Question for CG SET Law 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest CG SET Law Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Teaching and Research Aptitude, Law

Question Bank CG SET (Law) Exam - English

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Teaching and Research Aptitude

Question 1Single Answer

Which is the main objective of research?

A
To review the literature
B
To summarize what is already known
C
To get an academic degree
D
To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Question 2Single Answer

Sampling error decreases with the

A
decrease in sample size
B
increase in sample size
C
process of randomization
D
process of analysis

Question 3Single Answer

The principles of fundamental research are used in

A
action research
B
applied research
C
philosophical research
D
historical research

Question 4Single Answer

Users who use media for their own ends are indentified as

A
Passive audience
B
Active audience
C
Positive audience
D
Negative audience

Question 5Single Answer

Classroom communication can be described as

A
Exploration
B
Institutionalisation
C
Unsignified narration
D
Discourse

Question 6Single Answer

Ideological codes shape our collective

A
Productions
B
Perceptions
C
Consumptions
D
Creations

Question 7Single Answer

Which of the following statements is true?

A
Computer aided education can replace a teacher
B
Computer aided education can assist a teacher
C
On-line teaching and face-to-face teaching both are effective
D
Face-to-face teaching is less effective than online teaching

Question 8Single Answer

In order to solve the problem of aimlessness in education, we should develop -

A
democratic citizenship
B
centralized education
C
education
D
reform the administrative set-up

Question 9Single Answer

If a student misbehaves with other students in the class, the teacher should -

A
report the matter to the parents
B
punish him at the time of the morning assembly in the school
C
deal with him with sympathetic understanding
D
treat him with sympathy and understanding

Question 10Single Answer

How can a failed student be encouraged to study sincerely in the same class?

A
by teacher’s counseling
B
by psychological counseling
C
by guardian’s counseling
D
by Students’ Association

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following is/are the basic paradigms in classroom teaching?

A
Learning paradigm
B
Instructional paradigm
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above

Question 12Single Answer

The prime requirement to become a good teacher is to have

A
Genuine interest in teaching
B
Knowledge about controlling students
C
Subject knowledge
D
Good expression

Question 13Single Answer

Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT true ?

A
Teaching is just an art
B
Teachers can be trained only
C
Teachers are born
D
All of the above

Question 14Single Answer

The most desirable skill of teacher is to

A
Make the students understand what the teacher says
B
Cover the prescribed course
C
Keep students relaxed while teaching
D
Keep higher authorities informed about the class activities

Question 15Single Answer

Research is -

A
A purposeful, systematic activity
B
Conducted for purely academic purposes.
C
Conducted to answer questions about practical issues.
D
A random, unplanned process of discovery

Question 16Single Answer

The research is always

A
Verifying the old knowledge
B
Exploring new knowledge
C
Filling the gaps between the knowledge
D
All of the above

Question 17Single Answer

All good research aims at

A
Betterment of the society
B
Developing generalizations, theories, and principles
C
Solving routine problem
D
None of the above

Question 18Single Answer

A grand theory

A
Explains interrelationships among concepts
B
Is highly abstract
C
Broad explanation of phenomenon in a discipline
D
All of the above

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Read the following passage and answer the question :

The Great Acharyas have said that everything discovered has a great goal; surrender yourself to that goal and act towards it by drawing your inspiration from that goal whereby you will get a new column of energy. Do not allow this energy to be dissipated in the futile memory of past regrets or failures, or excitement of the present, and bring that is, the highest creative action in the world considered the most inefficient finds his way to the highest achievement and success.

This can be said very easily in a second. In order to train our mind to this attitude, considerable training is needed because we have already trained our mind wrongly to such an extent that we have become perfect in imperfections. Nor knowing the art of action, we have mastered artists in doing wrong things; the totality of activity will be the country to a wrong end indeed.
If each one is given a car to achieve an ideal socialistic pattern and nobody knows driving, but starts driving, what would be the condition on road? Everybody has equal rights on the public road. Then, each car will necessarily dash against the other and there is bound to be a jumble.
There seems to be a very apt pattern of life that we are heading to. Every one of us is a vehicle. We know how to go forward. The point intellect is very powerful and everybody is driving but and direct it properly or guide it to the proper destination.

What is the effect of wrong training of our mind?

A
Becoming perfect in all aspects of life
B
Becoming master artists
C
Taking the country to wrong destination
D
Carrying on activities without knowing how to control mental energies

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

Read the following passage and answer the question
The Great Acharyas have said that everything discovered has a great goal; surrender yourself to that goal and act towards it by drawing your inspiration from that goal whereby you will get a new column of energy. Do not allow this energy to be dissipated in the futile memory of past regrets or failures, or excitement of the present, and bring that is, the highest creative action in the world considered the most inefficient finds his way to the highest achievement and success.
This can be said very easily in a second. In order to train our mind to this attitude, considerable training is needed because we have already trained our mind wrongly to such an extent that we have become perfect in imperfections. Nor knowing the art of action, we have mastered artists in doing wrong things; the totality of activity will be the country to a wrong end indeed.
If each one is given a car to achieve an ideal socialistic pattern and nobody knows driving, but starts driving, what would be the condition on road? Everybody has equal rights on the public road. Then, each car will necessarily dash against the other and there is bound to be a jumble.
There seems to be a very apt pattern of life that we are heading to. Every one of us is a vehicle. We know how to go forward. The point intellect is very powerful and everybody is driving but and direct it properly or guide it to the proper destination.

The source of energy according to the author is

A
Highest creative action
B
Proper training of mind
C
Inspiration from past events
D
Stimulation obtained from a set goal

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

The author's main focus in the passage is

A
Finding out a worthy goal in life
B
Regulation of energy in proper channels
C
Struggle for equal rights
D
Car accidents due to lack of driving skills

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

The country may perish because of

A
Failures in past acts
B
Wrong deeds performed without proper knowledge
C
Complete surrender to anyone goal
D
Directing mental energy to the right destination

Question 23Single Answer

When we say that communication is intentional, it means that -

A
Sender consciously intends to affect the behaviour of receiver of the message
B
Effective communication is a process of acting on information
C
Through speech communication, people make sense of the world
D
None of the above

Question 24Single Answer

Communication is the transfer and understanding of

A
Ideas
B
Concepts
C
Meaning
D
Words

Question 25Single Answer

Which of the following can be termed as the 'context' of communication?

A
An interference with message reception
B
Effective communication
C
Verbal and non-verbal responses to messages
D
A physical and psychological environment for conversation

Question 26Single Answer

Which of the following is Berlo's Linear Model of communication?

A
S-M-R-C
B
S-M-C-R
C
S-R-M-C
D
S-R-C-M

Question 27Single Answer

Find the missing number in the following series.
8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54

A
26
B
24
C
36
D
32

Question 28Single Answer

Find the missing number in the following series.
28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39

A
30
B
32
C
33
D
34

Question 29Single Answer

Find the missing number in the following series.
1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27, ?

A
45
B
50
C
55
D
60

Question 30Single Answer

Find the missing number in the following series.
2/3, 4/7, ?, 11/21, 16/31

A
10/8
B
6/10
C
5/10
D
7/10

Question 31Single Answer

The main governing body at the tertiary level of education in India is -

A
NCERT
B
CBSE
C
AICTE
D
UGC

Question 32Single Answer

Government established the University Grants Commission by an act of Parliament in the year

A
1980
B
1948
C
1950
D
1956

Question 33Single Answer

The tertiary education includes

A
Primary and secondary education
B
Higher education
C
Vocational education and training
D
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 34Single Answer

Which of the following is the regulator of higher education?

A
NCERT
B
AICTE
C
UGC
D
MHRD

Question 35Single Answer

The term ecosystem was coined by -

A
Arthur Tansley
B
Al Gore
C
Mobius
D
Mobius

Question 36Single Answer

Who first used and defined Ecology in 1866?

A
H. Reiter
B
Haeckel
C
Charles Elton
D
Odum

Question 37Single Answer

In the study of man-environment interaction, the statement of Miss Sample that 'the humans are slowly the product of their environment' is

A
An opinion
B
A prejudice
C
A fact
D
A widely accepted phenomenon

Question 38Single Answer

A habitat is

A
An area inhabited by a community
B
A small part of ecosystem
C
A particular area inhabited by plants and animals
D
The number of different organisms living in a specific area

Question 39Single Answer

ICT stands for -

A
Information and communication technology
B
Information controlled technology
C
Information capable technology
D
None of the above

Question 40Single Answer

Which of the following is also termed as multimedia education?

A
ICT supported education
B
ICT enabled education
C
ICT education
D
None of the above

Question 41Single Answer

Information and communication technology includes

A
Online learning
B
Learning through the use of EDUSAT
C
Web-based learning
D
All of the above

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following is the appropriate definition of information Technology?

A
Information technology refers to the use of hardware and software for processing information
B
Information technology refers to the use of hardware and software for distribution of useful information
C
Information technology refers to the use of hardware and software for storage, retrieval, processing, and distributing information of many kinds
D
Information technology refers to the use of principles of physical sciences and social sciences for processing of information of many kinds.

Question 43Single Answer

The process by which conclusion is arrived at on the basis of other propositions is termed as -

A
Concept
B
Inference
C
Connotation
D
Conference

Question 44Single Answer

Propositions that support the conclusion of an argument are called

A
Inferences
B
Premises
C
Concepts
D
None of the above

Question 45Single Answer

That proposition which is affirmed on the basis of premises is called

A
Major term
B
Concept
C
Conclusion
D
Syllogism

Question 46Single Answer

Deduction and induction are two main forms of

A
Beliefs
B
Concepts
C
Reasoning
D
Assumptions

Question 47Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Study the table given below and answer question (The table consists of marks obtained by candidates in different subject)
Marks obtained in different subjects by various candidates

	Subjects (maximum marks)
Students	Maths	Chemistry	Physics	Geography	History	Computer Science
Students	(150)	(130)	(120)	(100)	(100)	(100)
Ayush	90	50	90	60	70	80
Aman	100	80	80	40	80	70
Sajal	90	60	70	70	90	70
Rohit	80	65	80	80	60	60
Muskan	80	65	85	95	50	90
Tanvi	70	75	65	85	40	60
Tarun	65	35	50	77	80	80

What is the average of marks obtained by Aman for all subjects?

A
72
B
75
C
80
D
85

Question 48Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Study the table given below and answer question (The table consists of marks obtained by candidates in different subjects)
Marks obtained in different subjects by various candidates

	Subjects (maximum marks)
Students	Maths	Chemistry	Physics	Geography	History	Computer Science
Students	(150)	(130)	(120)	(100)	(100)	(100)
Ayush	90	50	90	60	70	80
Aman	100	80	80	40	80	70
Sajal	90	60	70	70	90	70
Rohit	80	65	80	80	60	60
Muskan	80	65	85	95	50	90
Tanvi	70	75	65	85	40	60
Tarun	65	35	50	77	80	80

What is the approximate percentage of marks obtained by Ayush?

A
62.8
B
72.5
C
75
D
74

Question 49Single Answer

Passage :

	Subjects (maximum marks)
Students	Maths	Chemistry	Physics	Geography	History	Computer Science
Students	(150)	(130)	(120)	(100)	(100)	(100)
Ayush	90	50	90	60	70	80
Aman	100	80	80	40	80	70
Sajal	90	60	70	70	90	70
Rohit	80	65	80	80	60	60
Muskan	80	65	85	95	50	90
Tanvi	70	75	65	85	40	60
Tarun	65	35	50	77	80	80

What is the average of marks obtained by all candidates in Physics?

A
62.85
B
74.28
C
78.52
D
None of the above

Question 50Single Answer

Passage :

	Subjects (maximum marks)
Students	Maths	Chemistry	Physics	Geography	History	Computer Science
Students	(150)	(130)	(120)	(100)	(100)	(100)
Ayush	90	50	90	60	70	80
Aman	100	80	80	40	80	70
Sajal	90	60	70	70	90	70
Rohit	80	65	80	80	60	60
Muskan	80	65	85	95	50	90
Tanvi	70	75	65	85	40	60
Tarun	65	35	50	77	80	80

Who among the following has obtained the highest aggregate marks?

A
Ayush
B
Aman
C
Sajal
D
Muskan

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Law

Question 51Single Answer

A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces

A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4

Question 52Single Answer

Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 53Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935

A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above

Question 54Single Answer

Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3

Question 55Single Answer

Which one is not correctly matched?

A
Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B
Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C
conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D
(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice

Question 56Single Answer

The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

A
Prime Minister
B
Vice- President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice

Question 57Single Answer

An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.

A
Codes:
1, 3, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
2, 1,3

Question 58Single Answer

Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the

A
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C
77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D
78th Amendment to the Constitution of India

Question 59Single Answer

Match the following:
A. Right to go                  1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right            2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty             3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's             4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability

A
Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3

Question 60Single Answer

A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding

A
Three months
B
Six months
C
Nine months
D
Twelve months

Question 61Single Answer

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A
Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B
Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C
Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D
Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.

Question 62Single Answer

Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.

A
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3

Question 63Single Answer

Match the following:

A
Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B
Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C
In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D
In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an

Question 64Single Answer

List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability

A
A B C D
4 2 3 1
B
5 4 3 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
5 3 2 1

Question 65Single Answer

List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance

A
A B C D
2 1 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
3 I 4 2

Question 66Single Answer

The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:

Question 67Single Answer

List-I                       List-II
A Habeas corpus     1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus           2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto       3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari              4. Non performance of public duty.

A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 4 3 2

Question 68Single Answer

The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3

Question 69Single Answer

If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?

A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth

Question 70Single Answer

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?

A
It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B
It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C
It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D
It allocates seats in the council of states.

Question 71Single Answer

The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:

A
Fundamental rights
B
DPSP
C
List of languages recognised by the constitution
D
Number of states and UTS

Question 72Single Answer

Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.

A
2nd schedule
B
5th schedule
C
8th schedule
D
10th schedule

Question 73Single Answer

At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.

A
8
B
10
C
12
D
11

Question 74Single Answer

The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.

A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days

Question 75Single Answer

When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.

A
The President
B
The prime minister
C
The chief justice of India
D
Council of ministers

Question 76Single Answer

The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:

A
France
B
USA
C
United Kingdom
D
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.

A
The election commission
B
President
C
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D
Prime minister

Question 78Single Answer

Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?

A
Part IX
B
Part IX-A
C
Part X
D
Part X-A

Question 79Single Answer

It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:

A
Preamble
B
Fundamental rights
C
Fundamental duties
D
Directive principles of state policy

Question 80Single Answer

Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by

A
The President
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D
Either (b) or (c), as the case may be

Question 81Single Answer

Preamble to the constitution of India:

A
is not a Part of the constitution.
B
Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C
Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D
Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.

Question 82Single Answer

The preamble to the Indian constitution is:

A
A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B
A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C
A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D
Not a Part of the constitution.

Question 83Single Answer

The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of

A
USA
B
United Nations
C
United Kingdom
D
Ireland

Question 84Single Answer

The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?

A
5,1,2,4,3
B
3,2,1,4,5
C
3,1,2,5,4
D
1,2,4,3,5

Question 85Single Answer

Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?

A
Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B
Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C
Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D
Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.

Question 86Single Answer

The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?

A
Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B
Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C
Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D
Security of service to government servants .

Question 87Single Answer

Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.

A
1^st Amendment Act
B
24^th Amendment Act
C
42^nd Amendment Act
D
44^th Amendment Act

Question 88Single Answer

Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?

A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Never

Question 89Single Answer

The word secular denotes:

A
Keeping away from all religions.
B
Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C
Belief in one god
D
Practicing different religions

Question 90Single Answer

The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:

A
Prohibit concentration of wealth
B
Distribute equitably the natural resources
C
Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D
That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.

Question 91Single Answer

In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force

A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote

A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 only

Question 93Single Answer

Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:

A
Against arbitrary legislative action.
B
Against arbitrary executive action.
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Neither (a) nor (b)

Question 94Single Answer

Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only

Question 95Single Answer

Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.

A
I only
B
1 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
3 only

Question 96Single Answer

Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.

A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 97Single Answer

Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

A
Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B
Certiorari & Mandamus.
C
Prohibition & Mandamus.
D
Prohibition & Certiorari.

Question 98Single Answer

The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.

A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 99Single Answer

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.

A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 100Single Answer

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.

A
1 and 3
B
Only 2
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 101Single Answer

'Test of control' deals with:

A
master and servant relationship
B
measures of damages
C
course of employment
D
implied authority

Question 102Single Answer

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?"

A
U.P. Warehousing Corporation Vs. Vijay Narain
B
Delhi Transport Corporation Vs. DTC Majdoor Union
C
A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
D
Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao Vs. APSRTC

Question 103Single Answer

The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:

A
when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
B
when the promisor performs his promise
C
when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
D
always at the discretion of the court

Question 104Single Answer

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) committed to provide:
(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy services
(b) Improving the share of renewable energy
(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030
(d) Protection of ocean and wetland

A
(a), (b) and (c) are true
B
(a), (c) and (d) are true
C
(b), (c) and (d) are true
D
(a), (b) and (d) are true

Question 105Single Answer

Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT correct?
(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of 'Armed Rebellion' was inserted by the Constitutional (42 Amendment) Act, 1976.
(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.
(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by special majority.
(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.

A
Only (a)
B
(a) and (d) both
C
(b), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Question 106Single Answer

Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed, the President may summon a Joint Session of both the Houses.
(b) At the Joint Session of two Houses, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
(c) The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills.
(d) Money and Financial Bills can be only introduced in the Lok Sabha and with prior recommendations of the President.

A
Only (a)
B
(a), (b) and (c)
C
(a), (c) and (d)
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d)

Question 107Single Answer

'Right to Environment discourse includes:
(a) Right to Health
(b) Right to Sanitation
(c) Right to Clean Technology
(d) Right to Free Speech

A
(a), (b) and (c) are true
B
(b), (c) and (d) are true
C
(a), (c) and (d) are true
D
(a) and (b) are true whereas (c) and (d) are false

Question 108Single Answer

Every offence punishable under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is:

A
compoundable
B
non-compoundable
C
cognizable
D
Both (B) and (C) above

Question 109Single Answer

UN Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by:

A
General Assembly
B
Security Council
C
Secretary General
D
Human Rights Council

Question 110Single Answer

Which of the following is correct?

A
A Administrative Law is a branch of Public Law and is only a part of Constitutional Law. It cannot control the Constitutional Law
B
Administrative Law is a branch of Private Law
C
Administrative Law is independent to the Constitutional Law
D
Administrative Law is neither the branch of Public Law nor of Private Law but part of Constitutional Law

Question 111Single Answer

Who among the following has defined jurisprudence as "the knowledge of thing divine and human, the science of right and wrong?

A
Blackstone
B
Hobbes
C
Salmond
D
Ulpian

Question 112Single Answer

We have to evolve new principles and lay down new norms which will adequately deal with new problems which arise in a highly industrialised society' was laid down in:

A
Common Cause Vs. Union of India
B
M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India
C
Invercargill City Council Vs. Hamlin
D
Union of India Vs. Sat Pal Dharam Vir

Question 113Single Answer

In which of the following case, it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state, he will be called 'stateless'?

A
Nottebohm's Case
B
Whicker Vs. Hume
C
Winans Vs. A.G.
D
Stoeck Vs. The Public Trustee

Question 114Single Answer

The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

A
when it is posted to him
B
when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
C
when the letter containing acceptance is received by the proposer
D
when it is put in the course of transmission, so as to be out of the acceptor's power

Question 115Single Answer

The principle Restitution stops where repayment begins' can be applied against

A
an alien enemy only
B
minors only
C
lunatics and idiots only
D
an incapable person

Question 116Single Answer

In which section of the Partnership Act it is laid down that there can be a partnership a single or particular business venture?

A
Section 8
B
Section 9
C
Section 10
D
Section 11

Question 117Single Answer

Possession through an agent or servant is an example of:

A
corporeal possession
B
incorporeal possession
C
mediate possession
D
immediate possession

Question 118Single Answer

"Cyber security' according to the IT Act, 2000 means:

A
a device and collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculations which are not programmable and capable of being used
B
any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic and memory functions by manipulation of electronic, magnetic or optical impulse
C
protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication device and information stored therein from unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption, odification or destruction
D
affixing with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions means adoption of any methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record

Question 119Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II:
              List-I                                    List-II
(a) Date and year of                (i) 2 May, 1981
establishment of
United Nations
(b) The first Security               (ii) 1 January, 1992
Council came
into being
(c) Paris Declaration on          (iii) 12 January, 1946
Sanctions against
South Africa
(d) Mr. Boutros Boutras            (iv) 24 October, 1945
Ghali took over as
Secretary General
of the UN

A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
C
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
D
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Question 120Single Answer

Which of the following is not the School of Muslim Law?

A
Hanafi
B
Maliki
C
Hanabali
D
Zaida

Question 121Single Answer

'Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management is inserted to the Schedule of the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?

A
42nd Constitutional Amendment
B
44th Constitutional Amendment
C
73rd Constitutional Amendment
D
74th Constitutional Amendment

Question 122Single Answer

In which of the cases did Supreme Court hold that a relationship in the nature of marriage under the Domestic Violence Act, 2005 must also fulfill some basic criteria, merely spending weekends together or one night would not make it a domestic relationship?

A
Payal Katara Vs. Supt. Nari Niketan and other
B
D. Velusamy Vs. D. Patchaiammal
C
Bharati Matha and others Vs. R. Vijaya Ranganathan and others
D
S. Khushboo Vs. Kanniammal and others

Question 123Single Answer

"Dower may be regarded as consideration for connubial intercourse by way of analogy to the contract for sale."The above observation has been made is which of the following cases?

A
Abdul Kadir Vs. Salma
B
Zobair Ahmed Vs. Jainandan Prasad
C
Rahana Khattun Vs. Iqtidar-uddin
D
Hamidunissa Bibi Vs. Zaheer Sheik

Question 124Single Answer

The Doctrine of Separation of Powers in its strict and technical sense is appli d in:

A
India
B
U.K.
C
U.S.A.
D
France

Question 125Single Answer

The Cyber Regulations Appellate Tribunal Rule, 2000 has been passed under which section of the IT Act, 2000?

A
Section 84
B
Section 85
C
Section 86
D
Section 87

Question 126Single Answer

Which of the following is not included in the definition of law under Article 13 of the Constitution of India?

A
Legislation
B
Customs
C
Usage having no force of law
D
Ordinance

Question 127Single Answer

Which of the following Article of the Constitution uses the term 'martial law'?

A
Article 33
B
Article 34
C
Article 352
D
Article 353

Question 128Single Answer

Which of the following case is not related to "Theory of basic structure' under Article 368 of the Constitution?

A
Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India
B
Waman Rao Vs. Union of India
C
L. Chandra Kumar Vs. Union of India
D
T.K. Rangarajan Vs. Government of Tamil Nadu

Question 129Single Answer

Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the declaration of financial emergency by the President under Article 360 of the constitution?

A
A. It shall cease to operate at the expiration of one month unless approved by both Houses of Parliament
B
Salary and allowances of persons serving in connection with affairs of state may be reduced
C
It may be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation by President
D
Salary and allowances of the Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts may be reduced

Question 130Single Answer

In which of the following case the Parliament has no power to legislate on the state list ?

A
Consent of two states
B
Implementing international agreements
C
Emergency is in operation
D
In the Public interest if so declared by council of states

Question 131Single Answer

Which of the following case is not related to the Parliamentary previleges?

A
M.S.M. Sharma Vs. Sri Krishna Sinha
B
State of Karnataka Vs. Union of India
C
Jatish Chandra Ghose Vs. Harisadhan Mukherjee
D
State of Tamil Nadu Vs. K. Shyam Sunder

Question 132Single Answer

Which one of the following Jurists distinguished between 'expositorial' jurisprudence (What the law is) and 'Censorial' jurisprudence (What the law ought to be)?

A
John Austin
B
Hans Kelsen
C
Jeremy Benthem
D
H.L.A. Hart

Question 133Single Answer

'Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents.' This observation specifically relates to:

A
Dabin
B
Stammler
C
Finnis
D
Acquinas

Question 134Single Answer

According to Professor Hart the meaning of the term 'Positivism' includes:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concepts is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Moral judgments cannot be established or defended by rational argument, evidence or proof.
(d) The law as it is actually laid down, has to be kept separate from the law that ought to be.

A
Codes:
Only (a) and (c) are correct
B
Only (a), (b) and (d) are correct
C
Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct
D
(a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct

Question 135Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
       List-I                                      List-II
  (Theory)                                     (Jurist)
(a) Theory of social                    (i) Ehrlich
solidarity
(b) Theory of categorical             (ii) Duguit
Imperative
(c) Imperative Theory                  (iii) John Austin
of Law
(d) Theory of Living Law              (iv) Emanual   Kant

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (ii)
B
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
C
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Question 136Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
          List-I                                          List-II
         (Book)                                      (Author)
(a) The Growth of the Law                  (i) Gray
Lute (b) Foundations of                      (ii) R. Dworkin
Jurisprudence
(c) The Nature and                             (iii) Cardozo
Sources of Law
(d) Taking Rights Seriously                (iv) Jerome Hall

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Question 137Single Answer

Which one of the following are the two main theories of legal right?

A
Interest Theory and Fiction Theory
B
Realist Theory and Will Theory
C
Bracket Theory and Interest Theory
D
Interest Theory and Will Theory

Question 138Single Answer

Which of the following is not a theory relating to corporate personality?

A
Fiction Theory
B
Realistic Theory
C
Purpose Theory
D
Functional Theory

Question 139Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the Jural correlatives by using the code given below:
       List-I                           List-II
(a) Claim                      (i) No claim
(b) Liberty                    (ii) Disability
(c) Power                     (iii) Duty
(d) Immunity                 (iv) Liability

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
C
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Question 140Single Answer

'X', a servant, finds a bag at the basement of the shop. He hands it over to 'Y', the owner of the shop, who asks him to place it in the almirah. Now, the bag is in possession of :

A
'X', because he was the finder
B
'Y', because he was the owner of the shop
C
'Y', because in him there was corpus and animus
D
'X', because he kept it in the almirah

Question 141Single Answer

'Triepel' and 'Anzilloti' are the exponents of which of the following theory of Relationship between International law and Municipal law?

A
Monism
B
Dualism
C
Specific-Adoption Theory
D
Delegation Theory

Question 142Single Answer

Which one of the following is one of the Chief Exponents of 'Constitutive Theory' of Recognition?

A
Pit corbett
B
Kelson
C
Hegel
D
Hall

Question 143Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
          List-I                                             List-II
   (Provisions)       (Articles of statute of court of International Justice)
(a) Law applied by the                      (i) Article 41
International Court
of Justice
(b) Binding force of the                     (ii) Article 62
decision of Inter-
national Court
of Justice
(c) Interim Measures                       (iii) Article 38
or Relief
(d) International court's                     (iv) Article 59
power to allow a state
to intervene, in case to
which it is not a party

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Question 144Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
         List-I                                 List-II
     (Modes)                            (Provision)
(a) Cession                      (i) Acquisition of Nationality
(b) Reprisal                      (ii) Loss of Nationality
(c) Good offices                (iii) Pacific means of settlement of Interna-
                                              tional Disputes
(d) Substitution (iv) Coercive means of settlement of Interna- tional Disputes

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
B
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Question 145Single Answer

The 'U.N. Commission on Human Rights' was established in 1946 by:

A
General Assembly
B
Security Council
C
Economic and Social Council
D
International Court of Justice

Question 146Single Answer

Under Hindu law, the persons descended from a common ancestor but by different wives, are known as:

A
Full blood Relations
B
Half Blood Relations
C
Uterine Blood Relations
D
No Blood Relations

Question 147Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the code given below:
        List-I                                 List-II
(a) Agnate                     (i) What was heard
(b) Shruti                       (ii) Related wholly through males
(c) Cognate                   (iii) What has been remembered
(d) Smriti                        (iv) Related not wholly through males

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
B
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Question 148Single Answer

If the condition laid down under section 5(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is violated, such marriage under the Act is:

A
Void but not punishable
B
Valid and not punishable
C
Void and Punishable
D
Valid but Punishable

Question 149Single Answer

Under sec. 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act 1939, the following grounds of divorce are available to a wife:
(a) Where abouts of the husband have not been known for a period of four years.
(b) Four years imprisonment of the husband.
(c) Husband has treated her with cruelty.
(d) The husband has neglected her or has failed to pay her maintenance for a period of two years.

A
Codes:
(a), (c) and (d)
B
(b), (d), (c) and (a)
C
(d), (c), (b) and (a)
D
(a), (d), (b) and (c)

Question 150Single Answer

Match List-I with List-II in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and
Maintenance Act, 1956 and give correct answer by using the code given below:
      List-I                                  List-II
(Section)                             (Provision)
(a) Sec. 18              (i) Maintenance of dependants
(b) Sec. 19 .            (ii) Amount of maintenance
(c) Sec. 22              (iii) Maintenance of wife
(d) Sec. 23              (iv) Maintenance of widowed daughter-in- law

A
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
D
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

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