The famous Chitrakot waterfall in Chhattisgarh state is situated in ?
A
Baghel Khand Plateau
B
Chhattisgarh Basin
C
Jashpoor-Samri Region
D
Dandkaranya Region
Question 4Single Answer
Export of Iron-ore from Bastar is done from which of the following sea ports?
A
Chennai
B
Vishakhapatnam
C
Cochin
D
Mumbai
Question 5Single Answer
In which of the following districts is the maximum Iron-ore produced in Chhattisgarh ?
A
Rajnandgaon
B
Bastar
C
Korea
D
Mahasamund
Question 6Single Answer
In which of the following districts of Chhattisgarh is the Korba super power station established?
A
Raigarh
B
Korba
C
Sarguja
D
Raipur
Question 7Single Answer
The only Jute industry of Chhattisgarh is located in which of the following districts ?
A
Raigarh
B
Korea
C
Jashpoor
D
Raipur
Question 8Single Answer
In which of the following districts is Dandkaranya project located ?
A
Raipur
B
Jagdalpur
C
Bastar
D
Durg
Question 9Single Answer
Total no. of M.L.A. seats in Chhattisgarh ?
A
60
B
80
C
90
D
93
Question 10Single Answer
In which of the following districts in Chhattisgarh is Kutumsar cave situtated ?
A
Dantewara
B
Mahasamund
C
Korea
D
Bastar
Question 11Single Answer
In which of the following districts is Maa danteshwari temple located ?
A
Kanker
B
Dantewara
C
Bastar
D
Raipur
Question 12Single Answer
In which of the following districts was the Bhilai institute of technology in the memory of Seth Bal Krishan established in September, 1986 ?
A
Durg
B
Rajnandgaon
C
Raipur
D
Jagdalpur
Question 13Single Answer
At which of the following rivers is Mini Mata project situated ?
A
Mahanadi
B
Hasdo
C
Eb
D
Shiv Nath
Question 14Single Answer
Density of population (census 2001) in the state ?
A
130
B
154
C
156
D
160
Question 15Single Answer
The capital of Chhattisgarh ?
A
Bilaspur
B
Raipur
C
Jagdalpur
D
Durg
Question 16Single Answer
How many tehsils are there in Chhattisgarh state?
A
16
B
48
C
97
D
100
Question 17Single Answer
How many universities are there in Chhattisgarh ?
A
2
B
3
C
7
D
5
Question 18Single Answer
The Sex-Ratio (census 2001) in Chhattisgarh state ?
A
952
B
962
C
898
D
992
Question 19Single Answer
The Rate of population increase (1991-2001) in Chhattisgarh was?
A
16.21
B
17.06
C
18.06
D
22.26
Question 20Single Answer
The average height of the Dandakaranya region ?
A
200 metre
B
400 metre
C
800 metre
D
900 metre
Question 21Single Answer
No. of habitated villages in Chhattisgarh ?
A
18,720
B
20,308
C
20,378
D
20,478
Question 22Single Answer
The total no. of towns in Chhattisgarh ?
A
85
B
97
C
95
D
100
Question 23Single Answer
Which of the following is situated in the North of tropic of cancer ?
A
Ramanujung
B
Ambikapur
C
Baikunthpur
D
Dareea
Question 24Single Answer
At which of the following rivers is Chitrakot dam situated ?
A
Eb
B
Indravati
C
Shiv Nath
D
Jonk
Question 25Single Answer
What is the percentage of forested land in Chhattisgarh ?
A
35.01
B
38.01
C
40.85
D
43.85
Question 26Single Answer
Ari Dongari range of district Kanker produces Iron-ore. In which of the tehsils is this range situated ?
A
Bhanupratap Pur
B
Narharpur
C
Antagarh
D
Kanker
Question 27Single Answer
Which district of Chhattisgarh state has maximum no. of tehsils ?
A
Janjgir
B
Rajnandgaon
C
Raipur
D
Durg
Question 28Single Answer
In which of the following districts is Kosse cloth prepared by Kosta tribe?
A
Durg
B
Bastar
C
Raigarh
D
Korba
Question 29Single Answer
Bristal and Panama are the main cigrettes which are manufactured in Chhattisgarh. Where are the Bristal cigrattes manufactured ?
A
In Durg
B
In Raigarh
C
In Bilaspur
D
In Raipur
Question 30Single Answer
Where is the South-Eastern coal field Ltd ?
A
In Jagdalpur
B
In Bilaspur
C
In Durg
D
In Raipur
Question 31Single Answer
In which of the following districts are Joggimara caves situated ?
A
Jashpoor
B
Sarguja
C
Bilaspur
D
Kavardha
Question 32Single Answer
Where is the Bamleshwari temple situated ?
A
Dongargarh
B
Antagarh
C
Bishrampur
D
Bilaspur
Question 33Single Answer
In which of the following districts is the maximum concentration of population ?
A
Raipur
B
Durg
C
Bilaspur
D
Bastar
Question 34Single Answer
As per 2001 census the literacy rate of Chhattisgarh state is 65.18%. What is the literacy of male and female ?
A
50.28%, 30.24%
B
60.81%, 50.76%
C
65.38%, 69.70%
D
77.86%, 52.40%
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following tribes Dhanka is a sub tribe ?
A
Orang
B
Korba
C
Bhetra
D
Kamar
Question 36Single Answer
In which of the following districts is the Cement Corporation of India factory not situated ?
A
Durg
B
Raipur
C
Janjgir
D
Raigarh
Question 37Single Answer
What per cent of the arabe land in Chhattisgarh is main cultivation ?
A
43%
B
65%
C
35%
D
29%
Question 38Single Answer
In which of the following districts Century is Mill of Birla situated ?
A
Raigarh
B
Raipur
C
Bilaspur
D
Durg
Question 39Single Answer
Where is the Belladella Iron project situated ?
A
In Bacheli (Jagdalpur)
B
In Bastar
C
In Raigarh
D
In Raipur
Question 40Single Answer
Where was the plastic complex in Chhattisgarh established ?
A
Korba
B
Dantewara
C
Raigarh
D
Raipur
Question 41Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 42Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 43Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 44Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 45Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Question 46Single Answer
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A
New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B
Presidential elections were held
C
Parliament was dissolved
D
King was crowned
Question 47Single Answer
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A
20% below average
B
39.8% below average
C
15% above average
D
Normal rainfall
Question 48Single Answer
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A
Bengaluru
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
Question 49Single Answer
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A
Universal Health Coverage
B
Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C
TB-free India 2030
D
National Ambulance Services 2026
Question 50Single Answer
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A
Removal of all cesses
B
Single 12% slab
C
Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D
Only state-level taxation
Important Questions Package
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Commerce
Question 51Single Answer
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A
Ethical consciousness
B
Scale economies and pricing power
C
Technology adoption and innovation
D
Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Question 52Single Answer
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A
Predatory pricing
B
Export subsidies
C
Dumping
D
Low cost financing
Question 53Single Answer
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A
Automatic route
B
Government route
C
FIPB route
D
DPIIT route
Question 54Single Answer
Factor conditions in Michael Porterโs competitive advantage National Include :
A
Market size
B
Demand conditions
C
Internationally competitive suppliers
D
Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Question 55Single Answer
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A
Vendorโs debtors account
B
Vendorโs suspense account
C
Debtors account
D
Creditors account
Question 56Single Answer
When the value of โInvestment in subsidiaryโ in the holding companyโs balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A
Capital reserve on consolidation
B
Goodwill on consolidation
C
Minority interest
D
Post acquisition profit
Question 57Single Answer
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A
Adjustment
B
Amortization
C
Capitalization
D
Quasi equity
Question 58Single Answer
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A
4 : 3
B
13 : 8
C
8 :13
D
4 :17
Question 59Single Answer
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A
Present value of all expected future cash flows
B
All expected future cash flows
C
Percent value of all expected future profits
D
All expected future profits
Question 60Single Answer
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A
Inelastic
B
Elastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Zero elastics
Question 61Single Answer
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A
α + β > 1
B
K + L > 1
C
α + β < 1
D
K + L < 1
Question 62Single Answer
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A
Formation of cartels
B
Interdependent decision-making
C
Attaining economies of scale
D
Formation of duopoly
Question 63Single Answer
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A
Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B
Symmetric information between managers and investors
C
Outside information
D
Asymmetric information among investors only
Question 64Single Answer
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; projectโs ARR is :
A
14.40%
B
72%
C
16%
D
55.56%
Question 65Single Answer
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A
Bird in hand theory
B
Investor rationality theory
C
100 percent retention theory
D
Residual theory
Question 66Single Answer
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A
Revolving structure
B
Amortized structure
C
Collateralized structure
D
Self-liquidating structure
Question 67Single Answer
For a very large sample size the ratio betweenย and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size ๐ท :
A
25
B
5
C
4
D
16
Question 68Single Answer
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A
The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B
There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C
Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D
There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
Co-efficients of varianceย
B
If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C
If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D
Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Question 70Single Answer
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A
B
0.5
C
D
2
Question 71Single Answer
A test that contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is :
A
Construct validity
B
Content validity
C
Test validity
D
Criterion validity
Question 72Single Answer
Which among of the following is not a primary determinant of organizational structure ?
A
Chain and span
B
Capacity and lower needs
C
Power and control
D
Differentiation and integration
Question 73Single Answer
An act in a way that results in the greatest good for the greatest number is :
A
The golden rule
B
The utilitarian principle
C
The four way test
D
Kantโs categorical imperative
Question 74Single Answer
People repeat behaviors that bring them satisfaction and pleasure and stop those that bring them dissatisfaction or pain is known as :
A
Law of exercise
B
Law of redo
C
Low of effect
D
Low of readiness
Question 75Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is true about under the Base I Accord, BCBS, fixed the minimum requirement of capital fund for banks at ?
A
8 percent of the total risk weighted assets
B
9 percent of the total risk weighted assets
C
10 percent of the total risk weighted assets
D
1000 crore
Question 76Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct relating to Indian Financial System ?
A
RBI has direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds
B
Monetary control is exercised through cash reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
C
Primary dealers mainly deal in shares, mutual fund units
D
The decrease in statutory liquidity ratio contracts the credit creation
Question 77Single Answer
Which one of the following is not one of the advantages of Derivatives market ?
A
Leveraging increases risk
B
They enhance liquidity in the market for underlying assets
C
They represent a form of insurance against risks
D
They reduce price volatility
Question 78Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not true about Indian Money Market ?
A
Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that constitute organized component of money market
B
Money market mutual funds are allowed to sell units to corporates and individuals
C
A Well-developed money market is essential for a modern economy
D
In the Indian Money Market, the predominant place is enjoyed by government and semi-government securities
Question 79Single Answer
Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel ?
A
The larger the market size, the longer the channel
B
If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel
C
If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a shorter channel
D
If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a water channel of distribution
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following can be categorized as people processing services ?
A
Health care
B
Legal services
C
Education
D
Transportation
Question 81Single Answer
SBUs or products that have lost their position of leadership and are in the low growth markets, are known as :
A
Star
B
Problem child
C
Dog
D
Cash cow
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following is not a valid basis for market segmentation ?
A
Customer Based Segmentation
B
Technology Oriented Segmentation
C
Competition Related Segmentation
D
Product Related Segmentation
Question 83Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is a promissory note ?
A
I promise to Q Rs. 7,000, 7 days after my marriage
B
On demand, I promise to pay B or bearer Rs. 5,000
C
I promise to pay Rs. 5,000 on Cโ death provided C leaves with me enough money to pay that sum
D
I acknowledge to be indebted to you for Rs. 10,000 to be paid on demand for value received
Question 84Single Answer
A claim for โquantum meruitโ cannot succeed :
A
Where is divisible contract is partly performed
B
When an indivisible contract for a lumpsum is partly performed
C
When a contract is discovered to be unenforceable due to some technical defect
D
In the case of breach of contract, the aggrieved party can claim reasonable compensation for k what he has done under the contract
Question 85Single Answer
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of :
A
6 months and a fine of Rs. 20,000
B
3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000
C
3 years and a fine of Rs 2,00,000
D
1 year and a fine of Rs 3,00,000
Question 86Single Answer
Which one of the following conditions does not constitute a valid agency by necessity ?
A
There should be have been actual and definite commercial necessity for the agent to act promptly
B
The agent should have acted bonafide and for benefit of the principle
C
The agent should have adopted the most reasonable and practicable course under the circumstances
D
Destruction of the subject matter of the contract of agency
Question 87Single Answer
If assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the non-agricultural income in that case be :
A
40% the income from such business
B
25% the income from such business
C
60% the income from such business
D
75% the income from such business
Question 88Single Answer
AMT provisions are applicable on :
A
Corporate assessee
B
Non Corporate assessee
C
HUF
D
An Individual
Question 89Single Answer
X, an employee of the private company, gets Rs. 30,000 p.m. as basic salary and entitled to Rs. 1,500 p.m. as entertainment allowance. What are the deductions u โ s 16 (ii) for gross salary in respect of entertainment allowance ?
A
Rs. 5,000
B
Rs. 18,000
C
Rs. 72,000
D
Nil
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following provident fund is approved by the provident fund commissioner ?
A
Statutory provident fund
B
Recognized provident fund
C
Unrecognised provident fund
D
Public provident fund
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following institutions are included in the โWorld Bank Groupโ ?
(a) International Finance Corporation
(b) International monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(e) International Development Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (d) and (e) only
Question 92Single Answer
Corporate socialresponsibility is the continuing commitment by business to behave ethically and contribute to :
(a) Political awareness, social security and inclusion.
(b) Public health, education and literacy.
(c) Maintaining ecological balances and protecting environment.
(d) Gender diversity, profiteering and market controlling.
(e) Rendering, Sponsoring and donating to social and charitable activities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (d) only
B
(b), (c) and (e) only
C
(c), (d) and (e) only
D
(a), (b) and (c) only
Question 93Single Answer
Firm characteristics that help managers identify core compentencies include :
(a) Potential access to wide variety of markets
(b) Significantly contribute to the perceived customer benefits
(c) Value accretive and noncompetitive
(d) Distinctive and difficult for competitors to imitate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(a), (c) and (d) only
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following distinction (s) is/are not correct between public issue and rights issue ?
(a) In public issue, applications for shares are invited from the general public and in rights issue, the shares are offered to existing shareholders.
(b) In public issue there is no question of any over-subscription and in rights issue the shares may be under subscribed or over subscribed leading to prorata allotment.
(c) The price of public issue is generally less than the market price and in rights issue, the price is deliberately made less than the market price.
(d) In a pubic issue, the communication of the issue is through prospects or advertisements and in rights issue the communication is between the company and the existing members of the company.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(b) only
B
(d) only
C
(a) and (c) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 95Single Answer
According to AS-2, Which of the following costs should be included in valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company ?
(a) Freight and insurance
(b) Carriage outwards
(c) Depreciation of factory plant
(d) General administrative overheads
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (d) only
B
(a), (b) and (d) only
C
(b) and (c) only
D
(a) and (c) only
Question 96Single Answer
Which of the following rules stands true while preparing schedule of changes in working capital ?
(a) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
(b) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
(c) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
(d) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (c) only
B
(a) and (d) only
C
(b) and (d) only
D
(a),(b) and (c) only
Question 97Single Answer
Characteristics constituting the core of consumers rationality includes :
(a) Homogeneous expectations
(b) Non-satiation (c) Selfish motive
(d) Clarity of preferences
(e) Possession of information
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
D
(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 98Single Answer
Why is an indifference curve convex to the origin ?
(a) Indifference curve slope downward to the right.
(b) Two commodities are imperfect substitutes.
(c) Declining marginal rate of substitution between commodities.
(d) Diminishing marginal utilities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a) and (b) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(c) and (d) only
D
(a) and (d) only
Question 99Single Answer
Financial crises takes the form of :
(a) Currency crisis
(b) Banking crisis
(c) Systematic financial crisis
(d) Foreign debt crisis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Question 100Single Answer
Following are the problems that mar an optimal international diversification :
(a) Unfavourable exchange rate movements
(b) Frictions in international markets
(c) Manipulation of security prices
(d) Unequal access to information
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(b), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct about Mann-Whitney U-test ?
(a) It is non parametric test.
(b) It requires that samples are independent.
(c) It can be used when populations involved are normally distributed.
(d) It is used to test the null hypothesis that the two populations are involved are identical.
(e) It is always a two tailed test.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (d) only
B
(a), (c), (d) only
C
(a), (d), (e) only
D
(a), (b), (e) only
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following are correctabout complementary events ?
(a) Mutually exclusive
(b) Independent
(c) Such that their probabilities add up to 1
(d) Collective exhaustive
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b), (c) only
B
(a), (b), (d) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (c), (d) only
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct about Chi Square test ?
(a) The only parameter of a Chi-Square distribution is its number of degrees of freedom.
(b) The null hypothesis in given Chi-Square test is rejected when calculated value of variable exceed its critical value.
(c) The rejection region in a goodness of fit test lies only in the right tail of the distribution.
(d) The Chi-Square test is a parametric test.
(e) At a =.05 and V =1 the critical value of x2 is equal to Z - value at the same level of significance.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (d), (e) only
B
(a), (c), (e) only
C
(a), (b), (c) only
D
(b), (c), (d) only
Question 104Single Answer
The principles of management have the following distinct features :
(a) Flexibility
(b) Universal application
(c) Principals are relative, not absolute
(d) Based on situation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c), (d)
Question 105Single Answer
Use of interviews as a training needs assessment technique has the following advantages :
(a) Questions can be modified
(b) Easy to analyze
(c) Can explore unanticipated issues that come up
(d) Less time consuming
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(a), (c) only
D
(b), (c), (d) only
Question 106Single Answer
The advantages of incentive payments are :
(a) Ease in the introduction of new machines
(b) Better utilization of equipment
(c) Reduced absenteeism and turnover
(d) Increased scrap
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) only
B
(b), (c) only
C
(b), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) only
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following forms may not result in credit risk ?
(a) Principal and/or interest amount may not be repaid in the case of direct lending.
(b) In case of guarantees or letter of credit, fund may not be forth coming from the constituents upon crystallization of the liability.
(c) Funds/Securities settlements may not be effected, in case of securities trading business.
(d) Provide information for determining adequacy of loan loss provision.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (c) and (d) only
C
(b) and (c) only
D
(d) only
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following statements are false regarding electronic purse? Indicate the correct code :
(a) Retinal pattern verification
(b) Visual recognition
(c) No risk of bad payment
(d) Method of accepting payments with no cash float to manage and no risk of theft
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b), (c) and (d) only
C
(a) and (b) only
D
(c) and (d) only
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following statements are the defects of Indian Money Market ?
(a) Profitable investment
(b) Dichotomy in Indian Money Market
(c) Financing Industry
(d) Diversity in interest rates
Choose the correct answer from the given options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(b) and (c) only
C
(a), (b) and (d) only
D
(b) and (d) only
Question 110Single Answer
Penetration pricing strategy delivers results :
(a) Where price quality association is weak
(b) When the product is perceived as a โhigh technologyโ product
(c) When the market is characterized by intensive competition
(d) When the firm uses it as an entry strategy
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(b), (c) only
B
(a), (d) only
C
(a), (c), (d) only
D
(a), (b), (c) only
Question 111Single Answer
Companies Act is governed by
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
Partnership Act
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Question 112Single Answer
Own shares purchased by a company with a view to reduce its capital is called
A
sale
B
Purchase
C
buy-back
D
Private placement
Question 113Single Answer
A company in which there is only one member is called
A
one member company
B
one person company
C
single company
D
Individual company
Question 114Single Answer
Shares which have preferential rights are called
A
Equity share
B
Preference share
C
Debenture
D
Bond
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following is the registered capital of the company ?
A
Nominal capital
B
Authorised capital
C
Share capital
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 116Single Answer
Capital which is called only at the time of winding-up of the company is called
A
Capital reserve
B
Reserve capital
C
Secure capital
D
Authorised capital
Question 117Single Answer
Which kind of preference share entitIes its holders to receive arrear of dividends of previous years ?
A
Cumulative preference share
B
Non-cumulative preference share
C
Convertible preference share
D
Non-convertible dividend share
Question 118Single Answer
Which document is an invitation offer to public to subscribe for companyโs share ?
A
Red herring prospectus
B
Prospectus
C
In lieu of prospectus
D
None of the above
Question 119Single Answer
The balance of share forfeiture account can be used to
A
Provide for discount given at the time of reissue
B
Write-off preliminary expenses
C
Write-off bad debts
D
None of the above
Question 120Single Answer
A company issued 25,000 shares and received applications for 35,000 shares. Company wants to allot shares to everyone who has applied. What will be the ratio for allotment ?
A
6 : 7
B
7: 5
C
5 : 7
D
7 : 6
Question 121Single Answer
A company issued 10,000 shares of Rs10 each. Amount is payable as Rs 2 on application, Rs 5 on allotment and Rs 3 on first and final call. A shareholder who had 1,000 shares failed to pay allotment and first call amount on due date. After a month, he paid the due amount. What will be the amount received by company against issue of shares ?
A
Rs 92,000
B
Rs 90,000
C
Rs 1,00,000
D
Rs 8,000
Question 122Single Answer
Nominal share capital is
A
That part of the authorised capital which is issued by the company
B
The amount of capital which is actually applied for by the prospective shareholders
C
The maximum amount of share capital which a company is authorised to issue
D
The amount actually paid by the shareholders
Question 123Single Answer
Money received in advance from shareholders before it is actually called-up by the directors is
A
Mebited to calls-in-advance account
B
Credited to calls-in-advance account
C
Debited to calls account
D
None of the above
Question 124Single Answer
Shares can be forfeited
A
For non-payment of call money
B
For failure to attend meetings.
C
For failure to repay the loan to the bank
D
For which shares are pledged as a security.
Question 125Single Answer
The profit on reissue of forfeited shares is transferred to
A
General reserve
B
Capital redemption reserve
C
Capital reserve
D
Revenue reserve
Question 126Single Answer
Balance of share forfeiture account is shown in the balance sheet under the item
A
Current liabilities and provisions
B
Reserves and surpluses
C
Share capital
D
Unsecured loans
Question 127Single Answer
Amox Ltd. is registered with a capital of 10,00,000 equity shares of Rs 10 each. 6,00,000 equity shares were offered for subscription to public. Applications were received for 6,00,000 shares. All calls were made and amount was duly received except final call of Rs 2 on 80,000 shares.What Will will be the amount of share capital shown in the balance sheet ?
A
Rs 60,00,000
B
Rs 58,40,000
C
Rs 5,84,000
D
Rs 6,00,000
Question 128Single Answer
Which amongst the following shares conter voting rights on its holders ?
A
Equity shares
B
Redeemable preference shares
C
Participatory preference shares
D
None of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Amount payable on shares can be received in installments by the company. What is the first installment called ?
A
Application money
B
Allotment money
C
First call money
D
Second call money
Question 130Single Answer
Total capital specified in capital clause is Rs 50,00,000 which is divided in 35,000 equity shares of Rs 100 each and 15,000, 10% preference shares of Rs100 each. The company issued 10,000 equity shares and 5,000 preference shares. The public subscribed for 9,000 equity shares and 4,500 preference shares out of the issued shares. What will be the subscribed capital amount ?
A
Rs 50,00.000
B
Rs 50,000
C
Rs 9,00,000
D
Rs 13,50,000
Question 131Single Answer
An efficient control system helps to
A
Accomplish organisational objectives
B
Boost employee morale
C
Judge accuracy of standards
D
All of the above
Question 132Single Answer
Controlling function of an organisation is
A
Forward-looking
B
Backward-looking
C
Forward as well as backward-looking
D
None of the above
Question 133Single Answer
Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of
A
Company
B
Management of the company
C
Shareholders
D
Customers
Question 134Single Answer
Budgetary control requires the preparation of
A
Training schedule
B
Budgets
C
Network diagram
D
Responsibility centres
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting ?
A
Investment centre
B
Accounting centre
C
Profit centre
D
Cost centre
Question 136Single Answer
โManagerial control implies the measurement of accomplishment against the standard and the correction of deviations to assure attainment of objectives according to plans.โ This definition has been given by
A
Koontz and Oโ Donnell
B
Peter Drucker
C
Henri Fayol
D
Chester Barnard
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following describes the nature of controlling ?
A
Goal-oriented process
B
Pervasive function
C
Continuous process
D
All of these
Question 138Single Answer
Controlling provides direction to all activities and each department and employee is governed by predetermined standards, which helps in establishing ......... among them.
A
Organisingย ย ย
B
Directing
C
Planningย ย ย ย ย ย
D
Co-ordination
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following factor(s) is/are beyond the control of an organisation ?
A
Change in government policies
B
Change in technology
C
Competition level
D
All of the above
Question 140Single Answer
Controlling is a pervasive function because it is performed
A
In all organisations whether profit making or non profit making
B
At all levels of management to ensure that the work at every stage is performed as planned
C
Goal oriented process
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is not an importance of controlling ?
A
Judging accuracy of standards
B
Effective use of resources
C
Ensures order and discipline
D
Exploitation of resources
Question 142Single Answer
Sales volume, sales expenses, advertising expenses are the part of . . . . . . . . . . . . standards.
A
Production
B
Marketing
C
HR
D
None of these
Question 143Single Answer
In controlling process, the next stage after setting performance standards is
A
Measurement of actual performance
B
Comparing actual performance with standards
C
Analysing deviations
D
Taking corrective action
Question 144Single Answer
Under controlling of HR area, corrective action must be taken for
A
High labour turnover rate
B
Low labour turnover rate
C
Zero labour turnover rate
D
Low labour absenteeism
Question 145Single Answer
Is the final step of controlling process, the managers takes corrective measures to bring back everything on track. Sometimes even after best efforts, if deviations cannot be corrected then what should be done ?
A
Revise the standards
B
Fire the managers
C
Shut the companyย ย ย
D
None of these
Question 146Single Answer
'Taking corrective actionโ is ........ step in process of controlling.
A
First
B
Second
C
Thirdย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย
D
Last
Question 147Single Answer
Planning is guided by past experience and corrective actions taken in the controlling process.Thus, it is regarded as
A
Backward-looking function
B
Forward-looking function
C
Pervasive function
D
None of the above
Question 148Single Answer
In controlling process, while setting performance standards, standards can be set
A
In quantitative terms only
B
In qualitative terms only
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
In subjective terms
Question 149Single Answer
Which standard(s) is/are used in production ?
A
Quality Standards
B
Quantity Standards
C
Cost Standards
D
All of these
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following is the technique of measurement of performance ?