Question for CIL Management Trainee (Coal Preparation) 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest CIL MT Coal Preparation Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Reasoning, Numerical Ability, English Language, General Awareness, Professional Knowledge

Question Bank CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - English

Reasoning

Question 1Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 2Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 3Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 4Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 5Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 6Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 7Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 8Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 9Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 10Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 11Single Answer

If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?

A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these

Question 12Single Answer

How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these

Question 13Single Answer

Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .

A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong

Question 14Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.

Question 15Single Answer

How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 21Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 22Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 23Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 24Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 25Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Numerical Ability

Question 26Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 28Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 29Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 30Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 31Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 32Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 33Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 34Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 35Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 36Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 37Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 38Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 39Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 40Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 41Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 42Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 43Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 44Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 45Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

Question 46Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?

A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these

Question 47Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?

A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A

Question 48Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?

A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%

Question 49Single Answer

Passage :

Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by

A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%

Question 50Single Answer

Passage :

Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi

The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is

A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75

Important Questions Package

CIL MT Coal Preparation Exam Online Question Bank Package

Buy CIL MT Coal Preparation Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in CIL MT Coal Preparation question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.

+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download

Sr.	Package Name	Amount
1.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
2.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - Hindi Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
3.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹101 ~~[₹500]~~
4.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - English Description : 2000 Question with Answer	₹151 ~~[₹500]~~
5.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
6.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam - English Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)	₹151 ~~[₹450]~~
7.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹450 ~~[₹800]~~
8.	CIL Management Trainee Coal Preparation Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹390 ~~[₹600]~~

English Language

Question 51Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 52Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 53Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 54Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 55Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 56Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 57Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 58Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 59Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 60Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 61Single Answer

Why did break the vase?

A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him

Question 62Single Answer

Mariam was writing a note to her boss.

A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss

Question 63Single Answer

The baby really enjoys that music.

A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.

Question 64Single Answer

The weather disrupted the final match.

A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.

Question 65Single Answer

The management committee is required to publish a report every year.

A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.

Question 66Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 67Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 68Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 69Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 70Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

General Awareness

Question 76Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 77Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 78Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 79Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 80Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 81Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 82Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 83Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 84Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 85Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 86Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 87Single Answer

What is the national game of the United States of America ?

A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball

Question 88Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 89Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 90Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 91Single Answer

Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi

Question 92Single Answer

What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?

A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems

Question 93Single Answer

Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?

A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology

Question 94Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 95Single Answer

The Western Ghats are also known as:

A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis

Question 96Single Answer

Which country's Business Secretary Peter Kyle visited India regarding FTA implementation?

A
Germany
B
France
C
United Kingdom
D
Australia

Question 97Single Answer

The India-UK discussions mainly focused on:

A
Defence Pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Space Cooperation
D
Climate Treaty

Question 98Single Answer

Which Grand Slam tournament was being played during the first week of June 2026?

A
Wimbledon
B
US Open
C
Australian Open
D
French Open (Roland-Garros)

Question 99Single Answer

The South Coast Railway (SCoR) became India's:

A
19th Railway Zone
B
17th Railway Zone
C
18th Railway Zone
D
16th Railway Zone

Question 100Single Answer

Who launched the World Yogasana Championship 2026 initiative?

A
Kiren Rijiju
B
Dharmendra Pradhan
C
Ashwini Vaishnaw
D
Mansukh Mandaviya

Professional Knowledge

Question 101Single Answer

What is the primary objective of coal preparation?

A
To increase the calorific value
B
To reduce sulfur content
C
To remove impurities and improve quality
D
To increase the moisture content

Question 102Single Answer

Which of the following is not a key benefit of coal preparation?

A
Reduces transportation cost
B
Improves boiler efficiency
C
Increases ash content
D
Enhances market value

Question 103Single Answer

Coal preparation is crucial in which of the following industries?

A
Textile
B
Cement
C
Power generation
D
Food processing

Question 104Single Answer

Which process is primarily used to reduce sulfur content in coal?

A
Jigging
B
Washing
C
Froth flotation
D
Crushing

Question 105Single Answer

The coal preparation plant is also known as:

A
Coal refinery
B
Coal beneficiation plant
C
Coal mining plant
D
Coal synthesizer

Question 106Single Answer

The rank of coal is determined based on:

A
Ash and sulfur content
B
Moisture and volatile matter
C
Degree of metamorphism
D
Color and hardness

Question 107Single Answer

Which of the following coal types has the highest carbon content?

A
Lignite
B
Bituminous
C
Anthracite
D
Peat

Question 108Single Answer

What is the major component of coal?

A
Carbon
B
Oxygen
C
Sulfur
D
Hydrogen

Question 109Single Answer

Which property determines the grindability of coal?

A
Sulfur content
B
Calorific value
C
Hardgrove Index
D
Proximate analysis

Question 110Single Answer

Proximate analysis of coal includes the determination of:

A
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
B
Ash, moisture, volatile matter, and fixed carbon
C
Ultimate composition
D
Petrographic composition

Question 111Single Answer

Which process is primarily used for removing heavier impurities from coal?

A
Flotation
B
Jigging
C
Screening
D
Crushing

Question 112Single Answer

Froth flotation is used to remove which type of impurities?

A
Sulfur
B
Heavy minerals
C
Fine coal particles
D
Water

Question 113Single Answer

Dense medium separation uses:

A
Air
B
Water
C
Magnetite suspension
D
Oil

Question 114Single Answer

Which process is suitable for fine coal beneficiation?

A
Jigging
B
Dense medium separation
C
Froth flotation
D
Crushing

Question 115Single Answer

The primary function of washing in coal preparation is:

A
Reduce moisture content
B
Remove ash and sulfur
C
Increase hardness
D
Improve calorific value

Question 116Single Answer

What type of crusher is commonly used in coal preparation?

A
Jaw crusher
B
Hammer mill
C
Gyratory crusher
D
Ball mill

Question 117Single Answer

Vibrating screens in coal preparation plants are used for:

A
Crushing coal
B
Drying coal
C
Separating coal sizes
D
Increasing coal hardness

Question 118Single Answer

What is the main purpose of cyclones in coal preparation?

A
Increase moisture content
B
Separate impurities
C
Mix coal with water
D
Remove sulfur

Question 119Single Answer

Which equipment is used to remove fine impurities in coal?

A
Thickener
B
Centrifuge
C
Jig
D
Floatation cell

Question 120Single Answer

What is the function of a centrifuge in coal preparation?

A
Classifying coal
B
Dewatering coal
C
Reducing sulfur
D
Increasing calorific value

Question 121Single Answer

What is the first step in a coal preparation plant?

A
Screening
B
Crushing
C
Jigging
D
Washing

Question 122Single Answer

Which equipment is generally used after the screening process?

A
Crushers
B
Conveyors
C
Cyclones
D
Floatation cells

Question 123Single Answer

What does a typical coal preparation flow diagram not include?

A
Mining process
B
Sizing
C
Washing
D
Storage

Question 124Single Answer

Why are process flow diagrams used in coal preparation?

A
To identify key equipment locations
B
To determine moisture content
C
To analyze market trends
D
To calculate carbon content

Question 125Single Answer

The final stage in coal preparation usually involves:

A
Crushing
B
Washing
C
Dewatering and storage
D
Jigging

Question 126Single Answer

Spiral concentrators are mainly used for:

A
Coarse coal separation
B
Fine coal beneficiation
C
Dewatering
D
Reducing sulfur content

Question 127Single Answer

Which of the following is a dry coal beneficiation method?

A
Dense medium separation
B
Jigging
C
Air table separation
D
Froth flotation

Question 128Single Answer

The efficiency of froth flotation depends on:

A
Size of coal particles
B
Type of collector reagent used
C
pH of the solution
D
All of the above

Question 129Single Answer

In dense medium cyclone separation, the medium used is:

A
Water
B
Air
C
Magnetite or ferrosilicon suspension
D
Oil

Question 130Single Answer

The efficiency of coal beneficiation is expressed using:

A
Carbon percentage
B
Ash rejection ratio
C
Yield and separation efficiency
D
Sulfur reduction factor

Question 131Single Answer

Which of the following is not a common coal storage method?

A
Open stockpiles
B
Covered bunkers
C
Underground silos
D
Fluidized beds

Question 132Single Answer

Spontaneous combustion in coal storage occurs due to:

A
High moisture content
B
High volatile matter content
C
Oxidation of coal
D
All of the above

Question 133Single Answer

Coal dust suppression is typically achieved using:

A
Water sprays
B
Electrostatic precipitators
C
Dryers
D
Magnetic separators

Question 134Single Answer

The main function of a coal stacker-reclaimer is:

A
Crushing coal
B
Transporting coal
C
Storing and reclaiming coal
D
Separating impurities

Question 135Single Answer

The best way to prevent oxidation in coal storage is:

A
Keeping it in loose piles
B
Compacting and covering with inert materials
C
Increasing air exposure
D
Adding chemicals

Question 136Single Answer

The major pollutant released during coal preparation is:

A
Carbon dioxide
B
Particulate matter
C
Nitrogen oxide
D
Lead

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following methods helps in wastewater treatment in coal preparation plants?

A
Sedimentation tanks
B
Cyclone separators
C
Air classifiers
D
Crushers

Question 138Single Answer

The main safety hazard in coal beneficiation plants is:

A
Noise pollution
B
Dust explosion
C
High voltage leaks
D
Water contamination

Question 139Single Answer

What is the purpose of flocculants in coal washing plants?

A
Reduce moisture content
B
Improve settling rate of fine particles
C
Increase coal hardness
D
Remove sulfur

Question 140Single Answer

The legal limit for coal dust exposure in workplaces is regulated by:

A
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
B
Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA)
C
International Energy Agency (IEA)
D
National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)

Question 141Single Answer

Which test determines the coking properties of coal?

A
Proximate analysis
B
Petrographic analysis
C
Gray-King assay
D
Drop shatter test

Question 142Single Answer

The float-and-sink test is used to:

A
Determine moisture content
B
Analyze washability of coal
C
Measure coal hardness
D
Find sulfur content

Question 143Single Answer

The main parameter measured in a grindability test is:

A
Fixed carbon
B
Hardgrove Index
C
Volatile matter
D
Ash content

Question 144Single Answer

The calorific value of coal is measured using:

A
Thermogravimetric analyzer
B
Bomb calorimeter
C
Moisture analyzer
D
Petrographic microscope

Question 145Single Answer

Ash fusion temperature in coal is important for:

A
Boiler operation
B
Coal storage
C
Coal washing
D
Mining process

Question 146Single Answer

The most commonly used automation system in coal preparation plants is:

A
SCADA
B
GPS tracking
C
Hydraulic control
D
Fuel cell technology

Question 147Single Answer

Online coal quality monitoring is achieved using:

A
X-ray fluorescence (XRF) analyzers
B
Weighing scales
C
Crushers
D
Water sprayers

Question 148Single Answer

Which software is commonly used for coal process simulation?

A
MATLAB
B
Microsoft Excel
C
LIMN
D
AutoCAD

Question 149Single Answer

Real-time monitoring of particle size distribution is done using:

A
Belt weigher
B
Image processing techniques
C
Density meters
D
Gas chromatography

Question 150Single Answer

The efficiency of a coal preparation plant is best evaluated using:

A
Material balance calculations
B
Operator experience
C
Color of coal
D
Volume of tailings

Question 151Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of coal sampling?

A
To determine market price
B
To analyze and ensure coal quality
C
To increase calorific value
D
To decrease sulfur content

Question 152Single Answer

The most commonly used standard for coal sampling in India is:

A
ASTM D2013
B
IS 436
C
ISO 9001
D
IS 3025

Question 153Single Answer

Which test is used to determine the grindability of coal?

A
Hardgrove Index Test
B
Float-and-sink Test
C
Ash Fusion Test
D
Petrographic Analysis

Question 154Single Answer

Proximate analysis of coal provides information about:

A
Calorific value
B
Moisture, volatile matter, ash, and fixed carbon
C
Ultimate composition of elements
D
Combustion properties

Question 155Single Answer

Ultimate analysis of coal determines:

A
The percentage of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur, and oxygen
B
The coal’s hardness
C
The calorific value
D
The porosity of coal

Question 156Single Answer

What is the major environmental concern associated with coal washing plants?

A
High electricity consumption
B
Generation of coal slurry and wastewater
C
Excessive manpower requirement
D
Increased carbon percentage in coal

Question 157Single Answer

Acid mine drainage occurs due to:

A
High moisture content in coal
B
Oxidation of sulfur compounds in coal waste
C
Excessive washing of coal
D
Burning of low-quality coal

Question 158Single Answer

Which method is used to treat coal washery effluent?

A
Chemical precipitation
B
Electrostatic precipitators
C
Froth flotation
D
Vibrating screens

Question 159Single Answer

What is the best way to minimize coal dust pollution in preparation plants?

A
Using water sprays and dust suppressants
B
Burning the dust
C
Storing coal in open spaces
D
Increasing coal washing frequency

Question 160Single Answer

Flue gas desulfurization is used to:

A
Remove sulfur dioxide from coal combustion gases
B
Increase coal hardness
C
Improve coal washing efficiency
D
Enhance flotation separation

Question 161Single Answer

What is the main economic advantage of coal beneficiation?

A
Reduced transportation costs
B
Increased moisture content
C
Increased mining costs
D
Increased raw coal usage

Question 162Single Answer

Which of the following factors affect the cost of coal washing?

A
Quality of raw coal
B
Choice of beneficiation method
C
Equipment maintenance costs
D
All of the above

Question 163Single Answer

What is the major economic challenge in fine coal beneficiation?

A
High energy consumption
B
High ash content
C
High water usage
D
Expensive reagent costs

Question 164Single Answer

Which coal preparation process has the highest capital investment?

A
Dry beneficiation
B
Dense medium separation
C
Froth flotation
D
Manual separation

Question 165Single Answer

The return on investment (ROI) for a coal preparation plant depends on:

A
The recovery of clean coal
B
The reduction in transportation cost
C
The operational and maintenance costs
D
All of the above

Question 166Single Answer

What is the major safety risk in coal beneficiation plants?

A
High noise levels
B
Dust explosions
C
Water contamination
D
High temperature processing

Question 167Single Answer

Personal protective equipment (PPE) in coal preparation plants includes:

A
Safety helmets and dust masks
B
Fire-resistant clothing
C
Safety goggles
D
All of the above

Question 168Single Answer

Fire hazards in coal processing plants are mainly caused by:

A
Spontaneous combustion of coal
B
Excessive water content in coal
C
Lack of air circulation
D
High humidity

Question 169Single Answer

Which gas is a major cause of mine explosions?

A
Methane
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Hydrogen sulfide

Question 170Single Answer

The primary function of an emergency response plan in coal preparation plants is to:

A
Reduce operating costs
B
Ensure quick and safe evacuation
C
Increase plant efficiency
D
Improve fuel quality

Question 171Single Answer

The environmental regulation governing coal beneficiation in India is:

A
The Environment Protection Act, 1986
B
The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
C
The Factories Act, 1948
D
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955

Question 172Single Answer

The permissible limit of suspended particulate matter (SPM) in coal beneficiation plants is regulated by:

A
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
B
Ministry of Agriculture
C
Ministry of Railways
D
Food Safety Authority of India

Question 173Single Answer

The Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 was enacted to:

A
Regulate coal imports
B
Allocate coal blocks through auction
C
Increase coal washing capacity
D
Reduce coal dust emissions

Question 174Single Answer

Which agency is responsible for mine safety regulations in India?

A
Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS)
B
Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM)
C
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
D
Ministry of Environment

Question 175Single Answer

The key standard for coal quality classification in India is:

A
IS 1350
B
IS 1234
C
ISO 14001
D
ASTM D388

Question 176Single Answer

The most effective method for analyzing the calorific value of coal is:

A
Hardgrove Grindability Test
B
Bomb Calorimeter Test
C
Float-and-Sink Test
D
Proximate Analysis

Question 177Single Answer

What is the main purpose of the Float-and-Sink Test in coal preparation?

A
Determine the grindability index
B
Classify coal based on density
C
Measure the sulfur content
D
Analyze the moisture content

Question 178Single Answer

Which of the following methods is used to determine the sulfur content in coal?

A
Bomb Calorimetry
B
Ultimate Analysis
C
Float-and-Sink Test
D
Thermogravimetric Analysis

Question 179Single Answer

Ash Fusion Temperature (AFT) is critical in coal quality assessment because it helps to:

A
Determine coal density
B
Predict slagging and fouling behavior
C
Measure calorific value
D
Analyze sulfur content

Question 180Single Answer

The term "volatile matter" in coal analysis refers to:

A
Moisture content
B
Combustible gases released upon heating
C
Fixed carbon content
D
Mineral impurities in coal

Question 181Single Answer

The use of closed water circuits in coal washery plants helps in:

A
Increasing coal calorific value
B
Reducing water pollution
C
Enhancing combustion efficiency
D
Reducing coal dust

Question 182Single Answer

What is the major environmental concern associated with fly ash from coal preparation?

A
High calorific value
B
High radioactivity
C
Water pollution due to heavy metals
D
Presence of combustible gases

Question 183Single Answer

The best method to dispose of coal washery rejects is:

A
Dumping in open fields
B
Using them in power plants for energy recovery
C
Mixing with fresh coal
D
Burying them in landfills

Question 184Single Answer

What is the role of flocculants in coal washery wastewater treatment?

A
Increase the moisture content of coal
B
Reduce the energy consumption of crushers
C
Aggregate fine particles for sedimentation
D
Improve coal heating value

Question 185Single Answer

Which coal washing byproduct can be used in cement manufacturing?

A
Clean coal
B
Coal slurry
C
Coal rejects
D
Fly ash

Question 186Single Answer

In coal preparation, the term "yield" refers to:

A
The percentage of clean coal obtained after beneficiation
B
The total coal extracted from mines
C
The weight of rejects generated
D
The cost of coal processing

Question 187Single Answer

The costliest method of coal beneficiation is:

A
Jigging
B
Dense Medium Separation
C
Froth Flotation
D
Cyclone Separation

Question 188Single Answer

Which of the following factors can reduce coal beneficiation costs?

A
Increasing energy consumption
B
Using efficient separation techniques
C
Disposing of fines as waste
D
Increasing reject rates

Question 189Single Answer

Capital investment in a coal preparation plant is mainly influenced by:

A
The number of workers employed
B
The washing technology adopted
C
The amount of raw coal available
D
The calorific value of coal

Question 190Single Answer

In economic analysis of coal beneficiation, the term "break-even point" refers to:

A
The point where total revenue equals total cost
B
The maximum coal yield
C
The lowest ash content achievable
D
The highest calorific value

Question 191Single Answer

The major cause of fire in coal storage yards is:

A
High humidity
B
Spontaneous combustion
C
Lack of ventilation
D
Exposure to sunlight

Question 192Single Answer

Which safety measure is most effective in preventing dust explosions in coal preparation plants?

A
Increasing coal wash frequency
B
Installing water sprays and dust suppression systems
C
Increasing conveyor belt speed
D
Keeping coal stockpiles uncovered

Question 193Single Answer

A permit-to-work system in a coal preparation plant ensures:

A
The availability of trained personnel
B
Safe execution of hazardous tasks
C
Reduced coal wastage
D
Better economic feasibility

Question 194Single Answer

Why is methane monitoring crucial in coal handling plants?

A
Methane is highly explosive
B
Methane increases coal density
C
Methane reduces coal quality
D
Methane improves washing efficiency

Question 195Single Answer

The purpose of an emergency shutdown system in a coal processing plant is to:

A
Reduce downtime
B
Prevent accidents and damage
C
Improve efficiency
D
Reduce ash content

Question 196Single Answer

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) specification IS 1350 deals with:

A
Coal sampling procedures
B
Classification and analysis of coal
C
Fire safety in coal plants
D
Environmental impact of coal mining

Question 197Single Answer

The Coal Mines Regulations, 2017, were established to:

A
Enhance mining safety standards
B
Increase coal production
C
Improve fuel efficiency
D
Reduce beneficiation costs

Question 198Single Answer

Which Indian regulatory body oversees mine safety compliance?

A
Directorate General of Mines Safety (DGMS)
B
Ministry of Coal
C
Bureau of Indian Standards
D
Central Electricity Authority

Question 199Single Answer

The maximum allowable ash content in coal used for power generation in India is typically:

A
20%
B
34%
C
50%
D
10%

Question 200Single Answer

According to the Environment Protection Act, coal washeries must:

A
Reduce ash content below 34%
B
Maximize raw coal usage
C
Avoid using water for washing
D
Increase calorific value artificially

Back to Exam

Latest CIL MT Coal Preparation Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Reasoning

Numerical Ability

CIL MT Coal Preparation Exam Online Question Bank Package

English Language

General Awareness

Professional Knowledge

Quick View