Question for CII IPAT 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest CII IPAT Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Cognitive Abilities, Professional Abilities, Civil Engineering, General Science

Question Bank CII IPATE Exam - English

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Cognitive Abilities

Question 1Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 2Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 3Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 4Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 5Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 6Single Answer

‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to

A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy

Question 7Single Answer

'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to

A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these

Question 8Single Answer

Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?

A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger

Question 9Single Answer

'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to

A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these

Question 10Single Answer

'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to

A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?

A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these

Question 12Single Answer

Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?

A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these

Question 13Single Answer

Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?

A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice

Question 14Single Answer

Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to

A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these

Question 15Single Answer

5 : 7 : : ? : 28

A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these

Question 16Single Answer

If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:

A
28 : 25
B
26 : 25
C
3 : 2
D
3 : 1

Question 17Single Answer

What is the sum of 130+125+191 ?

A
335
B
456
C
446
D
426

Question 18Single Answer

, then x is equal to

Question 19Single Answer

A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years it will become eight times ?

A
30
B
45
C
50
D
60

Question 20Single Answer

Compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 102. The simple interest on the same sum for the same rate and for the same period will be

A
Rs. 99
B
Rs. 101
C
Rs. 100
D
Rs. 98

Professional Abilities

Question 21Single Answer

Section 2(a) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A
Bailable offence
B
Non-Bailable offence
C
Cognizable offence
D
Non-cognizable offence

Question 22Single Answer

Under section 138 of the Act, territorial jurisdiction does not arise on the following places

A
Where cheque is issued
B
In the local limit where the cheque is presented in the bank
C
Where the cheque is dishonored by the bank
D
From where the notice to pay the amount is issued

Question 23Single Answer

What are the essential ingredients of a ‘complaint’ ?

A
There must be an allegation in the complaint
B
The allegation must be about the commission of an offence
C
The complaint must be made to the magistrate
D
All of the above

Question 24Single Answer

Which is not a negotiable instrument ?

A
Bond
B
Promissory note
C
Bill of Exchange
D
Cheque

Question 25Single Answer

Section 13 of the code of criminal procedure defines

A
Metropolitan Area
B
Assistant Public Procsecutors
C
Special Judicial Magistrate
D
None of these

Question 26Single Answer

Negotiable instruments Act contains ………….. Sections.

A
140
B
150
C
147
D
211

Question 27Single Answer

What are the processes to procure personal attendance of a person in the court ?

A
Summons
B
Warrant of Arrest
C
Attachment of property
D
Above all

Question 28Single Answer

Section 2(c) of the code of criminal procedure defines

A
Non-Bailable offence
B
Cognizable offence
C
Non-cognizable offence
D
Both B and C

Question 29Single Answer

What are the kinds of warrant ?

A
Bailable warrants
B
Non-Bailable warrants
C
Both A and B
D
None of these

Question 30Single Answer

What is the difference between summon and warrant ?

A
Issuing of summon is a primary stage. Generally warrants are issued if the attendance of an offender cannot be procured through summons
B
A summon is issued at the first instance in summons cases as well as in a warrant case. But warrant cannot be issued at the first instance in summons cases.
C
Both A and B
D
None of these

Question 31Single Answer

Who is Father of Scientific Management ?

A
Henry Fayol
B
Elton Mayo
C
Chester Bernard
D
F. W. Taylor

Question 32Single Answer

Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –

A
Promoters
B
Board of Directors
C
Debenture holders
D
Government

Question 33Single Answer

Bonus Shares are issued to –

A
Equity Shareholders
B
Preference Shareholders
C
Debenture Holders
D
Secured Creditors

Question 34Single Answer

Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?

A
Subrogation
B
Utmost good faith
C
Contribution
D
Average clause

Question 35Single Answer

Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –

A
Capital expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure
C
Deferred revenue expenditure
D
Capital loss

Question 36Single Answer

EPS is calculated as –

A
EBIT / Equity shares
B
EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C
EAT / Equity shares
D
EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares

Question 37Single Answer

Which is the oldest form of organisation ?

A
Line
B
Line and staff
C
Functional
D
Matrix

Question 38Single Answer

In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?

A
To machines
B
To paper work
C
To man
D
To production

Question 39Single Answer

Standard costing is a technique of –

A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Coordination
D
Control

Question 40Single Answer

‘Table A’ is an alternative to –

A
Prospectus
B
Articles of Association
C
Memorandum of Association
D
None of the above

Civil Engineering

Question 41Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 42Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 43Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 44Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 45Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 46Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 47Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 48Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 49Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 50Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

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Civil Engineering

Question 51Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 52Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 53Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 54Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 55Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 58Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 59Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 60Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 61Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3

Question 63Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5

Question 64Single Answer

Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?

A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5

Question 65Single Answer

Consider the following statements:Presence of Na₂O and K₂O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 66Single Answer

The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is

A
625
B
480
C
330
D
250

Question 67Single Answer

Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between

A
A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B
A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate

Question 68Single Answer

Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 69Single Answer

Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl₂ in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 2

Question 70Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 71Single Answer

Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 72Single Answer

What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?

A
ASCU treatment
B
Abel’s process
C
Creosoting
D
Tarring

Question 73Single Answer

Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 74Single Answer

Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 75Single Answer

As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be

A
75 kg/cm³
B
100kg/cm³
C
125 kg/cm³
D
150 kg/cm³

Question 76Single Answer

When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as

A
English bond
B
Single Flemish bond
C
Double Flemish bond
D
Rat-trap bond

Question 77Single Answer

I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4

Question 78Single Answer

Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its

A
Alumina content
B
Iron oxide content
C
Free lime content
D
Durability under sea water

Question 79Single Answer

The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 80Single Answer

A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 10⁵ N/mm². The extension of the rod in mm would be:

A
3
2
B
2
3
C
3
D
1
3

Question 81Single Answer

Two different liquids are flowing through different pipes of the same diameter. In the first pipe, the flow is laminar with centerline velocity,V_max.1,Whereas in the second pipe, the flow is turbulent. For turbulent flow, the average velocity is 0.82 times the centerline velocity,v_max.2 . For equal volumetric flow rates in both the pipes, the ratio V_max.1/V_max.2(up to two decimal place) is_____.

A
1.64
B
2.45
C
0.25
D
1.44

Question 82Single Answer

Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.3. Then the ratio of Young’s modulus to bulk modulus is

A
0.6
B
0.8
C
1.2
D
1.4

Question 83Single Answer

For a gas phase cracking reaction A→B+C at 300℃ , the Gibbs free energy of the reaction at this temperature is ∆G°= -2750J/mol . The pressure is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The universal gas constant =8.314J/mol. K. The fractional molar conversion of A at equilibrium is________.

A
0.44
B
0.50
C
0.64
D
0.80

Question 84Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.In a ductile material elastic deformation is more predominant than plastic one.
2.Brittleness is not an absolute property of a metal.
3.Rate of loading has no influence in changing the behavior of a metal from ‘ductile’ to ‘brittle’ at low temperatures
4.Under hydrostatic compression, a brittle metal may change into a ductile one.

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4

Question 85Single Answer

The total deflection of a structure when subjected simultaneously to different sets of loading is equal to the sum of the deflections under each such set of loads as if acting separately on the structure. Which one the following justifies this statement?

A
Elastic limit is not exceeded
B
Elastic limit including buckling is not exceeded
C
Limit state is not exceeded
D
Proportional limit without buckling is not exceeded

Question 86Single Answer

A rectangular bar of cross-sectional area a is subjected to an axial tensile load P. The maximum shear stress will occur on a plane at X° to any normal cross-section where X° is

A
90°
B
27°
C
180°
D
45°

Question 87Single Answer

A solid circular shaft has been subjected to a pure torsion moment. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point would be

A
1 : 2
B
1 : 1
C
2 : 3
D
2 : 1

Question 88Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct?
1.All load carrying members transmit load through basic modes of tension, compression, torsion and shear only.
2.Beams carry transverse loads.
3.Combined loading is a complicated loading.
4.Nature of internal forces decides the aspect of combines loading.

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4

Question 89Single Answer

Identify the WRONG statement amongst the following:

A
steam distillation is used for mixtures that re immiscible with water.
B
Vacuum distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
C
Steam distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
D
vacuum distillation columns have larger diameter as compared to atmospheric columns for the same throughout

Question 90Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct?
1.Experimental results on thin-walled tubes show that maximum normal stress theory is valid.
2.Normal-stress theory is valid in case of brittle materials.
3.In case of pure shear, St. Venant’s theory is more valid than other theories.
4.Tresca’s theory is very closely substantiated by experimental results.
5.In maximum stress theory, the yield locus is a hexagon.

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 4 and 5
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

General Science

Question 91Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 92Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 93Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 94Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 95Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 96Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 97Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 98Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 99Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 100Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

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