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Objective Questions

Latest CHB JE Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : English Language, General Knowledge, Mathematics, Mental ability, Computer Proficiency, Civil

Question Bank CHB JE (Civil) Exam - English
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English Language

Question 1Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A
    a
  2. B
    an
  3. C
    some
  4. D
    the
Question 2Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
  1. A
    Steal the car
  2. B
    You should have the stolen car
  3. C
    Get someone to steal the car
  4. D
    They have stolen the car
Question 3Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A
    The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B
    the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C
    to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D
    The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
Passage :
Direction :  Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A
     presented , stay
  2. B
    introduced , keep
  3. C
    announce , make
  4. D
    created , let
  5. E
    proclaimed , hold
Question 5Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
  1. A
    liabilities
  2. B
    responsibilities
  3. C
    estates
  4. D
    profits

General Knowledge

Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance        
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance 
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A
    Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B
    Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C
    Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D
    Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
Who is the current Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission ?
  1. A
    Arvind Saxena
  2. B
    Manoj Soni
  3. C
    Bhim Sain Bassi
  4. D
    Vinay Mittal
Question 10Single Answer
In which year was NITI Aayog formed ?
  1. A
    2014
  2. B
    2015
  3. C
    2016
  4. D
    2017

Mathematics

Question 11Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A
    51:52
  2. B
    52:53
  3. C
    51:53
  4. D
    52:55
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A
    √49
  2. B
    0.125
  3. C
    √2
  4. D
    22/7
Question 13Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A
    35600  
  2. B
    34500
  3. C
    9630
  4. D
    93600
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A
    318
  2. B
    198
  3. C
    213 
  4. D
    206
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A
    558   
  2. B
    718
  3. C
    628  
  4. D
    None of these

Mental ability

Question 16Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A
    Two
  2. B
    Three
  3. C
    Five
  4. D
    Four
  5. E
    None of these
Question 17Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A
    True
  2. B
    False
  3. C
    Uncertain
  4. D
    None
Question 18Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A
    A
  2. B
    E
  3. C
    T
  4. D
    X
  5. E
    Y
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A
    X
  2. B
    W
  3. C
    I
  4. D
    H
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A
    SUM
  2. B
    BIG
  3. C
    Both BIG and THE
  4. D
    FOR
  5. E
    Both FOR and BIG

Computer Proficiency

Question 21Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
  1. A
    Window
  2. B
    Pop-up menu
  3. C
    Message box
  4. D
    Taskbar
Question 22Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
  1. A
    a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
  2. B
    a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
  3. C
    both a and b above mentioned
  4. D
    A software
  5. E
    None of these
Question 23Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
  1. A
    A window that is minimized
  2. B
    The window currently receiving user input
  3. C
    Any window currently open
  4. D
    The window opened first
Question 24Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
  1. A
    An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
  2. B
    A computer operating system
  3. C
    A spreadsheet application
  4. D
    A database management system
Question 25Single Answer
An application is
  1. A
    word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
  2. B
    computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
  3. C
    Both a and b above mentioned
  4. D
    a document
  5. E
    None of these

Civil

Question 26Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A
    Maximum daily demand 
  2. B
    Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C
    Average demand 
  4. D
    Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 27Single Answer
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A
    Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B
    Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C
    Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D
    Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Question 28Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A
    40.5m3
  2. B
    50m3
  3. C
    75m3
  4. D
    94.7m3
Question 29Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A
    Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B
    Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C
    Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D
    Detention time in the tank
Question 30Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    3 and 4 only   
Question 31Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A
    3.6 mg/l
  2. B
    13.6 mg/l
  3. C
    33.6 mg/l
  4. D
    53.6 mg/l
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 33Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A
    the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
Question 34Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A
    5 m2
  2. B
    25 m2
  3. C
    10 m2
  4. D
    20 m2 
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 36Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    1 and 3
  3. C
    3 and 4
  4. D
    1 and 4
Question 37Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A
    Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B
    Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C
    reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D
    Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 38Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A
    8.6 
  2. B
    7.9 
  3. C
    5.4 
  4. D
    4.5 
Question 39Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 40Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 41Single Answer
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
Question 42Single Answer
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
  1. A
    0.5m
  2. B
    1.25m
  3. C
    2.75m
  4. D
    4.25m
Question 43Single Answer
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
  1. A
    7.5% 
  2. B
    9.5% 
  3. C
    13.5% 
  4. D
    16.5% 
Question 44Single Answer
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
  1. A
    10 h 32 m 40 s AM
  2. B
    11h 32 m 39s PM
  3. C
    0 h 32 m 39s PM 
  4. D
    11 h 32 m 39s AM
Question 45Single Answer
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
  1. A
    10 m
  2. B
    15 m
  3. C
    20 m
  4. D
    25 m
Question 46Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 47Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 48Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A
    Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B
    Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C
    Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D
    Ammonia
Question 49Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A
    Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B
    High silt content in brick clay
  3. C
    High porosity of bricks
  4. D
    Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 50Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
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