Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 15Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 16Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 17Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 18Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 19Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 20Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 21Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 22Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 23Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 24Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 25Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Reasoning
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 28Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 29Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 31Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 33Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 36Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 40Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 41Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 42Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 43Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 46Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 48Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 50Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
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Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 68Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 69Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 70Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 71Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 72Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 73Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 74Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 75Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
General English
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Electrical
Question 101Single Answer
When a very small amount of higher conducting metal is added to a conductor, its conductivity will
A
increase
B
decrease
C
remain the same
D
increase or decrease depending on the impurity
Question 102Single Answer
An electrically balanced atom has 30 protons in its nucleus and 2 electrons in its outermost shell. The materials made of such atom is
A
a conductor
B
an insulator
C
a semiconductor
D
a superconductor
Question 103Single Answer
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a doped semiconductor is
A
always positive
B
always negative
C
zero
D
positive or negative depending upon the level of doping
Question 104Single Answer
In the slice processing of an integrated circuit
A
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide remains
B
components are formed in the areas where silicon dioxide has been removed
C
the diffusing elements diffuse through silicon dioxide
D
only on diffusion process is used
Question 105Single Answer
Permanent magnet loses the magnetic behaviour when heated because of
1. atomic vibration
2. dipole vibration
3. realignment of dipoles
Which of the above are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 106Single Answer
A Zener regulator has an input voltage varying between 20 V and 30 V. The desired regulated voltage is 12 V, while the load varies between 140 and 10k The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
A
3.3
B
6.6
C
36.6
D
93.3
Question 107Single Answer
A short in any type of circuit (series, parallel or combination) causes the total circuit
1. resistance to decrease
2. power to decreases
3. current to increase
Which of the above are correct?
A
2 and 3
B
2 and 4
C
1 and 4
D
1 and 3
Question 108Single Answer
An air-cored solenoid of 250 turns has a cross-sectional area A = 80 cm2 and length l = 100 cm. The value of its inductance is
A
0.425 mH
B
0.628 mH
C
0.751 mH
D
0.904 mH
Question 109Single Answer
The current in a coil changes uniformly from 10 A to 1 A in half a second. A voltmeter connected across the coil gives a reading of 36 V. The self-inductance of the coil is
A
0.5 H
B
1 H
C
2 H
D
4 H
Question 110Single Answer
In a mutually coupled circuit, the primary current is reduced from 4A to zero in 10 s. A voltage of 40000 V is observed across the secondary. The mutual inductance between the coils is
A
100 H
B
10 H
C
0.1 H
D
0.01 H
Question 111Single Answer
A semiconductor differs from a conductor in that it has
A
Only one path for the free electrons in the valence band
B
Only one path for holes in the conduction band
C
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an ordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an extraordinary path in the valence band, respectively
D
Two paths followed by free electrons and holes, one an extraordinary path in the conduction band and the other one an ordinary path in valence band, respectively
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following circuits is used for converting a sine wave into a square wave?
A
Monostablemultivibrator
B
Bistablemultivibrator
C
Schmitt trigger circuit
D
Darlington complementary pair
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following elements of electrical engineering cannot be analyzed using Ohm’s law ?
A
Capacitors
B
Inductors
C
Transistors
D
Resistance
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following statements: A power supply uses bridge rectifier with a capacitor input filter. If one of the diodes is defective, then
1. The dc load voltage will be lower than its expected value
2. Ripple frequency will be lower than its expected value
3. The surge current will increase considerably
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 115Single Answer
Three identical amplifiers each having a voltage gain of 50 are cascaded. The open loop voltage gain of the combined amplifier is
A
71 dB
B
82 dB
C
91 dB
D
102 dB
Question 116Single Answer
A clamper circuit
1. Adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. Does not change the shape of the waveform
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 117Single Answer
If a carrier of 100% modulated AM is suppressed before transmission, the power saving is nearly
A
50%
B
67%
C
100%
D
125%
Question 118Single Answer
When the modulating frequency is doubled the modulation index is halved and the modulating voltage remains constant. This happens when the modulating system is
A
AM
B
PM
C
FM
D
Delta Modulation
Question 119Single Answer
The four basic elements in a PLL are loop filter, loop amplifier, VCO and
A
Up converter
B
Down converter
C
Phase detector
D
Frequency multiplier
Question 120Single Answer
In a frequency modulated (FM) system, when the audio frequency is 500 Hz and audio frequency voltage is 2.4 V, the frequency deviation is 4.8 kHz. If the audio frequency voltage is now increased to 7.2 V then what is the new value of deviation?
A
0.6 kHz
B
3.6 kHz
C
12.4 kHz
D
14.4 kHz
Question 121Single Answer
If a square matrix of order 100 has exactly 15 distinct eigenvalues, then the degree of the minimum polynomial is
A
At least 15
B
At most 15
C
Always 15
D
Exactly 100
Question 122Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the core shall be of
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 123Single Answer
Soft magnetic materials should have
A
Large saturation magnetization and large permeability
B
Low saturation magnetization and large permeability
C
Large saturation magnetization and low permeability
D
Low saturation magnetization and low permeability
Question 124Single Answer
Orbital magnetic moment of an electron, in an atom, is of the order of
A
0.1 Bohr magneton
B
1.0 Bohr magneton
C
10 Bohr magneton
D
100 Bohr magneton
Question 125Single Answer
When the temperature of a ferromagnetic material exceeds the Curie temperature, it behaves similar to a
A
Diamagnetic material
B
Ferrimagnetic material
C
Paramagnetic material
D
Antiferromagnetic material
Question 126Single Answer
What is the correct sequence of the following materials in ascending order of their resistivity ?
1. Iron
2. Silver
3. Constantan
4. Mica
5. Aluminium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A
2, 5, 1, 3 and 4
B
4, 5, 3, 1 and 2
C
2, 3, 1, 5 and 4
D
4, 5, 1, 3 and 2
Question 127Single Answer
In the first Cauer network, with a pole at infinity, the first element must be
A
Series capacitor
B
Series inductor
C
Shunt capacitor
D
Shunt inductor
Question 128Single Answer
The total magnetic moment
1. is called saturation magnetization.
2. depends on the number of magnetic dipoles per unit volume, the instant electric current and the area of the current loop.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 129Single Answer
Susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is 1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Dependent on the temperature
4. Independent of the temperature
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 130Single Answer
Superconductivity is a material property associated with
A
Changing shape by stretching
B
Stretching without breaking
C
A loss of thermal resistance
D
A loss of electrical resistance
Question 131Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 132Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 133Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 134Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 135Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 136Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 137Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 138Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 139Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 140Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 141Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 142Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 143Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 144Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 145Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 146Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 147Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 148Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 149Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 150Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 151Single Answer
Fuses have got advantages of
A
cheapest type of protection
B
inverse time - current characteristic
C
no maintenance
D
current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
E
all of the above
Question 152Single Answer
The power transmitted will be maximum when
A
line reactance is high
B
corona losses are minimum
C
sending end voltage is more
D
receiving end voltage is more
Question 153Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
None of these
Question 154Single Answer
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
A
only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
B
only the core loss is ignored
C
both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
D
only the no - load copper loss is ignored
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
A
Peak voltmeter
B
Series resistance mircro - ammeter
C
Resistance potential divider
D
All of these
Question 156Single Answer
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
A
reduces surge impedance Z0
B
increases phase shift β
C
increase in α
D
all of the above
Question 157Single Answer
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
A
weight of the conductor
B
current through the conductor
C
atmospheric temperature
D
ice deposited on the conductor
Question 158Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
A
critical absolute temperature
B
square of critical absolute temperature
C
square of T0
D
none of these
Question 159Single Answer
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
A
corona
B
switching voltages
C
lightning voltage
D
all of these
Question 160Single Answer
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
A
capacitors
B
inductors
C
resistors
D
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end
Question 161Single Answer
AC network analyser is employed for solving the problems of
A
load flow
B
load flow and stability
C
load flow and short - circuit
D
load flow, stability and short - circuit
Question 162Single Answer
The change in excitation in an alternator connected to an infinite line provides a corresponding change in
A
terminal voltage
B
speed of rotor
C
power generated
D
power factor
Question 163Single Answer
Different types of insulators used for transmission lines are
A
pin type only
B
suspension type only
C
strain type only
D
pin type, suspension type and shackle type
Question 164Single Answer
The conductor connecting consumer's terminals to the distributor is called the
A
feeder
B
distributor
C
service main
D
none of the above
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following method or techniques can be used for the measurement of high d.c. voltages ?
A
Generating voltmeter
B
Electrostatic voltmeter
C
Peak voltmeter
D
Half effect generators
Question 166Single Answer
The ripple voltage in dc output is small if
A
frequency of supply voltage is small
B
the filtering capacitor is small
C
load current is small
D
none of these
Question 167Single Answer
The voltage measurements using uniform spark gap are
A
affected by dust particles
B
affected by polarity of supply
C
affected by temperature
D
none of these
Question 168Single Answer
Neutral earthing is provided for
A
the safety of personnel from electric shock
B
the safety of equipment and personnel against lightning and voltage surges
C
reducing the voltage stress on lines and equipment with respect to earth under various operating and fault conditions
D
controlling the earth fault currents for protective relaying
E
both (c) and (d)
Question 169Single Answer
The function of Lightning arrester is
A
to limiting the short - circuit fault current
B
to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
C
to reduce arcing
D
none of these
Question 170Single Answer
In which of the following cases are delay fuses used ?
A
For the protection of light circuits
B
For the protection of power out - let circuits
C
For the protection of fluorescent lamps
D
For the protection of motors
Question 171Single Answer
In order to improve the voltage profile of the line, compensation is resorted by providing
A
capacitors at the receiving end
B
reactors at the receiving end
C
resistors at the receiving end
D
none of these
Question 172Single Answer
Skin effect in conductor is proportional to
A
(diameter of conductor) 1/2
B
diameter of conductor
C
(diameter of conductor)2
D
(diameter of conductor)4
Question 173Single Answer
The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
A
compensate for skin effect
B
take care of surges
C
provide additional mechanical strength
D
reduce inductance
Question 174Single Answer
A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if it is a
A
Short length fault
B
Medium length line fault
C
Long length line fault
D
None of these
Question 175Single Answer
Protective resistance to be connected between the sphere gap and the test equipment is required while measuring
A
power frequency and higher frequency a.c. voltage
B
power frequency and impulse voltage
C
all kinds of voltages
D
none of these
Question 176Single Answer
Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to
A
compensate the voltage drop
B
reduce line loss
C
limit short circuit current
D
improve load power factor
Question 177Single Answer
The passive element that is used as interconnecting element for the stable operation of interconnected system is
A
reactor
B
resistor
C
capacitor
D
resistor and capacitor
Question 178Single Answer
Corona loss in a transmission line is dependent on
A
diameter of the conductor
B
material of the conductor
C
height of the conductor
D
none of these
Question 179Single Answer
In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used
A
to act as circuit breaking medium only
B
for circuit breaking and providing insulation
C
for providing insulation only
D
for none of the above purposes
Question 180Single Answer
Skin effect is
A
proportional to frequency
B
proportional to square of frequency
C
inversely proportional to frequency
D
independent of frequency
Question 181Single Answer
Rated making capacity of breaker is equal to
A
X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
B
2.55 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
C
1 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
D
none of these
Question 182Single Answer
The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
A
reduction in transmission losses
B
reduction in time of transmission
C
increase in system reliability
D
none of the above
Question 183Single Answer
Bus - coupler is very essential in
A
single bus - bar arrangement
B
ring bus - bar arrangement
C
double bus, double breaker arrangement
D
main and transfer bus
Question 184Single Answer
With the rise in temperature, the insulation resistivity
A
remains unchanged
B
decreases linearly
C
increases linearly
D
reduces exponentially
Question 185Single Answer
The effect of bonding the cable is
A
to increase the effective resistance and inductance
B
to increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance
C
to reduce the effective resistance and inductance
D
to reduce the effective resistance but increase the inductance
Question 186Single Answer
Increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines causes
A
increase in stress and length
B
decrease in stress and length
C
decrease in stress but increase in length
D
none of the above
Question 187Single Answer
The insulation resistance of the cable decreases with the
A
increase in length of cable
B
decrease in length of cable
C
electric stresses
D
none of these
Question 188Single Answer
Corona has the disadvantage(s) of
A
power loss
B
interference with neighbouring communication circuits
C
introducing the harmonics, predominately third harmonics, into the transmission lines
D
all of the above
Question 189Single Answer
In a load duration curve for an intergrated power system the uppermost crest represents the energy contributed by
A
base power stations
B
major thermal stations
C
peaking hydro or gas turbine stations
D
non - conventional power stations
Question 190Single Answer
At bridge crossing and near the railway track ternary lead cables are used because they
A
are of high tensile strength
B
are of low coefficient of thermal expansion
C
are of low specific gravity
D
can withstand shocks and vibrations
Question 191Single Answer
The heat produced at the contact point owing to flow of electric current is least affected by
A
temperature of the surrounding medium
B
contact resistance
C
magnitude of electric current flowing
D
duration of flow of current
Question 192Single Answer
A stationary alternator should not be connected to the live bus - bar because
A
it is likely to operate as a synchronous motor
B
it will get short - circuited
C
it will reduce bus - bar voltage
D
all of the above
Question 193Single Answer
In a transmission system the feeder supplies power to
A
transformer substations (step - up)
B
service mains
C
distributors
D
all of the above
Question 194Single Answer
For a given amount of power to be transmitted over a certain distance with fixed power loss, the volume of copper required is
A
directly proportional to voltage
B
inversely proportional to voltage
C
inversely proportional to the square of voltage and pf of the load
D
directly proportional to the square of the voltage and pf of the load
Question 195Single Answer
Power despatch through a line can be increased by
A
installing series capacitors
B
installing shunt capacitors
C
installing series reactor
D
installing shunt reactor
Question 196Single Answer
In the figure shown which curve represents the variation of cost of generation per kWh with the load factor, for a thermal power plant ?
A
Curve A
B
Curve B
C
Curve C
D
Curve D
Question 197Single Answer
Under 'no load conditions the current in a transmission line is because of
A
capacitance effect
B
corona effect
C
proximity effect
D
back flow from earth
Question 198Single Answer
The only advantage of corona is that it
A
produces a pleasing luminous glow
B
makes line current sinusoidal
C
works as a safety valve for surges
D
ozone gas is produced
Question 199Single Answer
Earth wires are made of
A
copper
B
aluminium
C
iron
D
galvanised stranded steel
Question 200Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The demand factor of the consumer is
5.015 =?
and 10k The maximum resistance in series with the unregulated source and Zener diode would be
X rated symmetrical breaking capacity