Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
Statement I: Indian techniques such as Rasa and Bhawa in classical dances have their origins in Bharatmuni's Natyashastra.
Statement II: Bharatanatyam has its origin in Odisha.
A
Only Statement II is true
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is true
D
Only Statement I is true
Question 3Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 4Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 5Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 6Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 7Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 8Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 9Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 10Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 11Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 13Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 14Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 15Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 16Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 17Single Answer
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
A
Voltaire
B
Shakespeare
C
Erasmus
D
All of the above
Question 18Single Answer
When did World War II end?
A
1918
B
1939
C
1946
D
1945
Question 19Single Answer
Saint Simon, Charles Fourier and Robert Owen were:
A
Early Socialist
B
Renaissance
C
Portuguese sailor
D
Activities in the American War of Independence
Question 20Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 21Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 22Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 23Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 24Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Question 25Single Answer
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore
Reasoning
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 28Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 29Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 31Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 33Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 36Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 40Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Important Questions Package
CIL MT Geology Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy CIL MT Geology Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in CIL MT Geology question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
3.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
4.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
5.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 5000 Question with Answer
₹221[₹500]
6.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer
₹101[₹500]
7.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer
₹151[₹500]
8.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 3000 Question with Answer
₹181[₹500]
9.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 4000 Question with Answer
₹201[₹500]
10.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 5000 Question with Answer
₹221[₹500]
11.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
12.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
13.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
14.
CIL Management Trainee Geology Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
General English
Question 76Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 77Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 78Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 79Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 80Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 81Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 82Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 83Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 84Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 85Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 86Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 87Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 88Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 89Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 90Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Professional Knowledge (Geology)
Question 101Single Answer
Which amongst the following planets has the highest number of known satellites ?
A
Mars
B
Uranus
C
Venus
D
Mercury
Question 102Single Answer
S-wave is terminated at:
A
Crust-Mantle boundary
B
Lithosphere-Asthenosphere boundary
C
Mantle-Core boundary
D
Inner and Outer core boundary
Question 103Single Answer
Arrange the elements Fe, O, H, He, Si in decreasing order of their abundance in the solar system.
A
H > He > O > Si > Fe
B
He > H > Si > O > Fe
C
H > He > O > Fe > Si
D
Si > Fe > H > He > O
Question 104Single Answer
In the given figure (i),(ii),(iii) and (iv) denote the plate tectonic settings: Mid Oceanic Ridge (M), Island Arc (I), Continental Arc C. and Rift Zone (R).Which one of the following options is correctly matched ?
A
(i) - M, (ii) - I, (iii) - C, (iv) - R
B
(i) - R, (ii) - I, (iii) - M, (iv) - C
C
(i) - I, (ii) - R, (iii) - M, (iv) - C
D
(i) - I, (ii) - M, (iii) - C, (iv) - R
Question 105Single Answer
The mechanism of plate movement is thought to be driven by :
A
Isostasy
B
Earth's rotation
C
Thermal convection cells
D
Polar wandering
Question 106Single Answer
Hawaii island has its origin from:
A
Subducting plate
B
Plume
C
Plate collision
D
All of the above
Question 107Single Answer
Most abundant element in the earth crust is:
A
Oxygen
B
Silicon
C
Aluminium
D
Iron
Question 108Single Answer
Instrument for recording earthquake wave is called :
A
Seismograph
B
Seismograme
C
Seismometer
D
Scintillometer
Question 109Single Answer
The cosmic ray intensity is minimum at the magnetic :
A
Equator
B
North pole
C
South pole
D
Tropic of cancer
Question 110Single Answer
What power the Earth's internal heat engine ?
A
Solar energy
B
Ocean tides
C
Volcanoes
D
Radioactivity
Question 111Single Answer
Oxygen built up in the Earth's atmosphere is caused by :
A
Formation of ocean in early history of Earth
B
Algae and other organisms employed photosynthesis
C
Oxygen settled on Earth from planets further from the sun
D
Rocks weathered and released their oxygen.
Question 112Single Answer
Increased concentration of which of the following may cause maximum global warming ?
A
Oxygen
B
Nitrogen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Water vapour
Question 113Single Answer
Global warming may lead to increased sea level as a result of :
A
Melting of ice-caps
B
Thermal expansion of sea water
C
Both A and B
D
Isostatic rebound
Question 114Single Answer
Three major orbit ally forced cyclicties (-100 kyr,-40 kyr,-22 kyr) in the climatic changes on Earth are termed as :
A
Milankovitch cycle
B
Turner cycle
C
Glieesberg cycle
D
Wilson cycle
Question 115Single Answer
Ozone layer in Earth's atmosphere, is confined to:
A
Troposphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Mesosphere
D
Thermosphere
Question 116Single Answer
The most abundant element in the Earth's crust is :
A
Aluminium
B
Oxygen
C
Iron
D
Carbon
Question 117Single Answer
The internal structure of the Earth down up to the core, has been explored with the help of :
A
P-waves
B
S-waves
C
Both P- and S-waves
D
Drilling
Question 118Single Answer
We get Lehmann discontinuity at an approximate depth of :
A
100 km
B
750 km
C
450 km
D
220 km
Question 119Single Answer
Maximum damage in the event of an earth-quake is cause by :
A
P-waves
B
S-waves
C
L-waves
D
All of the above
Question 120Single Answer
A negative gravity anomaly indicates :
A
An excess of mass
B
A deficiency in mass
C
A reversal of the gravitational field
D
None of these
Question 121Single Answer
To qualify as a desert, a region must be :
A
Hot, with a mean annual temperature greater than 25°C (77°F)
B
Arid, with less than 15% of the ground surface vegetated
C
Both hot and arid
D
Either hot or arid
Question 122Single Answer
At 300 north latitude, at the northern edge of tropical (Hadley) cell, convection takes place because :
A
Cool, dry air sinks, becoming drier as it heats up
B
Warm, moist air rises, increasing in relative humidity as it rises
C
Warm, dry air rises, becoming cooler
D
Cool moist air sinks, providing abundant rainfall
Question 123Single Answer
The Gobi of Mongolia is a desert primarily because it is located :
A
In the subtropics
B
Near the geographic South Pole
C
Near the center of a large continent
D
Next to a cold ocean current
Question 124Single Answer
In atmosphere radio wave occur in :
A
Troposphere
B
Stratosphere
C
Mesosphere
D
Ionosphere
Question 125Single Answer
The process by which an originally homogeneous Earth developed a dense core and a light crust is called :
A
Metamorphism
B
Differentiation
C
Accretion
D
Compression
Question 126Single Answer
The Gutenberg discontinuity lies between :
A
Crust and mantle
B
Lithosphere and asthenosphere
C
Outer core a and lower mantle
D
Inner core and outer core
Question 127Single Answer
Airy's model of isostasy :
A
Requires mountains to have higher density than the oceanic crust
B
Requires mountains to have lower density than the oceanic crust
C
Requires mountains to have the same density as oceanic crust
D
Does NOT consider the densities of mountain and oceanic crust
Question 128Single Answer
Himalaya is a product of :
A
Continent-arc collision
B
Continent-continent collision
C
Arc-arc collision
D
Continent-arc-continent collision
Question 129Single Answer
The oldest rocks in the present ocean floor have age in range :
A
4.0-4.6 billion years
B
2.0-2.5 billion years
C
185-200 million years
D
60-65 million years
Question 130Single Answer
The type of plate boundary associated with deep focus earthquake ?
A
Divergent
B
Convergent
C
Transverse
D
Both A. & B.
Question 131Single Answer
The most abundant element in the universe is :
A
Silicon
B
Helium
C
Oxygen
D
Hydrogen
Question 132Single Answer
What is the age of ocean floor ?
A
0-200 m.y.
B
0-500 m.y.
C
0-1000 m.y.
D
0-3500 m.y.
Question 133Single Answer
New seafloor created at a :
A
Deep sea trench
B
Mid-oceanic ridge
C
Subduction zone
D
Transform fault
Question 134Single Answer
By the plate tectonic processes, magma generation is highest in the following tectonic setting :
A
Convergent plate boundary
B
Continental intra-plate region
C
Oceanic intra-plate region
D
Oceanic ridges
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is a living fossil ?
A
Arca
B
Cardita
C
Lingula
D
Trigonia
Question 136Single Answer
Which one of the following features is NOT associated with an oceanic subduction ?
A
Sea-mount
B
Benioff zone
C
Back-arc
D
Fore-arc
Question 137Single Answer
The term isostasy refers to :
A
Gravitational equilibrium
B
Thermal equilibrium
C
Magnetic equilibrium
D
Electrical equilibrium
Question 138Single Answer
Deep sea trenches are associated with plate boundary :
A
Convergent
B
Divergent
C
Translational
D
Neutral
Question 139Single Answer
What drive(s) the earth's internal heat engine ?
A
Radioactivity
B
Solar energy
C
Volcanism
D
Ocean tides
Question 140Single Answer
Specimen of a species from the same locality as its holotype is called
A
Neotype
B
Metatype
C
Paratype
D
Topotype
Question 141Single Answer
A deep valley forms where two plates pull apart :
A
Fault
B
Pangea
C
Mantle
D
Rift valley
Question 142Single Answer
Mountain chain within water is :
A
Trench
B
Mid-oceanic ridge
C
Volcanic island
D
Reefs
Question 143Single Answer
A boundary where plates slide past each other in opposite directions is termed as :
A
Transform boundary
B
Tensional zone
C
Diverse boundary
D
Converging boundary
Question 144Single Answer
Wadati-Benioff zone indicates :
A
Shallow earthquake
B
Intermediate earthquake
C
Technical stable zone
D
Deep focus earthquake
Question 145Single Answer
The first wave recorded on seismograph is :
A
P-wave
B
S-wave
C
P- and S-wave
D
L-wave
Question 146Single Answer
The average radius of the earth is :
A
6378 km
B
637.1 km
C
6372 km
D
6271 km
Question 147Single Answer
'Sima' is a part of :
A
Quter core
B
Crust
C
Upper mantle
D
Lower mantle
Question 148Single Answer
The instrument used for recording seismic waves is :
A
Thermometer
B
Seismograph
C
Barometer
D
Seismogram
Question 149Single Answer
The 'Nebular Hypothesis' was proposed by :
A
Kant
B
Laplace
C
Kant and Laplace
D
Moulten and Chamberlin
Question 150Single Answer
Himalaya is :
A
Paleozoic tectonic mountain
B
Recent folded mountain
C
Collisional mountain
D
Indian mountain
Question 151Single Answer
The Gutenberg discontinuity separates :
A
Crust and upper mantle
B
Lower to upper mantle
C
Outer and inner core
D
Outer core and lower mantle
Question 152Single Answer
Volcanic Island is associated with :
A
Ocean-continent convergence
B
Divergent boundaries
C
Transform boundary
D
Ocean-ocean convergence
Question 153Single Answer
'Conorad discontinuity' lies between :
A
Crust and mantle
B
Sial and sima
C
Sima and mantle
D
Mantle and core
Question 154Single Answer
The mean density of Earth is about :
A
2650 kg m-3
B
2750 kg m-3
C
4400 kg m-3
D
5500 kg m-3
Question 155Single Answer
Match the scale in Group I with corresponding parameter in Group II .
Group I Group II
P. Richter scale 1. Earthquake damage
Q. Mercalli scale 2. Hardness
R. Moh's scale 3. Particle size
S. Udden-Went-worth scale 4. Earthquake magnitude
A
P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
B
P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
C
P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
D
P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Question 156Single Answer
'Wadati-Benioff zone' is well known for :
A
Deep focus earthquake
B
Shallow focus earthquake
C
Intermediate focus earthquake
D
Tectonically stable zone
Question 157Single Answer
In internal structure of earth, the outer core is composed of :
A
Solid material
B
Gases
C
Liquid only
D
All of these
Question 158Single Answer
Shear waves passes through :
A
Liquid only
B
Solid only
C
Gas only
D
All of these
Question 159Single Answer
Asteroids are minor planetary bodies located between :
A
Earth and Mars
B
Jupiter and Saturn
C
Mars and Jupiter
D
Mercury and Venus
Question 160Single Answer
Which one of the following options does correctly represent the elements in order of decreasing abundance in the Earth's crust ?
A
Fe > Si > O > Al
B
O > Si > Al > Fe
C
Si > O > Al > Fe
D
Si > Al > Fe > O
Question 161Single Answer
The average density of the earth is :
A
4.5 gm/cm3
B
5.5 gm/cm3
C
6.5 gm/cm3
D
7.5 gm/cm3
Question 162Single Answer
Volcanic activity is usually absent along :
A
Divergent plate boundaries
B
Convergent plate boundaries
C
Transform faults
D
All of the above
Question 163Single Answer
What can be expected at a depth of about 35 km inside the earth ?
A
Inner mantle
B
Inner core
C
Mohorovicic discontinuity
D
Gutenberg discontinuity
Question 164Single Answer
Sial is also known as :
A
Part of core
B
Lower continental crust
C
Mantle
D
Upper continental crust
Question 165Single Answer
Match the tectonic units listed in Group 1 with their geographical locations in Group 2 .
Group-1 Group-2
P. Continent-oceanic lithosphere convergence 1. Himalayas
Q. Continent-continent collision 2. Andes
R. Continental rift system 3. Japanese island
S. Oceanic-oceanic lithosphere convergence 4. East Africa
A
P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
B
P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
C
P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
D
P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Question 166Single Answer
Gutenberg Discontinuity in the interior of the Earth occurs at the depth of :
A
35 km
B
800 km
C
2900 km
D
5200 km
Question 167Single Answer
Isostasy involves :
A
Eustatic change
B
Gravitational balance
C
Magnetic reversal
D
Thermal balance
Question 168Single Answer
The upper mantle of the earth is composed largely of :
A
Peridotite
B
Gabbro
C
Mafic granulite
D
Eclogite
Question 169Single Answer
The lithosphere of the earth is made up of :
A
Crust
B
Crust and upper mantle
C
Crust and part of upper mantle
D
Upper mantle
Question 170Single Answer
The explored part of the Moon consists dominantly of :
A
Basalt and anorthosites
B
Basalts
C
Basalts and granites
D
Basalts and andesites
Question 171Single Answer
Reversal of magnetic polarity in strips of ocean floor basalt parallel to ridge axis, results due to :
A
Bimodal volcanism
B
Seafloor spreading
C
Transform faults
D
Alteration of seafloor basalt
Question 172Single Answer
The amplitude of seismic waves in an earthquake of magnitude 2 on the Richter scale is larger than that of an earthquake of magnitude 1 by :
A
100 times
B
10 times
C
2 times
D
1000 times
Question 173Single Answer
Most abundant element in the earth's crust is :
A
Carbon
B
Oxygen
C
Hydrogen
D
Nitrogen
Question 174Single Answer
Aseismic ridges are associated with :
A
Hotspots
B
Subduction zones
C
Cratons
D
Island arcs
Question 175Single Answer
The two most abundant elements in Earth's crust are :
A
Iron and Magnesium
B
Aluminium and Oxygen
C
Oxygen and Silicon
D
Silicon and Aluminium
Question 176Single Answer
Most of the craters on moon surface are probably the result of :
A
Volcanic action
B
Meteoroid bombardment
C
Erosion
D
Deposition
Question 177Single Answer
The most voluminous portion of the Earth is known to geologists as :
A
The crust
B
The mantle
C
The core
D
The lithosphere
Question 178Single Answer
Rate of Indian plate motion at present is :
A
3-4 centimeters per year
B
1-18 centimeters per year
C
1 kilometer per year
D
1,000 kilometers per year
Question 179Single Answer
The oldest seafloor on Earth is not more than :
A
200 million years old
B
2 billion years old
C
20 million years old
D
2 million years old
Question 180Single Answer
The continental rise is :
A
A wedge of sediment at the base of the continental slope
B
An uplifted portion of the continent
C
A portion of the mid-ocean ridge
D
A flat- topped seamount
Question 181Single Answer
Which mineral is commonly referred to as "fool's gold" ?
A
Quartz
B
Pyrite
C
Hematite
D
Magnetite
Question 182Single Answer
What is the hardest naturally occurring mineral on the Mohs scale of mineral hardness ?
A
Talc
B
Gypsum
C
Quartz
D
Diamond
Question 183Single Answer
Which type of rock forms from the cooling and solidification of molten lava ?
A
Sedimentary
B
Metamorphic
C
Igneous
D
Volcanic
Question 184Single Answer
Which mineral is the primary component of granite ?
A
Quartz
B
Feldspar
C
Mica
D
Calcite
Question 185Single Answer
What is the process by which sediments are compacted and cemented together to form sedimentary rocks ?
A
Metamorphism
B
Erosion
C
Lithification
D
Igneous intrusion
Question 186Single Answer
Which type of rock is formed through the alteration of existing rocks by heat and pressure ?
A
Sedimentary
B
Igneous
C
Metamorphic
D
Sedimentary
Question 187Single Answer
What is the term for the study of the Earth's internal structure and composition ?
A
Geophysics
B
Seismology
C
Mineralogy
D
Petrology
Question 188Single Answer
Which mineral is commonly used as a lubricant and in the manufacture of pencils ?
A
Quartz
B
Graphite
C
Calcite
D
Feldspar
Question 189Single Answer
What type of rock is formed from the accumulation and compression of plant and animal remains ?
A
Limestone
B
Shale
C
Coal
D
Sandstone
Question 190Single Answer
Which process involves the breaking down of rocks into smaller particles due to physical and chemical weathering ?
A
Erosion
B
Metamorphism
C
Extrusion
D
Deposition
Question 191Single Answer
Which mineral is the main constituent of marble ?
A
Quartz
B
Calcite
C
Gypsum
D
Biotite
Question 192Single Answer
What is the term for the measurement of the intensity of an earthquake at a specific location ?
A
Magnitude
B
Richter scale
C
Epicenter
D
Intensity
Question 193Single Answer
Which type of rock is often formed from the accumulation of organic material in marine environments ?
A
Basalt
B
Granite
C
Limestone
D
Slate
Question 194Single Answer
What is the primary mineral in the rock known as "soapstone" ?
A
Talc
B
Gypsum
C
Quartz
D
Mica
Question 195Single Answer
Which type of rock is characterized by its layered appearance and often forms from the accumulation of silt and clay particles ?
A
Granite
B
Gneiss
C
Schist
D
Shale
Question 196Single Answer
Which mineral is commonly used as a source of aluminum ?
A
Feldspar
B
Quartz
C
Bauxite
D
Halite
Question 197Single Answer
What is the term for the process of converting sediment into solid rock through compaction and cementation ?
A
Erosion
B
Deposition
C
Lithification
D
Weathering
Question 198Single Answer
Which type of rock is formed from the cooling and solidification of magma beneath the Earth's surface ?
A
Sedimentary
B
Metamorphic
C
Igneous
D
Volcanic
Question 199Single Answer
Which mineral is commonly used in the production of ceramics and porcelain ?
A
Calcite
B
Quartz
C
Kaolinite
D
Biotite
Question 200Single Answer
What is the term for the process by which rocks are broken down into smaller fragments through mechanical weathering ?