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Latest CIPET Technical Assistant Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Aptitude, English Language, Reasoning, Mechanical Engineering
Question Bank CIPET Technical Assistant Exam (Mechanical) - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 7 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 8 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 9 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 10 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 11 :
What is the theme of World Intellectual Property Day 2023, which is observed annually on April 26 for creating awareness of intellectual property and its safeguarding ?
A.IP and Youth: Innovating for a Better Future
B.IP and SMEs: Taking Your Ideas to Market
C.Innovate for a Green Future
D.Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity
Q 12 :
Which of the following countries will host the third in-person Quad Summit on May 24, 2023 ?
A.India
B.The USA
C.Japan
D.Australia
Q 13 :
In April 2023, the State Bank of India (SBI) has opened its fourth exclusive branch for startups. In this context, which of the following Indian cities does not have SBI’s startup branch ?
A.Mumbai
B.Bengaluru
C.New Delhi
D.Chennai
Q 14 :
In April 2023, the Y20 Pre Summit Meeting under G20 is being hosted by the Ministry of Youth and Sports Affairs in which Indian city from 26th to 28th April 2023 ?
A.Bengaluru
B.Leh
C.Kanpur
D.Srinagar
Q 15 :
In April 2023, who among the following has been appointed as the Acting Chief Justice of the Kerala High Court with effect from April 24, 2023 ?
A.Biswanath Somadder
B.Sarasa Venkatanarayana Bhatti
C.S Manikumar
D.Akil Kureshi
Q 16 :
In April 2023, 14th Dalai Lama received the Ramon Magsaysay Award in Person after _____years .
A.59
B.52
C.64
D.70
Q 17 :
Name the company that has recently (in April’23) won First Prize in the Ministry of Steel’s Ispat Rajbhasha Samman” for the yaer 2021-22 .
A.Tata Steel Limited
B.Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
C.JSW Steel Limited
D.ESL Steel Limited
Q 18 :
Which stock exchange company’s subsidiary has recently (in April ’23) introduced new guidelines for retaining a demerged entity in its respective index ?
A.Calcutta Stock Exchange
B.Vadodara Stock Exchange
C.Bombay Stock Exchange
D.National Stock Exchange
Q 19 :
In April 2023, which of the following insurgent group signed a peace pact with the Assam government and Union government ?
A.Dimasa National Liberation Army
B.Kangleipak Communist Party
C.Kanglei Yawol Kanna Lup
D.Revolutionary People’s Front
Q 20 :
In April 2023, who among the following was honoured with the prestigious Leipzig Book Prize for European Understanding in 2023 ?
A.Angela Steidele
B.Carolin Amlinger
C.Oliver Nachtwey
D.Maria Stepanova
English Language
Q 21 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 22 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 23 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 24 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 25 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 26 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 27 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 28 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 29 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 30 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 31 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 32 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 33 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 34 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 35 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 36 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 37 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 38 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 39 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 40 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Aptitude
Q 41 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 42 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 43 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 44 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 45 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 46 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 47 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 48 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 49 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 50 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
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Aptitude
Q 51 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 52 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 53 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 54 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 55 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 56 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 57 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 58 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 59 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 60 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Reasoning
Q 61 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 62 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 63 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 64 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 65 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 68 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 70 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 71 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 72 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 73 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 74 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 75 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 78 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 79 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Mechanical Engineering
Q 81 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 82 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 83 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 84 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 85 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 86 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 87 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 88 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 89 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 90 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Q 91 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 92 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 93 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 94 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 95 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Q 96 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A.0.05m
B.0.07m
C.0.08m
D.0.09m
Q 97 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D. 1 kW
Q 98 :
In a hydraulic coupling
A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Q 99 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A.1,2 and 3 only
B.1,2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1,2, 3 and 4
Q 100 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
