Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 14Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 15Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 16Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 17Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 18Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 19Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 20Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 21Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 22Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 23Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 24Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 25Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Reasoning
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 28Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 29Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 31Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 33Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 36Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 40Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 41Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 42Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 43Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 44Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 46Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 48Single Answer
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A
P
B
Q
C
B
D
K
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A
None
B
One
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than Four
Question 50Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
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Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 67Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 68Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 69Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 70Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 71Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 72Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 73Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 74Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 75Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
General English
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Mechanical
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 104Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 105Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 106Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 107Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 108Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 110Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 112Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 113Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 114Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 115Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 116Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 117Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 118Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 119Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 120Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 121Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 122Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 123Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 124Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 125Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 126Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 127Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 128Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 129Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 130Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 131Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 132Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 134Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 135Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 137Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 138Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 139Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 140Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 141Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 142Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 143Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 145Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 147Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 148Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 152Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 153Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 154Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 155Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 156Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 157Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 158Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 159Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 160Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 161Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 162Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 163Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 164Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 165Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 166Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 168Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 169Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 170Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 171Single Answer
Aqua ammonia solution used in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is a solution of ammonia in ________ .
A
CF3
B
LiBr
C
H2O2
D
H2O
Question 172Single Answer
Coated electrodes are used in ______ .
A
gas tungsten arc welding
B
submerged arc welding
C
tungsten insert gas welding
D
shielded metal arc welding
Question 173Single Answer
Where is air cycle refrigeration commonly used ?
A
Domestic refrigerator
B
Cold storage
C
Aircraft conditioning
D
Car air conditioning
Question 174Single Answer
________, is not a water tube boiler .
A
Benson boiler
B
Babcock-Wilcox boiler
C
Stirling boiler
D
Scotch marine
Question 175Single Answer
Stoke is another unit of -
A
kinematic viscosityy
B
velocity gradient
C
Shear stress
D
dynamic viscosit
Question 176Single Answer
For a refrigerating machine, capacity is expressed as ______ .
A
the lowest temperature attained
B
inside volume of the cabinet
C
gross weight of the machine
D
rate of heat extraction from the space being cooled
Question 177Single Answer
The value of quality or dryness fraction of a substance in saturated liquid-vapor mixture is ________ .
A
1
B
2
C
Zero
D
between Zero and 1
Question 178Single Answer
Uniform flow is the type of flow where in velocity at any given time ________- with respect to space .
A
Decreases
B
Does not change
C
Increases
D
Changes
Question 179Single Answer
______ falls under the category of a water tube boiler .
A
Locomotive boiler
B
Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
D
LaMont boiler
Question 180Single Answer
Chaplets are used in ________ .
A
forging
B
casting
C
welding
D
extrusion
Question 181Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure ?
A
Pa
B
Bar
C
N/m²
D
Joule
Question 182Single Answer
What was the first refrigerant used in continuous refrigeration system ?
A
Ammonia
B
Water
C
Air
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 183Single Answer
For a 2 m deep swimming pool, pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the pool is ________ kPa .
A
22
B
19.6
C
11
D
12
Question 184Single Answer
Pressure measurement is done by ____. by measuring heat loss from a heated wire .
A
A pirani gauge
B
a manometer
C
a barometer
D
an orifice meter
Question 185Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, the fluid which enters the boiler is :
A
water
B
steam
C
mercury
D
oxygen
Question 186Single Answer
Percentage elongating measured during tensile testing indicates _____ .
A
malleability
B
fatigue strength
C
creep
D
ductility
Question 187Single Answer
For a given centrifugal pump, discharge varies _______ with speed .
A
fifth power of
B
linearly
C
inversely
D
square root of
Question 188Single Answer
Foaming is a phenomenon that occurs in the boiler feed water due to _____ .
A
nitrogen peroxide
B
manganese
C
sodium chloride
D
oil
Question 189Single Answer
Compounding of a steam turbine is done to ______ .
A
balance the rotor
B
reduce the rotor speed
C
reduce the blade friction
D
connect the shaft
Question 190Single Answer
Any change in entropy could be achieved by changing______ .
A
velocity
B
heat
C
acceleration
D
mass
Question 191Single Answer
Smoke emitting from a lighted cigarette represents ________ .
A
point
B
pathline
C
streakline
D
streamline
Question 192Single Answer
The splash system is NOT used to lubricate _______ .
A
tappets
B
camshafts
C
gear teeth and roller bearings
D
piston rings
Question 193Single Answer
A dead weight tester is used widely for ______ .
A
producing high pressures
B
accurate measurement of loads
C
calibration of another equipment
D
testing magnitude of the given weight
Question 194Single Answer
_______ CANNOT be classified as inversion (s) of a single-slider crank mechanism .
A
Elliptical trammel
B
Whitworth quick-return mechanism
C
Oscillating cylinder engine
D
Crank and slotted-lever mechanism
Question 195Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of Rankine cycle ?
A
Pump
B
Compressor
C
Boiler
D
Turbine
Question 196Single Answer
A power plant that uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for necessary power generation is known as __________ cycle power plant .
A
combined
B
bottom
C
generation
D
topping
Question 197Single Answer
In the context of properties of steel, which of the following statement is highly relevant ?
A
Presence of carbon contents imparts strength to iron
B
Presence of carbon does not influence the heat-treatment process
C
Presence of manganese decreases strength.
D
Presence of sulphide improves corrosion resistance
Question 198Single Answer
Those pumps employed for mud related work have ______ type of impeller .
A
an open
B
a two-side shrouded
C
a double-suction
D
a one-side shrouded
Question 199Single Answer
If the oil viscosity increased, then the wear loss _________ .