How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 2Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 3Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 4Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 5Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 6Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 7Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 8Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 11Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 14Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 15Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Numerical Ability
Question 26Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 27Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 28Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 29Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 30Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 31Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 32Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 33Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 34Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 35Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 36Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 37Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 38Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 39Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 40Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
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English Language
Question 51Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 52Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 53Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 54Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 55Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 56Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 57Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 58Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 59Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 60Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 61Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 62Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 63Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 64Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 65Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
General Awareness
Question 76Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 77Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 78Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 79Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 81Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 82Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 83Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 84Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 85Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 86Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 87Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 88Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 89Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 90Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 91Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 92Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is a branch of ethics that deals with the philosophical study of morality ?
A
Metaphysics
B
Aesthetics
C
Normative ethics
D
Epistemology
Question 94Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 95Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 96Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 97Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 98Single Answer
Who won the 2024 FIFA Ballon d'Or award?
A
Lionel Messi
B
Cristiano Ronaldo
C
Kylian Mbappé
D
Robert Lewandowski
Question 99Single Answer
The 'One Sun, One World, One Grid' initiative was launched by which organization?
A
United Nations
B
International Solar Alliance
C
World Bank
D
European Union
Question 100Single Answer
Who became the first female President of Brazil in?
A
Dilma Rousseff
B
Marina Silva
C
Marta Suplicy
D
Gleisi Hoffmann
Professional Knowledge
Question 101Single Answer
What is the primary goal of security management in an organization?
A
Increase profitability
B
Protect people, assets, and information
C
Improve employee productivity
D
Reduce operating costs
Question 102Single Answer
Security management principles are based on which of the following key concepts?
A
Surveillance
B
Prevention, detection, and response
C
Workforce automation
D
Data encryption only
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a component of security management?
A
Risk management
B
Asset protection
C
Compliance with laws
D
Marketing campaigns
Question 104Single Answer
What is the first step in creating an effective security management system?
A
Hiring security personnel
B
Installing surveillance systems
C
Conducting a security assessment
D
Drafting security policies
Question 105Single Answer
Security management ensures compliance with:
A
Ethical standards
B
Legal and regulatory requirements
C
Global marketing trends
D
Employee personal preferences
Question 106Single Answer
Risk Assessment Risk assessment is primarily aimed at:
A
Identifying and evaluating security threats
B
Increasing organizational profitability
C
Reducing operational costs
D
Monitoring employee performance
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following tools is commonly used in risk assessment?
A
Decision trees
B
SWOT analysis
C
Business process modeling
D
Marketing segmentation
Question 108Single Answer
What is a key outcome of risk assessment?
A
Increased customer satisfaction
B
Identification of vulnerabilities
C
Improved employee engagement
D
Enhanced brand image
Question 109Single Answer
In security risk assessment, the term "threat" refers to:
A
Any potential source of harm or danger
B
A company's competitors
C
Employee grievances
D
Natural disasters only
Question 110Single Answer
Risk mitigation strategies aim to:
A
Minimize the impact of identified risks
B
Eliminate employee turnover
C
Maximize revenue growth
D
Replace physical assets
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a preventive measure in risk mitigation?
A
Insurance coverage
B
Installing fire alarms
C
Conducting regular training programs
D
Incident response plans
Question 112Single Answer
Contingency planning is a part of which risk mitigation strategy?
A
Reactive measures
B
Data collection
C
Customer engagement
D
Marketing initiatives
Question 113Single Answer
Which strategy focuses on transferring the risk to another entity?
A
Risk avoidance
B
Risk transfer
C
Risk elimination
D
Risk acceptance
Question 114Single Answer
A critical step in risk mitigation involves:
A
Ignoring minor threats
B
Identifying new markets
C
Implementing corrective measures
D
Increasing budget allocation
Question 115Single Answer
What is the purpose of security policies?
A
Increase market share
B
Simplify administrative tasks
C
Provide a framework for ensuring organizational security
D
Enhance employee benefits
Question 116Single Answer
Security procedures are designed to:
A
Promote collaboration between departments
B
Define specific steps for implementing security measures
C
Optimize financial performance
D
Improve advertising effectiveness
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of an effective security policy?
A
Complexity
B
Clarity and comprehensiveness
C
Exclusivity
D
Ambiguity
Question 118Single Answer
Security policies must comply with:
A
Marketing goals
B
Company culture
C
Legal and regulatory standards
D
Supplier demands
Question 119Single Answer
What is the primary challenge in implementing security policies?
A
Lack of physical assets
B
Resistance to change
C
Excessive legal requirements
D
High employee turnover
Question 120Single Answer
What is the first step in creating a security plan?
A
Implementing physical controls
B
Identifying organizational vulnerabilities
C
Training employees
D
Allocating resources
Question 121Single Answer
Resource allocation in security planning involves:
A
Reducing security staff
B
Assigning adequate resources to high-priority areas
C
Cutting costs wherever possible
D
Limiting security technology investments
Question 122Single Answer
A contingency plan is essential for:
A
Financial forecasting
B
Marketing campaigns
C
Addressing unexpected security incidents
D
Product development
Question 123Single Answer
What is the role of security audits in management?
A
Reducing resource allocation
B
Evaluating the effectiveness of security measures
C
Eliminating compliance requirements
D
Enhancing brand visibility
Question 124Single Answer
Effective security management requires:
A
Ignoring low-priority risks
B
Relying solely on technology
C
A combination of policies, procedures, and technology
D
Delegating tasks to external agencies
Question 125Single Answer
Physical security primarily focuses on:
A
Protecting digital information
B
Safeguarding physical assets and facilities
C
Enhancing employee engagement
D
Increasing revenue generation
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following is a fundamental principle of physical security?
A
Deterrence, detection, and delay
B
Recovery, reallocation, and redundancy
C
Automation, optimization, and standardization
D
Engagement, training, and compliance
Question 127Single Answer
What is the purpose of access control in physical security?
A
Maximizing employee efficiency
B
Restricting unauthorized entry
C
Enhancing customer satisfaction
D
Monitoring business performance
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a physical security measure?
A
Firewalls
B
Antivirus software
C
Surveillance cameras
D
Surveillance cameras
Question 129Single Answer
The placement of security personnel is most effective when:
A
Concentrated at a single entry point
B
Strategically distributed across critical areas
C
Limited to parking lots
D
Eliminated in favor of automation
Question 130Single Answer
Which type of barrier is considered the first line of defense in physical security?
A
Security guards
B
Perimeter fences
C
Motion detectors
D
Emergency response teams
Question 131Single Answer
What is the role of lighting in physical security?
A
Reducing electricity costs
B
Enhancing architectural design
C
Deterring unauthorized activities
D
Increasing asset visibility
Question 132Single Answer
What is a key component of emergency physical security measures?
A
Marketing strategies
B
Financial analysis
C
Evacuation plans
D
Social media engagement
Question 133Single Answer
Biometric security measures include:
A
Fingerprint scanners and facial recognition
B
CCTV cameras and lighting systems
C
Password authentication and firewalls
D
Employee identification cards
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a layered physical security approach?
A
Single security guard at the main gate
B
Combination of fences, cameras, alarms, and guards
C
Use of encrypted emails
D
Employee feedback systems
Question 135Single Answer
Which methodology is commonly used for prioritizing security measures?
A
Marketing segmentation
B
Risk-based approach
C
Employee satisfaction surveys
D
Financial forecasting
Question 136Single Answer
Which act governs data protection and privacy in India?
A
Companies Act, 2013
B
Competition Act, 2002
C
IT Act, 2000
D
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
Question 137Single Answer
Security awareness programs are essential for:
A
Increasing customer loyalty
B
Enhancing marketing reach
C
Educating employees about potential threats
D
Reducing payroll expenses
Question 138Single Answer
Which international standard is widely used for information security management?
A
ISO 9001
B
ISO 14001
C
ISO 27001
D
ISO 45001
Question 139Single Answer
Which type of plan ensures business continuity during emergencies?
A
Marketing plan
B
Financial plan
C
Disaster recovery plan
D
Product development plan
Question 140Single Answer
A company notices an increase in unauthorized access to its server room. What should be implemented first?
A
Hire more IT staff
B
Strengthen access control measures
C
Conduct customer surveys
D
Install new computers
Question 141Single Answer
If an organization detects a potential breach in its security system, what should be the immediate response?
A
Activate the incident response plan
B
Terminate all employees
C
Reboot all systems
D
Notify shareholders
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is the most effective way to reduce insider threats?
A
Increasing salaries
B
Conducting background checks and regular audits
C
Reducing employee working hours
D
Offering better vacation policies
Question 143Single Answer
During a fire drill, what is the most critical aspect?
A
Identifying top performers
B
Ensuring employee safety and evacuation
C
Monitoring fire alarm sounds
D
Calculating drill costs
Question 144Single Answer
When selecting a surveillance system, the key consideration should be:
A
Cost-effectiveness
B
Aesthetics
C
Coverage area and image quality
D
Compatibility with marketing tools
Question 145Single Answer
The principle of defense in depth refers to:
A
Delegating all security responsibilities to one person
B
Implementing multiple layers of security measures
C
Focusing solely on physical security
D
Using only automated systems
Question 146Single Answer
What should be the first action when an employee reports a phishing email?
A
Ignore the report
B
Notify the IT or security team immediately
C
Forward the email to colleagues
D
Delete the email without taking further action
Question 147Single Answer
An effective security audit includes:
A
Verifying marketing strategies
B
Conducting employee engagement activities
C
Reviewing access logs and security protocols
D
Analyzing product performance
Question 148Single Answer
Key performance indicators (KPIs) for security management often include:
A
Marketing conversions
B
Incident response time and policy compliance rates
C
Employee productivity metrics
D
Customer acquisition rates
Question 149Single Answer
What is the main advantage of integrating AI into security management systems?
A
Reducing operational costs
B
Enhancing real-time threat detection and response
C
Eliminating the need for human involvement
D
Automating all organizational tasks
Question 150Single Answer
During a high-risk event, which of the following is the best practice for ensuring safety?
A
Reducing the number of attendees
B
Turning off surveillance systems to avoid overload
C
Deploying additional security personnel and using advanced surveillance tools
D
Allowing unrestricted access to facilitate movement
Question 151Single Answer
What is the primary focus of post-incident analysis in security management?
A
Assigning blame to individuals
B
Identifying vulnerabilities and improving response protocols
C
Reducing operational costs
D
Enhancing marketing efforts
Question 152Single Answer
Which of the following technologies can enhance perimeter security?
A
Cloud storage solutions
B
Online conferencing tools
C
Motion detectors and infrared sensors
D
Content management systems
Question 153Single Answer
Which approach is most effective for preventing tailgating in secure areas?
A
Manual record-keeping
B
Turnstiles and mantraps
C
Employee satisfaction surveys
D
Reducing access controls
Question 154Single Answer
In a security breach involving confidential data, what is the most critical immediate step?
A
Inform the media about the breach
B
Contain the breach and assess the scope of damage
C
Shut down all organizational systems
D
Focus on public relations campaigns
Question 155Single Answer
Which security principle involves granting access only to necessary resources for an individual's job?
A
Defense in depth
B
Security awareness
C
Principle of least privilege
D
Role rotation
Question 156Single Answer
What is the best way to protect sensitive information on employee workstations?
A
Using ergonomic furniture
B
Conducting frequent meetings
C
Enforcing strong password policies and screen lock mechanisms
D
Limiting internet connectivity
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following is a proactive measure to reduce security risks?
A
Relying solely on incident response plans
B
Ignoring minor security incidents
C
Conducting regular risk assessments and employee training
D
Outsourcing all security operations
Question 158Single Answer
An organization wants to ensure its employees are prepared for emergencies. What is the most effective approach?
A
Implementing strict disciplinary actions
B
Organizing regular training sessions and mock drills
C
Increasing employee working hours
D
Monitoring employee activities
Question 159Single Answer
When choosing a vendor for implementing security systems, which factor is the most critical?
A
Vendor’s marketing strategies
B
Vendor’s expertise, reliability, and compliance with security standards
C
Vendor’s ability to provide discounts
D
Vendor’s popularity in the industry
Question 160Single Answer
Which of the following is a key aspect of information security?
A
Data encryption
B
High-speed internet connections
C
Physical security of servers
D
Employee satisfaction
Question 161Single Answer
What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?
A
To boost internet speed
B
To prevent unauthorized access to a network
C
To increase the bandwidth of the network
D
To improve user experience
Question 162Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a cybersecurity measure to protect sensitive information
A
Two-factor authentication
B
Regular team meetings
C
Backup of physical records
D
Employee wellness programs
Question 163Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of data encryption?
A
To enhance data readability
B
To ensure data integrity
C
To secure data from unauthorized access
D
To increase the speed of data transmission
Question 164Single Answer
Which type of security breach involves unauthorized access to personal data, often for financial gain?
A
Phishing
B
Malware
C
Data breach
D
Denial-of-service attack
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following is a critical first step in crisis management?
A
Notify the media
B
Assess the impact of the crisis
C
Ignore the crisis to avoid panic
D
Increase security measures immediately
Question 166Single Answer
Which of these is a key element of an emergency response plan?
A
Media management
B
Evacuation procedures
C
Reducing operating hours
D
Offering discounts
Question 167Single Answer
In crisis management, the role of communication is to:
A
Conceal information to prevent panic
B
Provide clear, timely updates to all stakeholders
C
Ignore rumors
D
Focus on internal operations only
Question 168Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a crisis communication protocol?
A
To provide marketing materials
B
To ensure effective and consistent messaging during a crisis
C
To minimize security risks
D
To increase company revenue
Question 169Single Answer
In a security crisis, what is the main priority for first responders?
A
Media relations
B
Securing the perimeter and ensuring safety
C
Reporting to upper management
D
Analyzing social media responses
Question 170Single Answer
Which of the following laws governs data protection in the European Union?
A
HIPAA
B
GDPR
C
Sarbanes-Oxley Act
D
CCPA
Question 171Single Answer
What is the primary objective of security-related regulations such as GDPR and CCPA?
A
To protect company profits
B
To ensure the privacy of individuals' personal data
C
To improve marketing strategies
D
To increase government surveillance
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT typically part of a compliance audit for security management?
A
Reviewing employee passwords
B
Verifying network security measures
C
Checking for GDPR compliance
D
Promoting new products
Question 173Single Answer
Which of these is a significant challenge for security compliance officers?
A
Maintaining a large customer base
B
Implementing security measures on outdated systems
C
Reducing security budgets
D
Training employees on marketing strategies
Question 174Single Answer
What is the consequence of failing to comply with security regulations like HIPAA or GDPR?
A
Increased market share
B
Legal penalties and fines
C
Positive public relations
D
Improved employee retention
Question 175Single Answer
What is the purpose of conducting a security audit?
A
To increase product sales
B
To assess the effectiveness of security measures
C
To monitor employee behavior
D
To identify marketing opportunities
Question 176Single Answer
Which of the following is typically assessed during a security inspection?
A
Employee work performance
B
The functionality of security systems
C
Company sales figures
D
The company’s logo design
Question 177Single Answer
In a security audit, which area is commonly reviewed?
A
Security camera placements
B
Product packaging designs
C
Employee salaries
D
Customer service ratings
Question 178Single Answer
What type of security audit assesses a company's compliance with specific security regulations?
A
Financial audit
B
Compliance audit
C
Marketing audit
D
Product audit
Question 179Single Answer
Which of the following should be documented during a security audit?
A
Sales goals
B
Network vulnerabilities and gaps
C
Employee vacation schedules
D
Office party schedules
Question 180Single Answer
Why is regular security training important for employees?
A
To enhance team-building skills
B
To ensure they understand and follow security protocols
C
To improve their work-life balance
D
To increase their productivity in marketing
Question 181Single Answer
Which of the following is typically included in a security awareness training program?
A
Stress management techniques
B
Physical fitness training
C
Best practices for identifying phishing attacks
D
Sales techniques
Question 182Single Answer
What is the key benefit of conducting mock drills for security personnel?
A
Improve communication skills
B
Test the effectiveness of emergency procedures
C
Increase company profits
D
Enhance marketing strategies
Question 183Single Answer
What type of training helps security personnel stay up-to-date with new threats and technologies?
A
Annual budget training
B
Continuous professional development and cybersecurity training
C
Health and wellness training
D
Sales and negotiation training
Question 184Single Answer
How often should security awareness training be conducted?
A
Once every five years
B
Only during the hiring process
C
Regularly, to address new and evolving threats
D
Once every decade
Question 185Single Answer
Which of the following is a key emerging trend in cybersecurity?
A
Decreased use of encryption
B
Integration of artificial intelligence in threat detection
C
Ignoring remote working security risks
D
Reducing the use of firewalls
Question 186Single Answer
Which technology is increasingly used to protect data and secure transactions in modern organizations?
A
Blockchain
B
Cloud storage
C
Social media monitoring
D
Video conferencing
Question 187Single Answer
How has the rise of Internet of Things (IoT) devices impacted security management?
A
Increased network security risks
B
Reduced the need for physical security
C
Simplified cybersecurity efforts
D
Eliminated the need for data encryption
Question 188Single Answer
What is the role of machine learning in modern security systems?
A
To reduce employee turnover
B
To predict and prevent potential security threats
C
To analyze customer feedback
D
To create marketing campaigns
Question 189Single Answer
What is a primary concern regarding the use of cloud computing in security management?
A
Unlimited storage space
B
Loss of control over sensitive data
C
High operational costs
D
Enhanced collaboration
Question 190Single Answer
What is the most effective method to secure communications over the internet?
A
Regular password changes
B
Using encryption protocols like HTTPS
C
Disabling pop-up blockers
D
Using Wi-Fi networks only
Question 191Single Answer
What is a common form of data encryption for securing files?
A
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
B
Software updates
C
File backup systems
D
Password complexity
Question 192Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN) in information security?
A
To prevent data from being physically stolen
B
To securely transmit data over the internet
C
To store data in the cloud
D
To increase the speed of internet connections
Question 193Single Answer
Which is a significant threat to information security in cloud computing?
A
Data storage capacity
B
Lack of physical space
C
Data breaches due to shared infrastructure
D
Increased internet bandwidth
Question 194Single Answer
Which of the following is a key strategy to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access?
A
Use of firewalls
B
Data masking
C
Regular content updates
D
Offering rewards for user engagement
Question 195Single Answer
In crisis management, which of the following is important for recovery after the incident is resolved?
A
Investigating who caused the crisis
B
Post-crisis analysis and restoring normal operations
C
Focusing solely on media coverage
D
Reducing the number of employees
Question 196Single Answer
Which of the following is an essential aspect of emergency response communication?
A
Silence to avoid misinformation
B
Timely and clear updates for stakeholders
C
Avoiding any mention of the crisis to the public
D
Not allowing any employees to speak to the media
Question 197Single Answer
What role does leadership play during a crisis management situation?
A
Maintaining complete control and minimizing communication
B
Providing guidance, support, and clear communication
C
Ignoring the situation and waiting for it to resolve
D
Focusing solely on profit recovery
Question 198Single Answer
In a crisis management plan, what is the purpose of having an emergency contact list?
A
To know who to report to during regular operations
B
To quickly reach relevant personnel, authorities, and stakeholders during a crisis
C
To ensure employees have their contact details
D
To create a contact list for external partners only
Question 199Single Answer
What should be done after resolving a crisis to ensure preparedness for future events?
A
Disband all emergency teams
B
Conduct a post-crisis review and update procedures
C
Ignore the crisis and focus on regular operations
D
Eliminate security measures to save costs
Question 200Single Answer
What is the main purpose of conducting a security risk assessment in compliance with regulations?
A
To evaluate company profitability
B
To ensure security measures align with regulatory requirements