Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A
It is a financial establishment
B
It acts like a financial intermediary
C
It accepts deposits from the public
D
It provides safe locker facility
E
All the above
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A
A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B
They include general utility services and agency services.
C
A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D
A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E
A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Question 3Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A
Issuance of debit and credit cards
B
Providing safe custody of valuable items
C
ATM services
D
Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E
Online transfer of funds across the globe
Question 4Single Answer
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A
Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C
Banking Regulation Act 1949
D
Company Act 1956
E
None of the above
Question 5Single Answer
Banks in India are regulated by :
A
The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B
The Banking regulation Act,1949
C
The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D
The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E
None of the above
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 12Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 13Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 14Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 15Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 16Single Answer
Phangnon Konyak, who was seen in the news, is a Member of Parliament from which state/UT ?
A
Nagaland
B
Manipur
C
Sikkim
D
Arunachal Pradesh
Question 17Single Answer
Which river serves as the predominant border between the United States and Mexico ?
A
Niagara River
B
Rio Grande River
C
St. Lawrence River
D
Detroit River
Question 18Single Answer
Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state/UT ?
A
Maharashtra
B
Goa
C
West Bengal
D
Manipur
Question 19Single Answer
Which is the first African country to initiative a debt-for-nature swap ?
A
Egypt
B
South Africa
C
Gabon
D
Kenya
Question 20Single Answer
X-59, also known as the ‘Son of Concorde, is an experimental supersonic aircraft to which country ?
A
Russia
B
China
C
USA
D
UAE
Question 21Single Answer
In July 2023, which of the following rockets was used by SpaceX to launch the world’s largest private satellite from Launch Complex 39A in Florida ?
A
Falcon 1
B
Falcon 9
C
Falcon 8
D
Falcon Heavy
Question 22Single Answer
In July 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi has launched Urea Gold in which of the following Indian states ?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Gujarat
C
Maharashtra
D
Rajasthan
Question 23Single Answer
In July 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the Chair of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) ?
A
Jim Skea
B
Jane Smith
C
John Williams
D
Emily Johnson
Question 24Single Answer
How many medals did Indian athletes win at the Sri Lanka Athletics National Championships 2023 ?
A
5 medals
B
10 medals
C
14 medals
D
8 medals
Question 25Single Answer
In July 2023, who among the following has appointed as a Deputy Chief Executive Office of US finance agency ?
A
Satya Nadella
B
Sundar Pichai
C
Shantanu Narayen
D
Nisha Biswal
Reasoning
Question 26Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 28Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 29Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 31Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 33Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 36Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 38Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 40Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
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Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 53Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 54Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 55Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 56Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 58Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 59Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 60Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 61Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 62Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 63Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 64Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 65Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
General English
Question 76Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 77Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 78Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 79Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 80Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 81Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 82Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 83Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 84Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 85Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 86Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 87Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 88Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 89Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 90Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Mining
Question 101Single Answer
The following perpendicular offsets were taken from a chian line to an irregular boundary.The area between the chian line, the boundaryand the offsets is :
Chainage(m)
0
10
25
42
60
75
Offsets
15.5
26.2
31.8
25.6
29.0
31.5
A
19.765 Ares
B
20.612 Ares
C
20.892 Ares
D
20.765 Ares
Question 102Single Answer
Point of tangency in a curve is the ______ .
A
location of the curves start point
B
location of the curves end point
C
curves midpoint
D
point joining two tangents of a curve
Question 103Single Answer
Name of method in which the deflection angle is equal to half the angle substended by the arc at the centre, and it is assumed that the length of the arc is approximately equal to length of the chord
A
two – theodalite method
B
Rankine's method
C
Jaderin's method
D
Teacheometric method
Question 104Single Answer
Name the equipment used in mining placer deposits.
A
Riffle box
B
Auger
C
Wagon drill
D
Rope Saw
Question 105Single Answer
Every plan or section should be submitted on a scale having a representative factor of :
A
1330 : 1
B
1200 : 1
C
1100 : 2
D
1300 : 1
Question 106Single Answer
In which of the following baseline measuring method, tripods are used to hold the measuring tape ?
A
Wheeler's method
B
Rankine's method
C
Hunter's short base method
D
Jaderin's method
Question 107Single Answer
Stone dust barriers consists of :
A
Each plank is placed on above the other and loaded with stone dust
B
Shelves placed side by side and loaded with stone dust
C
Shelves placed side by side and each shelf consists of planks placed on above the other and loaded with stone dust
D
Shelves placed side by side and each shelf consists of another shelf placed on above the other and loaded with stone dust
Question 108Single Answer
In an opencast mining blasting, ground vibration occurs due to :
A
Low current
B
Poor stemming
C
Improper delays
D
Excess charge
Question 109Single Answer
In an opencast mining blasting, poor stemming results in :
A
Vibration
B
Misfire
C
Blow-out-shot
D
Cut-off- shot
Question 110Single Answer
In an opencast mining blasting, improper delay results in :
A
Vibration
B
Misfire
C
Blow-out-shot
D
Cut-off-shot
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is not 'Biparental' ?
A
Tidal Hypothesis
B
Planetesimal Hypothesis
C
Dynamic encounter theory
D
Protoplanet Hypothesis
Question 112Single Answer
The most accurately known physical parameter in the deep Earth is
A
Density
B
Elastic modulii
C
Seismic wave velocity
D
Gravity
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following are most radioactive ?
A
younger acidic rocks
B
Younger basic rocks
C
Older acidic rocks
D
Older basic rocks
Question 114Single Answer
The flattest portion of the Earth's surface is formed by
A
Abyssal Plains
B
Abyssal Hills
C
Sea Mounts
D
Oceanic Trenches
Question 115Single Answer
The African Plate is composed of
A
Continental Crust
B
Oceanic Crust
C
Combination of both continental as well as oceanic crust
D
None of the above
Question 116Single Answer
Iceland is an exposed part of
A
Mid-oceanic ridges
B
Island arcs
C
Shield areas
D
Plateaus
Question 117Single Answer
Pahoehoe is a type of
A
Stony meterite
B
Volcanic crator
C
Ropy lava
D
Blocky lava
Question 118Single Answer
The sand dunes migrate in the
A
Leeward direction
B
Windward direction
C
Both Leeward and Windward directions
D
None of the above
Question 119Single Answer
Migmatites are mixed rocks which contain features of rock ?
A
Pyroclastic and sedimentary rocks
B
Plutonic and regional metamorphic rocks
C
Contact metamorphic and diagenetic rocks
D
Regional metamorphic and igneous extrusive
Question 120Single Answer
The primary mineral constituents of rocks of mafic ultramafic (more mafic than mafic) composition necessarily contain in the following elements.
A
magnesium, silicon, aluminium, oxygen
B
iron, aluminimum, silicon, oxygen
C
silicon, oxygen, iron, manganese
D
oxygen, magnesium, silicon, iron
Question 121Single Answer
SCAMP relates to ..............
A
Roof safety
B
Inundation
C
Mine fire
D
None of these
Question 122Single Answer
Maximum speed of explosive van, carrying explosive
A
20 KMPH
B
25 KMPH
C
30 KMPH
D
40 KMPH
Question 123Single Answer
.................. Gas, relates to white Damp:
A
CH4
B
CO2
C
O2
D
CO
Question 124Single Answer
In 2nd Degree gassy Underground Mine, for Electrical velding, written permission of .............. is required
A
Mining sirdar
B
Colliery Engineer
C
Assistant Management
D
Mine Manager
Question 125Single Answer
Reason for Blown out shots
A
Less Stemming
B
More explosive charge
C
High Burden and Spacing
D
All of these
Question 126Single Answer
Priming catridge
A
In which detonator is engaged
B
Best Quality explosive catridge
C
Un exploded explosive catridge
D
All of these
Question 127Single Answer
Powder Factor :
A
Yield of coal in Ton per KG of explosive consumed
B
Yield of coal in m³ per KG of explosive consumed
C
Both (a) and (b) above
D
None of these
Question 128Single Answer
Formation of coal Mines Regulation has been principally based up on.
A
Railways Act
B
Explosive Act
C
L & R Act.
D
Mines Act.
Question 129Single Answer
Surface plan is a .............. plan.
A
Statutory
B
non - statutory
C
working
D
none of these
Question 130Single Answer
Safety management plan is applicable only for ................... mining.
A
opencast
B
underground
C
both (a) and (b)
D
none of these
Question 131Single Answer
The reason behind broadening the river velley is
A
Attrition
B
Hydraulic action
C
Soil erosion
D
Corrosion
Question 132Single Answer
Anticline is a type of
A
Reverine
B
Fold structure
C
Eroded landmass
D
Delta
Question 133Single Answer
The reason behind Earthequake is
A
Land cruises
B
Rotation of earth
C
Tectonism
D
Denudation
Question 134Single Answer
The gap of a mountain which provides natural path is known as
A
Valley
B
Highway
C
Pass
D
Highland
Question 135Single Answer
The longest lake of India is
A
pulicat
B
Pangong
C
Kolleru
D
Vembanad
Question 136Single Answer
Duncan passage is located between
A
North and South Andaman
B
North and Middle Andaman
C
South and Little Andaman
D
Andaman and Nicobar
Question 137Single Answer
Which river forms estuary ?
A
Narmada
B
Kaveri
C
Krishna
D
Mahanadi
Question 138Single Answer
The driest part of India is
A
Western Rajasthan
B
J & K
C
Gujarat
D
M. P
Question 139Single Answer
The soild of northern plain of India is formed by
A
Degradation
B
Aggradation
C
Erosion
D
None of these
Question 140Single Answer
What does acid rain contain which destroys plants ?
A
Mitrate
B
ozone
C
Carbon Monoxide
D
Sulphuric acid
Question 141Single Answer
The process of folding which is considered to be non – tactonic is
A
Tangential tension
B
Intrusion
C
Tangential compression
D
Differential compresion
Question 142Single Answer
Which is considered as compound anticline ?
A
Depression
B
Basin
C
Valley
D
Dome
Question 143Single Answer
Which rock is more prone to flexural slip ?
A
Shale
B
Basalt
C
Soft Clay
D
Limestone
Question 144Single Answer
Grit is another name for
A
Sandstone
B
Shale
C
Granite
D
Breccia
Question 145Single Answer
Dolerite is an example of
A
Lopolith
B
Laccolith
C
Batholith
D
Dyke
Question 146Single Answer
Volcanic eruptions occur due to
A
Conversion of rocks in the deeper layers earth's crust to a molten state of magma
B
Excessive heat inside the earth
C
Pressure in the baccolith
D
Lateral displacement of plates
Question 147Single Answer
Which region contains doline land features ?
A
Volcanic
B
Deltaic
C
Karst
D
Glaciated
Question 148Single Answer
Mauna Loa is an example of
A
active volcano
B
extinct volcano
C
Plateau in a volcanic region
D
dormant valcono
Question 149Single Answer
Plutonic earthquakes have their focus at a depth of
A
50 km
B
50 – 250 km
C
250 – 750 km
D
None of these
Question 150Single Answer
Tin is found in
A
Basic Igneous rocks
B
Metamorphic rocks
C
Placer deposits
D
All of these
Question 151Single Answer
Angle of dip is measured using which instrument ?
A
Compass
B
Theodolite
C
Tacheometer
D
Clinometer
Question 152Single Answer
A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
A
Rainfall intensity and time
B
Rainfal depth and time
C
Discharge and time
D
Cumulative rainfall and time
Question 153Single Answer
As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
A
Are costlier
B
are less susceptible to failure
C
require sound rock foundations
D
require less skilled labour
Question 154Single Answer
Tridymite are the example of
A
Polymorphism
B
Isomorphism
C
Diadochi
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
Which one of the following is an example of an isostatic movement ?
A
Stream down cutting following a drop in sea level
B
Arching of strata at the centre of a dome
C
Numerous aftershocks associated with deep focus earthquakes
D
uplift of areas recently covered by thick, continental ice sheets
Question 156Single Answer
In extensional tectonic regimes of the Earth we commonly observe
A
normal faults
B
thrusts
C
vertical faults
D
reverse faults
E
folds and thrusts
Question 157Single Answer
The effective shear stress on a frictional plane will be a maximum when the plane is inclined to the compression direction at an angle of :
A
90°
B
>45°
C
< 45°
D
45°
E
0°
Question 158Single Answer
Which one of the following does not form a good aquifer ?
A
Jointed basalt
B
Massive granite
C
Tills
D
Sandstone
E
Dolerite
Question 159Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a good reservoir rock for petroleum ?
A
limestone
B
sandstone
C
mudstone
D
reef bound stone
E
Granite
Question 160Single Answer
Weathering of feldspar minerals may results in which one of the following sets of products ?
A
clays; ca, Na, K ions; dissolved silica
B
iron oxides; Ca, Fe, Mg, Mn ions ; clays: dissolved silica
C
Fe, Mg ions; Mn oxides; clays
D
Na, K, Mg, Fe ions; clays; Fe – Mn oxides
E
Fe, Mn, Cu and Pb
Question 161Single Answer
Between crossed Polars, a colourless mineral show I order grey interference colours, but is not very distinct in plane polarised lights. The refractive index of the mienral should be around :
A
1.0082
B
1.2495
C
1.5356
D
1.7221
Question 162Single Answer
Which of the following instruments can be used to identify quartz and microcline in a rock sample ?
A
Petrological microscope and XRF
B
Petrological microscope and XRD
C
Perological microscope and UV – VIS spectrophotometer
D
Petrological microscope and Atomic absorption spectro photometer
E
Petrological microscope and Flame photometer
Question 163Single Answer
In a mineral the angle between the cleavage traces and one of the vibration direction is 90°, the mineral show which type of extinction ?
A
Parallel
B
Inclined
C
Symmetrical
D
Wavy
E
Comlete
Question 164Single Answer
In a petrological microscope the optical tube commonly contain.
In a metric toposheet published by the SOI on 1:50,000 scale, the difference in longitude/ latitude from one end to the other is :
A
5'
B
10'
C
15'
D
30'
E
45'
Question 166Single Answer
A person standing at 90°00'N latitude uses a Brunton compass as a guide and travels 320 Km due South then 450 km East and finally 320 Km North. His final position will be near :
A
90° 00'N
B
54°00'N:52°35E
C
74°15'N : 52°35'E
D
80°12'N:52°35'E
Question 167Single Answer
An instrument used for studying a rock sample slide in different orentations is called :
A
Point counter
B
Dollar stage
C
Integrating stage
D
Universal stage
E
Gonio meter
Question 168Single Answer
A mineral belonging to the Hexagonal system will show :
A
Interference colours; uniaxial interference figure and large 2V
B
Interference colours; behave sometimes as isotropic and show uniaxial interference figure
C
Always show high order Interference colours biaxial interference figure and small 2V
D
Always isotropic
E
Brigth colours
Question 169Single Answer
According ot principle of cross-cutting relationship, itrusive body is
A
older than country rock
B
younger than country rock
C
of same age as the country rock
D
Sometime younger, at time older
E
none of the above
Question 170Single Answer
The handling figures of the Mine for the year 2015-16 are as below.
The OB handling = 5,00,000 Tonnes, coal production = 2,00,000 Tonnes and densities of OB and Ore are 2.5 and 1.5 respectively. Find the stripping ratio for the year 2014 – 15.
A
1 : 2.5
B
1 : 1.5
C
1 : 2
D
1 : 1
Question 171Single Answer
Permissible limit of respirabl concentration of coal dust should not be more than
A
6 mg/m3
B
10 mg/m3
C
15 mg/m3
D
3 mg/m3
Question 172Single Answer
Blasting Gallery method is not suitable for working seam thickness
A
Less than 7 m
B
More than 7 m
C
Up to 11m
D
More than 11m
Question 173Single Answer
Notice of accident causing death or serious bodily injury in connection with mining operations, in Form IV 'A' shall be sent to Regional Inspector within hours.
A
24
B
48
C
72
D
12
Question 174Single Answer
What should be the minimum anchorage strength of root bolts after half an hour and after two hours
A
2 Te & 4 Te
B
1 Te & 3 Te
C
3 Te & 5 Te
D
5 Te & 10 Te
Question 175Single Answer
Fires in live eletrical equipments is classified as
A
Class B fire
B
Class C fire
C
Class D fire
D
Class E fire
Question 176Single Answer
Geothermal gradient in Indian coal fields is about
A
1°C/20m
B
1° C/92m
C
1° C/38m
D
1° C/72m
Question 177Single Answer
A board and pillar panel will be developed with square pillars of size 25 m and an extraction ratio of 30%. The width of the gallery in m will be
A
4.2
B
4.6
C
4.8
D
26.2
Question 178Single Answer
According to CMR 1957, if the width of the galler is 3.6 m and depth from surface is 75m then what will be the pillar size
A
15 m
B
18m
C
13.5m
D
16.5m
Question 179Single Answer
As per CMR 1957, the breadth of the foot path in the quarries shall not be less than
A
0.5 m
B
0.75 m
C
1 m
D
0.9 m
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following term is not related to opencast mining ?
A
Box cut
B
High wall
C
Crest
D
Winze
Question 181Single Answer
In surface mine, a box cut is defined as
A
The final cut of close the mine
B
The initial cut made to open a cut
C
Any cut which look as open box
D
The cut to extend haul road
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following factor is considered for calculation of cycle time of excavating machine.
A
Swell factor
B
Bucket factor
C
Swing factor
D
Powder factor
Question 183Single Answer
In an open cast Coal Mine, bench failure has occurred in which a triangular portion has come out. The type of failure is _____
A
Curved failure
B
Wedge failure
C
Toppling failure
D
Linear failure
Question 184Single Answer
Which of the following protects us from dust
A
Ear muff
B
Goggle
C
Mask
D
All of the above
Question 185Single Answer
Maximum number of attempts for obtaining a statutory examination certificate of DGMS is :
A
8
B
9
C
7
D
Not fixed
Question 186Single Answer
In signaling of shaft fitting what does TWO RAPS means :
A
Stop
B
Lower
C
Ascend
D
None of the above
Question 187Single Answer
Examination of haulage and travelling roadways shall be done :
A
Once in a month
B
Twice in a week
C
Once in a Week
D
Once in every fortnight
Question 188Single Answer
What does SMP means ?
A
Safe Man Power
B
Safe Machine Movement
C
Safety management Plan
D
Safety manual Planning
Question 189Single Answer
Overall slope of spoil dump, if exceeding 30m in height shall be :
A
Exceeding 1 vertical to 1.5 horizontal
B
Exceeding 37.5 degree
C
Not exceeding 1 vertical to 1.5 horizontal
D
None of the above
Question 190Single Answer
Every part of a mine shall be provided with at least :
A
One means of egress
B
One of two means of egrees
C
Three means of egress
D
Two means of egress
Question 191Single Answer
DANGER ZONE in case of opencast mines kept as :
A
A radius of 300m from place of firing
B
A radius of 500m from place of firing
C
A radius of 200m from place of firing
D
None of the above
Question 192Single Answer
Which of the following apparatus is suitable for drilling while approaching water logged underground working.
A
Auger Drill
B
Hand held electric drill
C
Burn side boring machine
D
None of these
Question 193Single Answer
P-5 explosives are used for
A
Pre-cut blasting
B
Open cast blasting
C
Over burden blasting
D
Solid blasting
Question 194Single Answer
Who is authorized to designate the Workmen Inspector in consultation with the registered trade union in the mine ?
A
DGMS
B
Mines Foreman
C
Owner/Agent
D
Mines Manager
Question 195Single Answer
What percentage of roof bolts is tested for destructive test to know the efficacy of support ?
A
10%
B
5%
C
1%
D
8%
Question 196Single Answer
Extraction of coal by method other than Board & Pillar method has been stipulated in.
A
CMR 100
B
CMR 100 A
C
CMR 103
D
CMR 103 A
Question 197Single Answer
Duty of Mining Sirdar at his working place in below ground mine is to
A
Ascertain condition of ventilation
B
Presssure of gases
C
The state of roof and sides
D
All the above
Question 198Single Answer
Binwa is a tributary of which river of H.P.?
A
Beas
B
Yamuna
C
Satluj
D
Chenab
Question 199Single Answer
Nako lake is located in which district of H.P.?
A
Sirmour
B
Solan
C
Shimla
D
None of these
Question 200Single Answer
In an opencast mining blasting, misfire occurs due to :