answer
If a conraceptive has failure rate of 15, how many unplanned pregnancies will the female have in her reproductive period .
A
3.5
B
4.0
C
4.5
D
5
Question 34Single Answer
In a population of 10,000 literate people are 4000. In same population 2000 are 0-6 years old . What is the literacy rate of that population -
A
30%
B
40%
C
50%
D
60%
Question 35Single Answer
Which graph shows continuous frequency distribution -
A
Bar dagram
B
Pie chart
C
Histogram
D
Scatter diagrom
Question 36Single Answer
Which of the following shows progresion of events against time -
A
Bar chart
B
Pie chart
C
Histogram
D
Line diagram
Question 37Single Answer
Relative risk of 5 mean-
A
50% of disease among exposed is due to exposuse to risk factor
B
50% of disease [among exposed & non exposed ] is due to risk factors
C
Incidence of disease is 5 times higher in exposed group
D
Incidence of disease is 50% more in exposed group
Question 38Single Answer
In a case of meningitis , neiserria meningitides was grown in culture after 48 hours. Which measure is to be taken immediately -
A
Isolation of contacts
B
Antibiotic treatment of contacts
C
Vaccination of contact
D
All of the above
Question 39Single Answer
Which is a preventable causes of blindness -
A
Cataract
B
Vitamin A deficiency
C
Refractive errors
D
Retinal dystrophies
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following is not an avoidable cause of blindness -
A
Cataract
B
Vitamin A deficiency
C
Refractive errors
D
Retinal dystrophies
Question 41Single Answer
Hadfields operation is performed for which of the following pathology ?
A
Duct ectasia
B
Fibroadenoma
C
Mondors disease
D
Inflammatory breast carcinoma
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is not true about medullary thyroid cancinoma ?
A
Are a type of neuroendocrine tumors
B
Associated with MEN 2 A and 2 B syndrome
C
Form about 25% of the thyroid malignancies
D
Tumor cells may secrete serotonin, ACTH and VIP
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following is not a marker for severity of acute pancreatitis ?
A
Serum amylase and / or serum lipase
B
Hematocirt > 44%
C
BUN > 22 mg%
D
None of the above
Question 44Single Answer
Lucid interval is classically seen in –
A
Extradural hematoma
B
Acute subdural hematoma
C
Chronic subdural hematoma
D
Intraventricular hemorrhage
Question 45Single Answer
Shoulder pain after laproscopic surgery, next step in management is –
A
Oral paracetamol for 2-3 days
B
USG of shoulder region
C
Diagnostic shoulder arthroscopy
D
Intraarticular lignocaine injection
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following should be done for an acute onset painful scrotal swelling in 12 years old male ?
A
Doppler stethoscope evaluation
B
Administer analgestics
C
Advise bed rest
D
Administer antibiotics
Question 47Single Answer
Earliest hematological change following spleenectomy is –
A
Leuckocytosis and thrombocytosis
B
Presence of Heinz bodies
C
Evidence of Howell Jolly bodies
D
Pikilocytosis
Question 48Single Answer
Following road traffic accident patient suffers polytrauma and is evaluated in the emergency section of the hospital . His pulse rate is 116 , respiratory rate is 24, blood pressure of 122/78 mm of Hg and patient is mildly anxious . What is the approximate blood loss patient has following trauma ?
A
<750 ml
B
750 -15 00ml
C
1500-2000 ml
D
>2000ml
Question 49Single Answer
First treatment of flail chest is –
A
O2 administration and analgesia
B
Mechanical ventrilation
C
Surgical stabilization
D
Intrapleural analgesia
Question 50Single Answer
Salivary gland stone is most common in which salivary gland ?
A
Parotid gland
B
Submandibular gland
C
Sublingual gland
D
Minor salivary gland
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Medical Science, General Surgeon, General Medicine
Question 51Single Answer
Sebaceous cyst occurs occur in all the following locations in body except –
A
Palms and soles
B
Axilla
C
Back
D
Pubic area
Question 52Single Answer
Sentinel lymph node biopsy is used for –
A
Breast carcinoma
B
Penile carcinoma
C
Retroperitoneal sarcoma
D
Hepatic carcinoma
Question 53Single Answer
Cortisol levels remain elevated for how many week/s following hemorrhage ?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 54Single Answer
Surgical treatment of congenital hydrocele is recommended if it fails to resolve by what age ?
A
1 year
B
2 years
C
3 years
D
4 years
Question 55Single Answer
Technituum -99 m pertechnetate labeled methylene diphosphonate is structurally similar to –
A
Calcium phosphate
B
Phosphorus
C
Sodium bicarbonate
D
Manesiumsulfate
Question 56Single Answer
Rolled up omentum is seen in cases of –
A
Peritoneal tuberculosis
B
Peritoneal metastases
C
Perforation peritonitis
D
Malrotation of gut
Question 57Single Answer
Best time for surgery of hypospadias is at what age –
A
0-4 months
B
4-6 months
C
6-10 months
D
>2 years
Question 58Single Answer
Acral lentigines type of malignant melanoma occurs in –
A
Face
B
Nape of neck
C
Mucosa
D
Sun exposed areas
Question 59Single Answer
Duret hemorrhages are seen in-
A
Forebrain
B
Occipital lobe
C
Pons
D
Temporal lobe
Question 60Single Answer
Pringles maneuver is used to stop bleeding from
A
Liver
B
Kidneys
C
Spleen
D
Pancreas
Question 61Single Answer
Most sensitive investigation for abdominal trauma in a hemodynamically stable patient is -
A
CT Scan
B
Ultrasonography
C
Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
D
MRI
Question 62Single Answer
Alvarado score is used for -
A
Acute cholecystitis
B
Acute appendicitis
C
Acute apncreatitis
D
Acute epidydimitis
Question 63Single Answer
Most common intracranial tumor in adults is -
A
Astrocytoma
B
Metastases
C
Meningioma
D
Oligodendroglioma
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following predisposes to testicular germ cell tumors ?
A
Kleinfelter syndrome
B
Testicular carcinoma in sibling
C
Cryptorchidism
D
All the above
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following is not true about Boerhave syndrome
A
Perforation of the esophagus due to barotrauma
B
Most common site is left posteromedial aspect 3-5 cms above the gastroesphageal junction
C
Pain is the principal early manifestation
D
Most coses follow a about of heavy eating or drinking
Question 66Single Answer
Number of colorectal polyps for clinical diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis is -
A
<20
B
50
C
80
D
>100
Question 67Single Answer
Not classified as untidy wound is -
A
Burn wound
B
Incised wound
C
Crush wound
D
Lacerated wound
Question 68Single Answer
What permanent deleterious effects are seen, if 25% of the small intestine is resected ?
A
Nothing
B
Diarrhea
C
Fat malabsorption syndrome
D
Intestinal failure
Question 69Single Answer
Excessive vomiting with gastric outlet obstruction secondary to pyloric stenosis leads to -
A
Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
B
Hypokalemic hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
C
Hyperkalemic hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
D
Hyperkalemic hypochloremic metabolic acidosis
Question 70Single Answer
True about choledochal cyst -
A
Type II is most common
B
Cyst excision is the treatment of choice
C
Anamolous connection between biliary and pancreatic duct
D
Rupture may lead to biliary peritonitis
Question 71Single Answer
26 yr old female came for the first time in OPD with lump in breast first investigation -
A
USG
B
Mammogram
C
MRI
D
PET scan
Question 72Single Answer
Graft between identical twins -
A
Isograpft
B
Autograft
C
Allograft
D
Xenograft
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following is used to differentiate between hypercalcemia of malignancy from primary hyperparathyrodism ?
A
Hydrocortisone suppression test
B
Glucose challenge test
C
24 hour urine calcium measurement
D
Percentage of ionized calcium
Question 74Single Answer
A child with unilateral cleft lip ideal time of repair is -
A
3- 6 months
B
at birth
C
at 1 year
D
> 5 years
Question 75Single Answer
Duhamel procedure is done for -
A
Hirschsprung's disease
B
HPSS
C
Meckels diverticulum
D
Volvulus
Question 76Single Answer
Which appendix pain is referred to suprapubic region with pain on internal rotation of hip -
A
Pre ileal
B
Pelvic
C
Post ileal
D
Paracolic
Question 77Single Answer
5 year old Boy with something coming out of the anus with pedicle attached to rectal/ anal wall and bright red bleeding - most common diagnosis
A
Juvenile rectal Polyp
B
Pedicle pile
C
Fissure
D
CA Colon
Question 78Single Answer
Treatment surgery for fissure in ano -
A
Lateral sphinterotomy
B
Fissurectrny
C
Seton
D
None
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following is not a hard sign of arterial injury ?
A
Expanding or pulsatile hematoma
B
Arterial bleeding
C
Shock
D
Bruit
Question 80Single Answer
Most reliable sign of injury to intrathoracic aorta is -
A
Presence of apical cap of pleural fluid
B
Depression of left main stem bronchous
C
Obliteration of aortic knob contour
D
Funny looking mediastenum
Question 81Single Answer
80 kg male with bilateral upper limb , right lower limb with perineum burns, 3rd degree, amount of fluid required in first 8 hours is -
A
3920 ml
B
4920 ml
C
5920 ml
D
6560 ml
Question 82Single Answer
Preferred shunt procedure in patient with portal hypertension having acceptable operative risk and adequate liver function is -
A
End to side portocaval shunt
B
End to end portocaval shunt
C
Mesocacal shunt
D
Distal splenorenal shunt
Question 83Single Answer
Longitudinal incision with Z plasty closure is used in which of the following -
A
Hand surgery
B
Breast surgery
C
Thyroid surgery
D
Hernia surgery
Question 84Single Answer
Which muscle is irritated by inflamed retrocaecal appendix -
A
Psoas major
B
Gluteus maximus
C
Quadratus femoris
D
Obturator internus
Question 85Single Answer
23 yrd male with abdominal surgery , develops intestinal obstruction 2 yrs later , what is the likely cause -
A
Adhesions
B
Hernia
C
Intussecption
D
Volvulus
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following does not from the boundary of calots triangle -
A
Cystic duct
B
Common hepatic duct
C
Cytic artery
D
Visceral surface of spleen
Question 87Single Answer
Transtentorial uncal herniation compresses which cranial nerve -
A
III
B
IV
C
VI
D
VII
Question 88Single Answer
Pain in region of penis in acute urethritis is typically experienced
A
Before micturition
B
After micturition
C
During micturition
D
Irrespective micturition
Question 89Single Answer
Investigation of choice in hirschsprung disease is -
A
Biopsy
B
Manometry
C
Colonoscopy
D
Barium enema
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is associated with destruction of myenteric plexus ?
A
Hirschsprung disease
B
Secondary Achalasia
C
HPSS
D
GIST
Question 91Single Answer
Smokers are prone to which lung infection:
A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B
Pneumonia
C
Influenza
D
All of the above
Question 92Single Answer
Right hand dominant patient presents with normal comprehension but speaks with short utterances of a few words at a time, comprised mostly of nouns. What is the most probable location of the lesion-
A
Left inferior frontal gyrus
B
Right inferior frontal gyrus
C
Left superior temporal gyrus
D
Right superior temporal gyrus
Question 93Single Answer
In chronic alcoholics which of the following enzymes are inhibited-
A
Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
B
Phosphofructokinase
C
Lactate dehydrogenase
D
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Question 94Single Answer
Hypotonic solution given to correct-
A
Dehydration secondary to diuretic therapy
B
Diabetic ketoacidosis
C
Hypersmolar, hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
D
All of the above
Question 95Single Answer
Which liver disease/s is/are associated with ductopenia?
A
Chronic graft rejection
B
Hepatic sarcoidosis
C
Paraneoplastic syndrome related to hodgkins lymphoma
D
All the above
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the characteristics of the vegetations seen in patients with Libmann Sacks’ endocarditis?
A
Medium sized
B
Irregular contour
C
Present on the surface of cusps of heart valves
D
All the above
Question 97Single Answer
All of the following are true about rheumatic fever/ rheumatic heart disease except-
A
Mitral stenosis is evident in the early stage of the disease
B
Mitral valve is most commonly affected
C
Presence of antischkow cells is pathognomic
D
MacCallum plaques are commonly seen in left atrium
Question 98Single Answer
What characteristic finding of tuberous sclerosis is present at birth but not later in life?
A
Cardiac rhabdomyosarcoma
B
Facial angioofibroma
C
Periungal fibroma
D
Renal angiomyolipoma
Question 99Single Answer
A patient presents with blunt trauma to abdomen. On investigations patient is found to have hepatic injury which has a ruptured subcapsular hematoma with active bleeding. What is the grade of liver injury?
A
Grade I
B
Grade II
C
Grade III
D
Grade IV
Question 100Single Answer
What is not true about mitral valve prolapse?
A
Mitral valve leaflets have myxomatous degeneration
B
Associated marfans syndrome is present in many patients
C
Most of the patients are asympatomatic
D
Diastolic mumrmur is present on auscultation
Question 101Single Answer
Lambert Eaton syndrome true is
A
It is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with squamous cell carcinoma of lung
B
IgM antibodies against ligand gated calcium channels
C
There is increase in release of presynaptic acetylcholine
D
With continuous stimulation there is marked increase in amplitude of action potentials
Question 102Single Answer
All of the following are causes of acute hyponatremia except-
A
Glycine irrigation in TURP
B
Recent institution of thiazide therapy
C
MDMA ingestion
D
Liquorice ingestion
Question 103Single Answer
Prolonged QT interval is seen in all of the following except-
A
Hypokalemia
B
Hypocalcemia
C
Use of macrolide antibiotics
D
Hypernatremia
Question 104Single Answer
True about electrophoresis in patients of multiple myeloma-
A
M component spike is for the alpha globulins
B
Monoclonal antibody must be present at a concentration of at least 10 g/L [1.0 g/dL] to be accurately quantitated by electrophoresis
C
M component is IgM in 53% of the patients
D
M component is IgA in 25% of the patients
Question 105Single Answer
Following are the clinical signs of widened pulse pressure seen in patients of aortic regurgitation except-
A
Corrigans sign
B
De Mussets sign
C
Water Hammer pulse
D
Diastolic murmur
Question 106Single Answer
All the features of tricuspid atresia except-
A
Splitting of S2
B
Holosystolic murmur over left sternal border
C
Peripheral pulses in lower extremities may be weak or absent
D
Right ventrical may be hypoplastic if ventricular septum intact
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following is not associated with pancytopenia and cellular bone marrow?
A
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
B
Brucellosis
C
Myelofibrosis
D
Dyskeratosis congenital
Question 108Single Answer
SSPE is a complication of-
A
Measles virus infection
B
AIDS
C
Syphilis
D
Mumps
Question 109Single Answer
Some patients with severe form of idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia, present with phenotypic features similar to which of the following?
A
Williams syndrome
B
Potters syndrome
C
Angelman syndrome
D
VHL syndrome
Question 110Single Answer
In mitral stenosis “the double shadow” on Xray chest PA view is due to enlargement of-
A
Right atrial enlargement
B
Right ventricular enlargement
C
Left atrial enlargement
D
Left ventricular enlargement
Question 111Single Answer
Platelet in blood bank can be stored upto maximum of-
A
2 days
B
5 days
C
10 days
D
30 days
Question 112Single Answer
Window period of HIV is defined as-
A
Between infection and detection using a test
B
Infection and clinical disease manifestation
C
Infection and the beginning of treatment
D
Infection and development of complication
Question 113Single Answer
Component of GCS of an oriented patient who opens eyes to verbal stimuli, command and speech and responds to motor stimuli with purposeful movements is-
A
12
B
13
C
14
D
15
Question 114Single Answer
Total score in GCS –
A
12
B
13
C
14
D
15
Question 115Single Answer
Which is not seen in Alzheimers disease-
A
Gradual development of forgetfulness
B
Defective visuospatial orientation
C
Depression
D
Sequence of neurological abnormalities follows a described order
Question 116Single Answer
High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in-
A
Salicyclic poisoning
B
Methanol poisoning
C
Starvation
D
All the above
Question 117Single Answer
Maximum score of APACHE II-
A
41
B
51
C
61
D
71
Question 118Single Answer
Becks triad is a feature of-
A
Constrictive pericarditis
B
Cardiac tamponade
C
Pulmonary embolism
D
Acute bronchial asthma
Question 119Single Answer
MDR tuberculosis is defined when M. tuberculosis shows resistance to-
A
Isoniazid + Rifampicin
B
Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide
C
Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
D
Rifampicin + Ethambutol
Question 120Single Answer
Respiratory acidosis is recognized primarily by increase in-
A
PaO2
B
PaCO2
C
HCO3
D
None of the above
Question 121Single Answer
Gorlins formula is used to calculate
A
Area of stenotic aortic valve
B
Amount of daily calorie intake
C
Body mass index
D
Basal metabolic rate
Question 122Single Answer
Modified wells criteria is used for initial assessment of patients with suspected-
A
Pulmonary embolism
B
Pleural effusion
C
Cardiac tamponade
D
Myocardial infarction
Question 123Single Answer
Value of PaO2 / FiO2 characteristic of ARDS is-
B
200 – 400 mmHg
C
400 – 600 mmHg
D
600 – 800 mmHg
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the following is true about Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state-
A
It is more common in young patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus
B
Mental status is not altered in any case
C
There is associated hypertension and tachycardia
D
Kussumaul respirations are characteristic
Question 125Single Answer
Hypercalcemia related to malignancy is seen in which of the following cancers?
A
Multiple myeloma
B
Lung carcinoma
C
Carcinoma breast
D
All the above
Question 126Single Answer
Patient presents with fasting glucose level of 124 mg/dL and 2 hour post prandial levels of 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the patient diagnosed with?
A
Normal glucose tolerance
B
Impaired glucose tolerance or pre diabetes
C
Diabetes mellitus
D
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Question 127Single Answer
Venous thrombosis in patients with paraoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is observed in
A
Cerebral veins
B
Leg veins
C
Intrabdominal veins
D
Axillary veins
Question 128Single Answer
Anemia is seen in patients with orotic aciduria is corrected with –
A
Folic acid supplementation
B
Vitamin B12 supplementation
C
Replacement of uridine
D
Iron supplementation
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is not an evidenced based recommended therapy for the management of acute respiratory distress syndrome
A
Low tidal volume mechanical ventilation
B
Inhaled nitric oxide
C
Minimize left atrial filling pressures
D
Prone positioning
Question 130Single Answer
Pseudobulbar palsy is seen with-
A
Unilateral corticobular lesions
B
Bilateral corticobular lesions
C
Cranial nerve IX involvement
D
Cranial nerve X involvement
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is a feature of first degree AV block?
A
PR interval > 200 ms
B
Inversion of T wave
C
Progressive shortening of PR interval
D
Presence of U wave
Question 132Single Answer
Prominent U wave in ECG is seen in-
A
Hypokalemia
B
Hypernatremia
C
Hyperkalemia
D
Hyponatremia
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following is an electrocardiographic feature of pulmonary hypertension?
A
T wave inversion
B
Presence of U wave
C
S1, Q3, T3 pattern
D
PR prolongation
Question 134Single Answer
HbA1C criteria for a patient to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is-
A
> 4.5%
B
> 5.5%
C
> 6.5%
D
> 7.5%
Question 135Single Answer
Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrage
A
Ruptured aneurysm
B
AV malformation
C
Amyloid angiopathy
D
Trauma
Question 136Single Answer
Conduction aphasia is classically seen due to lesion in-
A
Arcuate fasciculus
B
Cingulate gyrus
C
Brocas area
D
Wernickes area
Question 137Single Answer
Wallenburg syndrome results from occlusion of-
A
Vertebral artery
B
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
C
Middle cerebral artery
D
Anterior cerebral artery
Question 138Single Answer
Kluver bucy syndrome due to lesion in
A
Anygdala
B
Caudate nucleus
C
Internal capsule
D
Red nucleus
Question 139Single Answer
Cigarette smoking increases the risk of all the following diseases except-
A
Pancreatic carcinoma
B
Cerebrovascular accident
C
Sudden infant death syndrome
D
Primary pulmonary hypertension
Question 140Single Answer
Patients with mutations in which of the following receptors are prone to develop malignant hyperthermia-
A
Ryanodine
B
Adrenergic
C
Nicotinic
D
Muscarinic
Question 141Single Answer
Neoplastic cells in Franklin disease express-
A
CD5
B
CD10
C
CD55
D
CD79a
Question 142Single Answer
Hyperkalemia is a feature of-
A
Conns syndrome
B
Gitelman’s syndrome
C
Pseudohypoaldosteronism type 2
D
Liddle syndrome
Question 143Single Answer
A 45 years old female presents with dysphagia, raynauds phenomenon, subcutaneous calcinosis and patient is positive for antinuclear antibody. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A
Mixed connective tissue disorder
B
Systematic sclerosis
C
Sjogrens syndrome
D
Rheumatoid arthritis
Question 144Single Answer
Category of patients with juvenile idiopathic arthritis, with HLA B27 positive in most of the case, who present with entheisits, lower limb arthritis involving knees and ankle and presence of inflammatory low back pain is most likely to be-
A
Enthesitis
B
Rheumatoid arthritis
C
Reactive arthritis
D
Cryoglobulinemia
Question 145Single Answer
A patient with rheumatoid heart disease presents with straightening of left heart border on chest radiograph. What is the most probable cardiac pathology, which leads to such change in chest radiograph?
A
Mitral stenosis
B
Mitral regurgitation
C
Aortic stenosis
D
Aortic regurgitation
Question 146Single Answer
Gold standard investigation for GORD-
A
24 hours pH recording
B
Endoscopy
C
Ultrasound
D
Magnetic resonance imaging
Question 147Single Answer
Which disease shows dysphagia more for liquids than solids?
A
Achalasia
B
Carcinoma esophagus
C
Nutcrackers esophagus
D
Ringed esophagus
Question 148Single Answer
Enlarged bilateral hilar lymph nodes with presence of egg shell calcification seen on chest radiograph points to the diagnosis of-
A
Sarcoidosis
B
Asbestosis
C
Silicosis
D
Anthracosis
Question 149Single Answer
A patient presents with symptoms of chronic diarrhea and cough and sputum production. On investigations he is diagnosed to be suffering from both HIV infection and pulmonary tuberculosis. What medical management is to be started first in this patient?
A
Antitubercular therapy
B
Antiretroviral therapy
C
Antitubercular therapy or Antiretroviral therapy
D
Sequence of beginning treatment is not important
Question 150Single Answer
Which immunoglobulin combination is predominantly in pathogenesis of cryglobulinemic vasculitis-