Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 18Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
Question 21Single Answer
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A
5
B
6
C
7
D
8
Question 22Single Answer
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A
2001
B
2010
C
2012
D
2011
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A
1 only
B
1 and 2
C
1 and 3
D
1,2, and 3
Question 24Single Answer
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A
2007-12
B
2008-13
C
2010-15
D
2012-17
Question 25Single Answer
A closed economy is an economy in which
A
the money supply is fully controlled
B
deficit financing takes place
C
only exports take place
D
neither exports nor imports take place
Question 26Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1,2,3 and 4
Question 27Single Answer
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
1,2 and 3
Question 28Single Answer
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A
IMF
B
RBI
C
Local bodies
D
Big Businessmen
Question 29Single Answer
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A
4th plan
B
6th plan
C
8th plan
D
10th plan
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A
only 1
B
only 2
C
only 3
D
1,2 and 3
Question 31Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 32Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 33Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 34Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 35Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 36Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 37Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 38Single Answer
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only
Question 39Single Answer
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Question 40Single Answer
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium
Question 41Single Answer
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n
Question 42Single Answer
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer
Question 43Single Answer
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)
Question 45Single Answer
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km
Question 46Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 47Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 48Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 49Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 50Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
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General Knowledge
Question 51Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 52Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 53Single Answer
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position
Question 54Single Answer
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A
PCI5
B
PCI3
C
SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Question 55Single Answer
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A
in between C2H6 and C2H4
B
same as in C2H4
C
in between C2H6 and C2H2
D
in between C2H4 and C2H2
Question 56Single Answer
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal
Question 57Single Answer
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A
CH3CH2OH
B
CH3 – C – CH3
C
(CH3)2CHOH
D
CH3CHO
Question 58Single Answer
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A
NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B
NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C
(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D
CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Question 59Single Answer
The one which has least iodine value is
A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil
Question 60Single Answer
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Question 61Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 63Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 64Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 65Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 66Single Answer
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Question 67Single Answer
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C
Question 68Single Answer
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Question 69Single Answer
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Question 70Single Answer
Stoma opens, when
A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A
Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B
Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C
arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D
Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Question 72Single Answer
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A
medulla oblongata
B
pons
C
cerebellum
D
hypothalamus
Question 73Single Answer
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A
protein particles
B
a class of bacteria
C
a class of viruses
D
fungi
Question 74Single Answer
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A
grafting
B
hybridization
C
embryo culture
D
shoot apex culture
Question 75Single Answer
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A
cyanosis
B
bronchitis
C
rhinitis
D
bronchial carcinoma
Question 76Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 78Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 79Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 80Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 81Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 82Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 83Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 84Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 85Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 86Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 87Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 88Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 89Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 90Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 91Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 92Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 93Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 94Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 95Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 96Single Answer
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 97Single Answer
The Indian Constitution was enforced on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 98Single Answer
The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:
A
USA
B
UK
C
Germany
D
Canada
Question 99Single Answer
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:
A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
62nd Amendment
Question 100Single Answer
The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:
A
The Constitution of Canada
B
The Constitution of Ireland
C
The Constitution of Australia
D
The Constitution of USA
Question 101Single Answer
The Constitution of India was drafted by:
A
200 members
B
298 members
C
250 members
D
310 members
Question 102Single Answer
The objective resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Sardar Patel
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
B.R. Ambedkar
Question 103Single Answer
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?
A
Part II
B
Part III
C
Part IV
D
Part V
Question 104Single Answer
The concept of Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from:
A
UK
B
USA
C
Canada
D
Australia
Question 105Single Answer
The Union List in the Seventh Schedule contains:
A
52 subjects
B
66 subjects
C
97 subjects
D
61 subjects
Question 106Single Answer
What is the primary focus of the Chhattisgarh government's development plans, especially in the Bastar region?
A
Industrial growth
B
Improving urban infrastructure
C
Progress after curtailing Maoist disturbances
D
Expansion of educational institutions
Question 107Single Answer
What was the name of the recent event held to discuss development plans for the Bastar region?
A
Vikasit Chhattisgarh
B
Nav Bastar
C
Viksit Bastar Ki Ore
D
Samriddh Bastar
Question 108Single Answer
The "Viksit Bastar Ki Ore" event focused on which key areas for the region's development?
A
Mining, manufacturing, and trade
B
Agriculture, skill development, and tourism
C
Healthcare, education, and transportation
D
Renewable energy, technology, and finance
Question 109Single Answer
Who is the current Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh?
A
Bhupesh Baghel
B
T.S. Singh Deo
C
Vishnu Deo Sai
D
Raman Singh
Question 110Single Answer
What is the monthly financial assistance provided under the Mahtari Vandan Yojana?
A
Rs. 500
B
Rs. 750
C
Rs. 1000
D
Rs. 1500
Question 111Single Answer
Who are the eligible beneficiaries of the Mahtari Vandan Yojana?
A
All women above 18 years of age
B
Only women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) families
C
Eligible married women (over 21), including widows and divorced women
D
Only women residing in rural areas
Question 112Single Answer
Has the first installment of the Mahtari Vandan Yojana been disbursed?
A
No, the scheme is yet to be launched
B
No, the registration process is still ongoing
C
Yes, the first installment has been disbursed
D
Only a partial amount has been disbursed
Question 113Single Answer
What is the primary objective of the Deendayal Upadhyay Bhoomiheen Krishi Majdoor Kalyana Yojana?
A
To provide agricultural land to landless laborers
B
To provide financial assistance to landless agricultural laborers
C
To provide employment opportunities in the agriculture sector
D
To provide training for agricultural skills
Question 114Single Answer
Who is the Deendayal Upadhyay Bhoomiheen Krishi Majdoor Kalyana Yojana primarily aimed at benefiting?
A
Small and marginal farmers
B
Landless agricultural laborers
C
Agricultural input suppliers
D
Rural entrepreneurs
Question 115Single Answer
What benefit does the Ramlala Darshan Scheme offer to the people of Chhattisgarh?
A
Subsidized travel to religious sites within Chhattisgarh
B
Financial assistance for building temples in the state
C
Free pilgrimages to Ayodhya
D
Free accommodation for pilgrims visiting Chhattisgarh
Question 116Single Answer
Which organization is collaborating with the Chhattisgarh government for the Ramlala Darshan Scheme?
A
Chhattisgarh Tourism Board
B
IRCTC
C
State Transport Department
D
Chhattisgarh Religious Trust
Question 117Single Answer
Besides Ayodhya, which other city is included in the free pilgrimage offered under the Ramlala Darshan Scheme?
A
Mathura
B
Varanasi
C
Prayagraj
D
Haridwar
Question 118Single Answer
Approximately how much worth of projects were launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Bilaspur recently?
A
Rs. 14,700 crore
B
Rs. 24,700 crore
C
Rs. 34,700 crore
D
Rs. 44,700 crore
Question 119Single Answer
The projects launched by PM Modi in Bilaspur focused on which sectors?
A
Only housing and infrastructure
B
Only infrastructure and employment
C
Housing, infrastructure, and employment
D
Agriculture, industry, and services
Question 120Single Answer
How many new homes for poor families, including tribal areas, are part of the housing projects launched by PM Modi in Bilaspur?
A
1 lakh
B
2 lakh
C
3 lakh
D
4 lakh
Question 121Single Answer
Who is considered the first martyr from Chhattisgarh in the Indian Rebellion of 1857?
A
Veer Narayan Singh
B
Guru Ghasidas
C
Shahid Hanuman Singh
D
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
Question 122Single Answer
In which year did the Raipur Conspiracy Case take place, a significant event in Chhattisgarh's independence movement?
A
1939
B
1942
C
1930
D
1936
Question 123Single Answer
Which prominent leader from Chhattisgarh was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A
Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
B
Sundarlal Sharma
C
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
D
E. Raghavendra Rao
Question 124Single Answer
The Kandal Satyagraha of 1920, a significant peasant movement in Chhattisgarh, was led by whom?
A
Veer Narayan Singh
B
Sundarlal Sharma
C
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
D
Guru Ghasidas
Question 125Single Answer
Who founded the 'Chhattisgarh Mahasabha' in 1937, an organization advocating for a separate Chhattisgarh state?
A
Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
B
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
C
Dr. Khubchand Baghel
D
Yati Yatanlal
Question 126Single Answer
Which historical event in Chhattisgarh is often referred to as the "Jallianwala Bagh of Chhattisgarh"?
A
Kandal Satyagraha
B
Raipur Conspiracy Case
C
Kandeli Nahar Satyagraha
D
Pipariya Massacre
Question 127Single Answer
Who was the leader of the Banar Sena during the Quit India Movement in Raipur?
A
Veer Narayan Singh
B
Bilas Rao Deshmukh
C
Waman Rao Lakhe
D
Radhabai
Question 128Single Answer
The Dhamtari forest satyagraha in 1930 was primarily against which British policy?
A
Salt Tax
B
Forest Laws
C
Land Revenue System
D
Education Policy
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following princely states of Chhattisgarh was the first to merge with the Indian Union after independence?
A
Bastar
B
Kanker
C
Khairagarh
D
Sarangarh
Question 130Single Answer
Who is known as the 'Gandhi of Chhattisgarh'?
A
Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
B
Sundarlal Sharma
C
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
D
Guru Ghasidas
Question 131Single Answer
The Halba rebellion, a significant tribal uprising in Chhattisgarh, took place during which period?
A
1774-1779
B
1857-1858
C
1942-1944
D
1930-1932
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following leaders from Chhattisgarh played a crucial role in the formation of the Madhya Pradesh state?
A
Dr. Khubchand Baghel
B
Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
C
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
D
Yati Yatanlal
Question 133Single Answer
Veer Narayan Singh belonged to which tribal community?
A
Gond
B
Halba
C
Binjhwar
D
Oraon
Question 134Single Answer
The Kandeli Nahar Satyagraha in 1920 protested against which issue?
A
High land revenue
B
Forced labor
C
Water tax
D
Forest restrictions
Question 135Single Answer
Who started the 'Seva Dal' in Chhattisgarh, an organization focused on social service and national consciousness?
A
Pandit Ravishankar Shukla
B
Thakur Pyarelal Singh
C
Dr. Khubchand Baghel
D
E. Raghavendra Rao
Question 136Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 137Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Question 138Single Answer
The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?
A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal
Question 139Single Answer
The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:
A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore
Question 140Single Answer
Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?
A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission
Question 141Single Answer
The Indian Navy plans to induct how many warships in 2026 according to Defence Minister Rajnath Singh?
A
10
B
12
C
18
D
15
Question 142Single Answer
The Central Government banned which highly toxic herbicide citing risks to human and animal life?
A
Glyphosate
B
2,4-D
C
Atrazine
D
Paraquat Dichloride
Question 143Single Answer
US forces completed their withdrawal from Iraq after approximately how many years of presence?
A
10 years
B
20+ years (since 2003)
C
15 years
D
30 years
Question 144Single Answer
Which airline flight experienced a cockpit stabbing incident involving the co-pilot attempting to crash the plane while en route to Israel?
A
Emirates
B
Flydubai
C
Qatar Airways
D
Etihad
Question 145Single Answer
India’s women’s compound archery team won gold at the Asian Games 2026 by defeating which country?
A
South Korea
B
Japan
C
China
D
Chinese Taipei
Question 146Single Answer
India sealed an eight-wicket win chasing a target of 406 against West Indies in an ODI, led by which captain’s unbeaten 223?
A
Rohit Sharma
B
Virat Kohli
C
Hardik Pandya
D
Shubman Gill
Question 147Single Answer
The second ASEAN–India Maritime Exercise (AIME 2026) is being conducted in which country?
A
Indonesia
B
Vietnam
C
Thailand
D
Philippines
Question 148Single Answer
India’s Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth in August 2026 stood at approximately:
A
5.5%
B
7.4%
C
8%
D
9.5%
Question 149Single Answer
Apple Pay was launched in India with which bank as the first partner?
A
HDFC Bank
B
Axis Bank
C
ICICI Bank
D
SBI
Question 150Single Answer
The opposition INDIA bloc announced a march to the Election Commission as part of its “vote theft” campaign. On which date was the main march planned?
A
6 October
B
2 October
C
8 October
D
15 October
Other Topics
Question 151Single Answer
The Essential Commodities Act was enacted in which year?
A
1947
B
1955
C
1950
D
1965
Question 152Single Answer
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 is Act No.:
A
20 of 1955
B
15 of 1955
C
10 of 1955
D
35 of 1955
Question 153Single Answer
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 received enactment on:
A
26 January 1955
B
1 April 1955
C
15 August 1955
D
2 October 1955
Question 154Single Answer
The main purpose of the Essential Commodities Act is to control:
A
Only exports
B
Banking transactions
C
Only agricultural land
D
Production, supply, distribution and trade of certain commodities
Question 155Single Answer
The Essential Commodities Act extends to:
A
Selected States only
B
Union Territories only
C
Whole of India
D
Rural India only
Question 156Single Answer
Definitions under the Essential Commodities Act are primarily contained in:
A
Section 1
B
Section 3
C
Section 2
D
Section 5
Question 157Single Answer
Under the Act, “food-crops” include:
A
Sugarcane
B
Cotton only
C
Rubber only
D
Tea only
Question 158Single Answer
A “notified order” means an order notified in the:
A
Newspaper
B
Official Gazette
C
District diary
D
Court register
Question 159Single Answer
Under the Essential Commodities Act, the expression “order” includes:
A
Only court judgments
B
Only parliamentary resolutions
C
A direction issued under the order
D
Only oral directions
Question 160Single Answer
Section 2A of the Essential Commodities Act deals with:
A
Declaration of essential commodities
B
Appeals
C
Consumer courts
D
Food subsidy
Question 161Single Answer
The Schedule of the Essential Commodities Act is associated with:
A
Essential commodities
B
Criminal courts
C
Election constituencies
D
Income-tax rates
Question 162Single Answer
Power to control production, supply and distribution of essential commodities is primarily provided under:
A
Section 2
B
Section 10
C
Section 6
D
Section 3
Question 163Single Answer
The primary authority empowered under Section 3 is the:
A
Central Government
B
Gram Panchayat
C
Supreme Court
D
Election Commission
Question 164Single Answer
Section 3 powers may be exercised for maintaining or increasing:
A
Tax revenue
B
Supplies of essential commodities
C
Imports of luxury goods
D
Foreign exchange reserves only
Question 165Single Answer
Regulation of distribution of an essential commodity can be undertaken under:
A
Passport Act
B
Companies Act only
C
Essential Commodities Act
D
Motor Vehicles Act
Question 166Single Answer
The government may regulate the price at which an essential commodity is:
A
Insured only
B
Exported only
C
Advertised only
D
Bought or sold
Question 167Single Answer
An order under Section 3 may regulate the storage of:
A
Land records
B
Only imported vehicles
C
Essential commodities
D
Currency notes
Question 168Single Answer
Which activity can be regulated under the Essential Commodities Act?
A
Production
B
All of these
C
Distribution
D
Supply
Question 169Single Answer
Licensing of persons engaged in specified activities relating to essential commodities may be required by:
A
An election notification
B
A divorce decree
C
A control order
D
A municipal map
Question 170Single Answer
Stock limits may be imposed primarily to regulate:
A
Storage and availability of commodities
B
School admissions
C
Voting rights
D
Road construction
Question 171Single Answer
The purpose of stock regulation is most closely related to preventing:
A
Railway accidents
B
School dropout
C
Tax filing
D
Excessive hoarding
Question 172Single Answer
The Essential Commodities Act is intended to operate in the interest of the:
A
Exporters only
B
Foreign companies only
C
Government employees only
D
General public
Question 173Single Answer
Section 4 deals with imposition of duties upon:
A
Banks only
B
Consumers only
C
State Governments and officers
D
Private schools only
Question 174Single Answer
Delegation of powers under the Essential Commodities Act is covered by:
A
Section 4
B
Section 11
C
Section 8
D
Section 5
Question 175Single Answer
Section 6 deals with:
A
Food laboratories
B
Consumer mediation
C
Effect of orders inconsistent with other enactments
D
Tax recovery only
Question 176Single Answer
Confiscation of an essential commodity is dealt with under:
A
Section 10A
B
Section 8
C
Section 6A
D
Section 15
Question 177Single Answer
Proceedings for confiscation under Section 6A are generally associated with violation of an:
A
Order made under Section 3
B
Income-tax return
C
Election order
D
School regulation
Question 178Single Answer
Under Section 6A, confiscation proceedings are associated with the office of the:
A
President only
B
Governor only
C
Collector
D
Auditor General
Question 179Single Answer
Under the Act, “Collector” may include an:
A
Bank manager
B
Railway driver
C
Additional Collector
D
Postmaster
Question 180Single Answer
An officer authorized by the Collector to exercise specified functions must generally not be below the rank of:
A
Patwari
B
Constable
C
Clerk
D
Sub-Divisional Officer
Question 181Single Answer
Issue of show-cause notice before confiscation is dealt with under:
A
Section 12
B
Section 7A
C
Section 9
D
Section 6B
Question 182Single Answer
A person affected by proposed confiscation must ordinarily be given an opportunity of:
A
Receiving subsidy
B
Contesting an election
C
Being heard
D
Getting employment
Question 183Single Answer
Appeal against an order of confiscation is provided under:
A
Section 6C
B
Section 7
C
Section 9
D
Section 13
Question 184Single Answer
Section 6D primarily provides that confiscation does not interfere with:
A
Tax assessments
B
Elections
C
Census
D
Other punishment
Question 185Single Answer
Bar of jurisdiction in certain cases is dealt with under:
A
Section 8
B
Section 6E
C
Section 10
D
Section 16
Question 186Single Answer
Penalties for contravention of an order under the Act are principally dealt with under:
A
Section 5
B
Section 15
C
Section 12
D
Section 7
Question 187Single Answer
Attempting to contravene an order under the Act is addressed in:
A
Section 6
B
Section 8
C
Section 11
D
Section 15
Question 188Single Answer
Abetment of a contravention is dealt with under:
A
Section 13
B
Section 2
C
Section 4
D
Section 8
Question 189Single Answer
Making a false statement in specified circumstances is dealt with under:
A
Section 16
B
Section 5
C
Section 11
D
Section 9
Question 190Single Answer
Offences committed by companies are dealt with under:
A
Section 14
B
Section 3
C
Section 6A
D
Section 10
Question 191Single Answer
If an offence is committed by a company, responsibility may extend to persons who were:
A
In charge of its business
B
Customers only
C
Competitors only
D
Auditors in every case automatically
Question 192Single Answer
Section 10A declares offences under the Act to be:
A
Purely civil
B
Cognizable
C
Compoundable in every case
D
Revenue disputes only
Question 193Single Answer
Power of a court to publish the name and place of business of a convicted company is under:
A
Section 8
B
Section 10B
C
Section 12A
D
Section 15A
Question 194Single Answer
Presumption of culpable mental state is provided under:
A
Section 10C
B
Section 6B
C
Section 9
D
Section 14 only
Question 195Single Answer
Cognizance of offences under the Essential Commodities Act is dealt with under:
A
Section 11
B
Section 2
C
Section 4
D
Section 15
Question 196Single Answer
Special provisions regarding fine are contained in:
A
Section 14
B
Section 7A
C
Section 8
D
Section 12
Question 197Single Answer
Summary trial provisions are contained in:
A
Section 3
B
Section 12A
C
Section 6E
D
Section 10
Question 198Single Answer
Section 13 relates to presumption as to:
A
Tax returns
B
Birth certificates
C
Orders
D
Consumer complaints
Question 199Single Answer
Burden of proof in certain cases is dealt with by:
A
Section 9
B
Section 5
C
Section 14
D
Section 16
Question 200Single Answer
Protection for action taken under the Act is contained in: