The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 3Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 4Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 5Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 6Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 7Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 8Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 9Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 10Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 11Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 12Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 13Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 14Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 15Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 16Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 17Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 18Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 19Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 20Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 21Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 22Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 23Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 24Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 25Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 26Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 27Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 28Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 29Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 30Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Common Sense
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 33Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 34Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 35Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 36Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 40Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 41Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 44Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 46Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
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English
Question 51Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 52Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 53Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 54Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 55Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 56Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 57Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 58Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 59Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 60Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
General awareness
Question 71Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 72Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 73Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 74Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 76Single Answer
Total area at present of Chhattisgarh state ?
A
1,30,194 km2
B
1,35,191 km2
C
3,02,772 km2
D
1,60,194 km2
Question 77Single Answer
The Chhattisgarh state was formed ?
A
31st Oct., 1999
B
1st Nov., 1999
C
31st Oct., 2000
D
1st Nov., 2000
Question 78Single Answer
The famous Chitrakot waterfall in Chhattisgarh state is situated in ?
A
Baghel Khand Plateau
B
Chhattisgarh Basin
C
Jashpoor-Samri Region
D
Dandkaranya Region
Question 79Single Answer
Export of Iron-ore from Bastar is done from which of the following sea ports?
A
Chennai
B
Vishakhapatnam
C
Cochin
D
Mumbai
Question 80Single Answer
In which of the following districts is the maximum Iron-ore produced in Chhattisgarh ?
A
Rajnandgaon
B
Bastar
C
Korea
D
Mahasamund
Question 81Single Answer
In which of the following districts of Chhattisgarh is the Korba super power station established?
A
Raigarh
B
Korba
C
Sarguja
D
Raipur
Question 82Single Answer
The only Jute industry of Chhattisgarh is located in which of the following districts ?
A
Raigarh
B
Korea
C
Jashpoor
D
Raipur
Question 83Single Answer
In which of the following districts is Dandkaranya project located ?
A
Raipur
B
Jagdalpur
C
Bastar
D
Durg
Question 84Single Answer
Total no. of M.L.A. seats in Chhattisgarh ?
A
60
B
80
C
90
D
93
Question 85Single Answer
In which of the following districts in Chhattisgarh is Kutumsar cave situtated ?
A
Dantewara
B
Mahasamund
C
Korea
D
Bastar
Question 86Single Answer
Which country hosted the World Blitz Chess Championship in December 2025, with results announced in early January 2026?
A
India
B
Kazakhstan
C
Ukraine
D
Switzerland
Question 87Single Answer
What major policy change did India Post implement from January 1, 2026?
A
Discontinuation of certain outward international letter mail services
B
Introduction of free international parcel delivery
C
Mandatory digital tracking for all domestic mails
D
Increase in stamp prices for inland letters
Question 88Single Answer
Which state in India became the first to establish a national Artificial Intelligence research institution under a PPP model, starting operations on January 1, 2026?
A
Karnataka
B
Maharashtra
C
Gujarat
D
Kerala
Question 89Single Answer
What tragic incident occurred in Crans-Montana, Switzerland, on New Year's Eve 2025/January 1, 2026?
A
A major earthquake
B
A fire and explosion at a bar killing at least 46 people
C
A political protest turning violent
D
A ski resort avalanche
Question 90Single Answer
Which scheme completed nine years of implementation on January 1, 2026?
A
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY)
B
Pradhan Mantri Gram Swaraj Abhiyan
C
Ayushman Bharat
D
PM-KISAN
Question 91Single Answer
Who launched initiatives under the Skilling for AI Readiness (SOAR) programme on January 1, 2026?
A
Prime Minister Narendra Modi
B
President Droupadi Murmu
C
Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan
D
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Question 92Single Answer
What significant economic milestone did India achieve by early 2026?
A
Became the world's third-largest economy
B
Surpassed Japan to become the fourth-largest economy
C
Achieved $5 trillion GDP
D
Overtook Germany in nominal GDP
Question 93Single Answer
Which new law or change took effect in the US on January 1, 2026, related to foreign nationals?
A
Suspension of certain visa issuances to protect national security
B
Mandatory green card renewals
C
Free entry for tourists from allied nations
D
Ban on all student visas
Question 94Single Answer
Who won the Women's section of the World Blitz Chess Championship announced in early January 2026?
A
Anna Muzychuk
B
Bibisara Assaubayeva
C
Hou Yifan
D
Ju Wenjun
Question 95Single Answer
Which financial change was implemented in India from January 1, 2026, regarding credit scores?
A
Weekly updates by credit bureaus
B
Annual updates only
C
Mandatory credit score sharing with employers
D
Elimination of credit scores
Computer knowledge
Question 96Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 97Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 99Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 100Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 102Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 103Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 104Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 105Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 106Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 107Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 108Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 109Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 110Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 111Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 112Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 113Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 114Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 115Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Agriculture
Question 116Single Answer
In anemophylous plants, pollen are disseminated by means of_______
A
Insects
B
Water
C
Wind
D
Gravity
Question 117Single Answer
Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as______
A
Parthenocarpy
B
Parthenogenesis
C
Gametogenesis
D
All of the above
Question 118Single Answer
Removal of off type plants from a seed field is termed as_________
A
Weeding
B
Rouging
C
Hoeing
D
Clearing
Question 119Single Answer
Hormones which control apical dominance are______
A
Auxins
B
Cytokinins
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
Gibberellins
Question 120Single Answer
Turmeric is propagated by _____
A
Corms
B
Seed
C
Rhizome
D
Bulbs
Question 121Single Answer
Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time is called as_______
A
Homogamy
B
Chasmogamy
C
Cleistogamy
D
Dichogamy
Question 122Single Answer
The cause of pungency in chillies is______
A
Cucurbitacin
B
Capsaicin
C
Allicin
D
Solanin
Question 123Single Answer
Regular consumption of garlic will reduce the level of_____
in human beings.
A
Cholesterol
B
Sugar
C
Uric acid
D
None of above
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the flower type cannot produce seed and/or
fruit ?
A
Pistillate
B
Perfect
C
Hermaphrodite
D
Staminate
Question 125Single Answer
Truck gardening means vegetable production for________
A
Home consumption
B
Distant markets
C
For local market
D
At commercial level
Question 126Single Answer
What is the difference between stock and supply
A
Stock is a flow concept whereas supply is no
B
Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C
Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D
None of the above
Question 127Single Answer
What is the shape of supply curve
A
Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B
Downward sloping
C
Concave
D
Can be any of the
Question 128Single Answer
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A
Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B
Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C
Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D
Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Question 129Single Answer
Contraction and extension of supply means
A
Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B
Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 130Single Answer
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A
Increased supply
B
Decreased supply
C
Constant supply
D
None of the above
Question 131Single Answer
An out-of-school system of education for rural people:
A
Extension
B
Management
C
Participation
D
Communication
Question 132Single Answer
Extension literally means:
A
Stretching out
B
Talking with
C
Deciding for
D
Thinking about
Question 133Single Answer
The term ‘Extension’ have originated in:
A
Latin
B
Persian
C
Greek
D
Sanskrit
Question 134Single Answer
The Latin roots for the word ‘extension’:
A
ex and tensio
B
ex and tension
C
ex and luceo
D
ex and termo
Question 135Single Answer
The term “University Extension” was first used in:
A
1866
B
1972
C
1901
D
1921
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following crops have been approved for commercial cultivation in India ?
A
Bt cotton and Bt brinjal
B
Bt cotton and Golden rice
C
Bt maize and Bt cotton
D
Bt cotton only
Question 137Single Answer
This year (2010-11) the expected food grain production in India is
A
212 million tonnes
B
220 million tonnes
C
235 million tonnes
D
250 million tonnes
Question 138Single Answer
The genome of which of the following crops is still not completely sequenced ?
A
Rice
B
Soybean
C
Sorghum
D
Wheat
Question 139Single Answer
According to the approach paper to the 12th Five Year Plan, the basic objective of the 12th Plan is :
A
Inclusive growth
B
Sustainable growth
C
Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth
D
Inclusive and sustainable growth
Question 140Single Answer
To address the problems of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas, including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches, the Government of India has set up the ?
A
National Rainfed Area Authority
B
National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas
C
National Mission on Rainfed Areas
D
Command Area Development and Water Management Authority
Question 141Single Answer
First Forest Policy in Independent India was enacted in
A
1952
B
1954
C
1955
D
1960
Question 142Single Answer
Kashmir state is placed in which schedule?
A
Schedule I
B
Schedule II
C
Schedule III
D
Schedule IV
Question 143Single Answer
Project elephant came into existence in the year
A
1990
B
1992
C
1994
D
1996
Question 144Single Answer
The Project Tiger was initiated in the year:
A
1971
B
1972
C
1973
D
1974
Question 145Single Answer
The Indian Board of Wildlife was constituted in the year: