Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 7Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 8Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 9Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 11Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 12Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 13Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 14Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 15Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 16Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 17Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 18Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 19Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 20Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 21Single Answer
Assertion (A) Biosphere constitutes an excellent life- support system which is sustainable and can fulfill all human needs . Reason (R): The size and productivity of the biosphere is limited availability of water, nutrients and environmental conditions .Identify the correct code:
A
Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a)
B
Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
C
(a) is true but (r) is false.
D
(a) is false but (r) is true .
Question 22Single Answer
What are the steps necessary for sustainable management of renewable resources?
A
Avoiding over-exploitation and pollution of biotic systems.
B
Strengthening the resource base and augmentingregenerability of biotic systems .
C
Use of alternative resources .
D
All of these
Question 23Single Answer
Fluxes of heat ,water vapour and momentum are constant in
A
upper atmosphere
B
middle atmosphere
C
Ekman layer
D
surface boundary layer
Question 24Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 25Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 26Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 27Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 28Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 31Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 32Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 33Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 34Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 35Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 36Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 38Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 41Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 42Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 43Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 44Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 45Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 46Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 47Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 48Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 49Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 50Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
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General Ability and Intelligence
Question 51Single Answer
Who is considered the founder of the Sufi movement in India?
A
Qutubuddin Bakhtiar Aunty
B
Nizamuddin Awliya
C
muinuddin Chishti
D
Naseeruddin Mahmud
Question 52Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 53Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 54Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 55Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 56Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 57Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 58Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following is a component of the cytoskeleton?
A
Microtubules
B
Ribosomes
C
Lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 60Single Answer
Microtubules are primarily composed of:
A
Actin
B
Tubulin
C
Myosin
D
Keratin
Question 61Single Answer
Which organization developed the "Bharatpol" portal?
A
Intelligence Bureau
B
Central Bureau of Investigation
C
National Investigation Agency
D
Enforcement Directorate
Question 62Single Answer
Who is the President of Singapore who visited India from?
A
Bongbong Marcos
B
Lee Hsien Loong
C
Tharman Shanmugaratnam
D
Sam Altman
Question 63Single Answer
The Mahabharata Vatika, featuring 37 plant species mentioned in the epic, was developed by the Uttarakhand forest department in which location?
A
Roorkee
B
Pithoragarh
C
Haldwani
D
Kashipur
Question 64Single Answer
The "Global Education Monitoring Report 2025" was released by which organization?
A
World Bank
B
UNESCO
C
OECD
D
UNICEF
Question 65Single Answer
The "World Urban Forum 2025" is scheduled to be held in which city?
A
Paris
B
Kuala Lumpur
C
Abu Dhabi
D
Nairobi
Question 66Single Answer
Who is set to be appointed as the new Chancellor of Germany?
A
Olaf Scholz
B
Friedrich Merz
C
Annalena Baerbock
D
Christian Lindner
Question 67Single Answer
Which province launched Pakistan's first online medicine ordering portal?
A
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
B
Punjab
C
Sindh
D
Balochistan
Question 68Single Answer
What is the name of the mission through which NASA plans to return humans to the Moon by?
A
Artemis
B
Apollo
C
Orion
D
Perseverance
Question 69Single Answer
Who won the Best Actor award at the 2025 Oscars?
A
Joaquin Phoenix
B
Leonardo DiCaprio
C
Will Smith
D
Brad Pitt
Question 70Single Answer
Which country hosted the 2025 World Economic Forum Annual Meeting?
A
Switzerland
B
Singapore
C
United Arab Emirates
D
Germany
Question 71Single Answer
Which city hosted the launch of Capital Radio in 1973?
A
Manchester
B
London
C
Birmingham
D
Glasgow
Question 72Single Answer
The brand "Flora," introduced in 1964, is associated with which product?
A
Cheese
B
Margarine
C
Yogurt
D
Bread
Question 73Single Answer
Which Caribbean country, where French is widely spoken, is considered the home of voodoo?
A
Jamaica
B
Haiti
C
Martinique
D
Guadeloupe
Question 74Single Answer
In the 1984 film "The Bounty," which character was portrayed by Anthony Hopkins?
A
Fletcher Christian
B
William Bligh
C
James Cook
D
Edward Edwards
Question 75Single Answer
Pre-eclampsia is a medical condition that typically develops after how many weeks of pregnancy?
A
12 weeks
B
20 weeks
C
28 weeks
D
36 weeks
Professional Skill
Question 76Single Answer
What does CCA stand for in CCA Rules ?
A
Central Criminal Act
B
Central Civil Accounts
C
Central Civil Services
D
Central Conduct Authority
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT covered by CCA Rules ?
A
Conduct of government servants
B
Leave rules
C
Pension rules
D
Tax regulations
Question 78Single Answer
Under CCA Rules, which is NOT a penalty ?
A
Suspension
B
Promotion
C
Compulsory retirement
D
Dismissal
Question 79Single Answer
What is the maximum period for which a government servant can be placed under suspension under CCA Rules without review ?
A
60 days
B
90 days
C
120 days
D
180 days
Question 80Single Answer
Who has the authority to impose major penalties under CCA Rules ?
A
Head of the department
B
Minister of HRD
C
Prime Minister
D
President of India
Question 81Single Answer
What is the primary goal of industrial security?
A
To facilitate smooth production processes.
B
To ensure the safety of workers.
C
To protect assets, personnel, and information from threats.
D
To comply with environmental regulations.
Question 82Single Answer
A systematic process to identify potential security risks and their impact is known as:
A
Security audit.
B
Threat assessment.
C
Vulnerability analysis.
D
Risk management.
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following is a common physical security measure in an industrial facility?
A
Data encryption.
B
Access control systems.
C
Intrusion detection software.
D
Security awareness training.
Question 84Single Answer
Perimeter security primarily aims to:
A
Control access to specific departments.
B
Detect and deter unauthorized entry to the facility.
C
Monitor employee movement within the plant.
D
Safeguard sensitive information.
Question 85Single Answer
What is the purpose of a security audit in an industrial setting?
A
To train security personnel.
B
To test emergency response procedures.
C
To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security measures.
D
To update safety regulations.
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an internal threat to industrial security?
A
Sabotage by an external group.
B
Theft of company assets by an employee.
C
Cyber attack originating from outside the organization.
D
Espionage by a foreign entity.
Question 87Single Answer
What does the acronym CCTV stand for in the context of industrial security?
A
Centralized Circuit Television.
B
Closed-Circuit Television.
C
Computerized Control and Tracking Vision.
D
Comprehensive Camera Telemetry System.
Question 88Single Answer
The principle of "defense in depth" in security refers to:
A
Relying on a single, strong security measure.
B
Implementing multiple layers of security controls.
C
Keeping security measures secret to maximize effectiveness.
D
Focusing security efforts on the most valuable assets only.
Question 89Single Answer
Background checks are primarily conducted for personnel to:
A
Assess their technical skills.
B
Evaluate their physical fitness.
C
Verify their past conduct and reliability.
D
Determine their salary expectations.
Question 90Single Answer
What is the role of security liaison with local law enforcement agencies?
A
To handle minor internal security breaches.
B
To provide security training to employees.
C
To coordinate responses to major security incidents and threats.
D
To manage the facility's access control system.
Question 91Single Answer
The primary aim of industrial safety regulations is to:
A
Increase production efficiency.
B
Minimize the risk of accidents and injuries to personnel.
C
Reduce operational costs.
D
Ensure compliance with labor laws.
Question 92Single Answer
What is a Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (HIRA)?
A
A method to calculate insurance premiums.
B
A process to identify potential hazards and evaluate associated risks.
C
A technique for emergency evacuation planning.
D
A tool for investigating past accidents.
Question 93Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of industrial fires?
A
Proper grounding of electrical equipment.
B
Regular maintenance of machinery.
C
Improper storage of flammable materials.
D
Use of approved safety equipment.
Question 94Single Answer
What does the acronym PPE stand for in industrial safety?
A
Plant Protective Equipment.
B
Personal Protective Equipment.
C
Process Performance Evaluation.
D
Pollution Prevention Equipment.
Question 95Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of PPE commonly used in industrial settings?
A
Office stationery.
B
Computer keyboards.
C
Safety helmets and gloves.
D
Standard work uniforms.
Question 96Single Answer
What is the significance of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)?
A
They provide information on employee contact details.
B
They detail the safety and handling procedures for chemical substances.
C
They outline the company's production targets.
D
They describe the layout of the industrial facility.
Question 97Single Answer
The "fire triangle" consists of which three elements?
Which class of fire involves flammable liquids such as oil and petrol?
A
Class A
B
Class B
C
Class C
D
Class D
Question 99Single Answer
Which type of fire extinguisher is generally most effective for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles)?
A
Carbon dioxide extinguisher.
B
Dry chemical extinguisher.
C
Water extinguisher.
D
Foam extinguisher.
Question 100Single Answer
What type of fire extinguisher is suitable for Class C fires (electrical fires)?
A
Water extinguisher.
B
Foam extinguisher.
C
Carbon dioxide extinguisher.
D
Halon extinguisher (if permitte)
Question 101Single Answer
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant if:
A
The person has a bad reputation.
B
The officer has a reasonable suspicion that the person has committed a cognizable offense.
C
The person refuses to provide their name and address.
D
The person is merely suspected of a non-cognizable offense.
Question 102Single Answer
According to Section 39 of the BNSS, the person arrested shall:
A
Be immediately released without any conditions.
B
Not be informed of the grounds of arrest.
C
Be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to bail if the offense is bailable.
D
Be detained indefinitely for questioning.
Question 103Single Answer
As per Section 41 of the BNSS, every police officer making an arrest without a warrant shall forthwith:
A
Inform their senior officer only.
B
Communicate to the arrested person's relative or friend about the arrest and place of detention.
C
Release the arrested person after initial questioning.
D
Produce the arrested person before the nearest magistrate within 72 hours.
Question 104Single Answer
Section 43 of the BNSS deals with the arrest of a person who has committed a non-cognizable offense. In such cases, an arrest can generally be made:
A
Without a warrant, if the officer has a reasonable suspicion.
B
Only with a warrant issued by a magistrate.
C
If the person voluntarily surrenders.
D
If the offense is punishable with imprisonment for more than three years.
Question 105Single Answer
Under Section 46 of the BNSS, when a police officer requires a woman to be searched, the search shall be made by:
A
Any male police officer.
B
Another woman police officer or a woman authorized for this purpose.
C
Any respectable person in the locality.
D
The investigating officer, irrespective of gender.
Question 106Single Answer
Section 50 of the BNSS mandates that the arrested person shall be produced before the nearest Judicial Magistrate:
A
Within 48 hours of the arrest.
B
Without unnecessary delay, and in no case exceeding 24 hours excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court.
C
Within 72 hours of the arrest.
D
At the convenience of the investigating officer.
Question 107Single Answer
According to Section 53 of the BNSS, a police officer has the power to take the measurements and photographs of an arrested person:
A
Only if the person consents.
B
If the person is arrested in connection with a cognizable offense.
C
If ordered by a magistrate.
D
In all cases of arrest.
Question 108Single Answer
Section 57 of the BNSS provides for medical examination of the arrested person:
A
Only if the arrested person requests it.
B
Whenever the arrested person is produced before a magistrate.
C
If the police officer has reason to believe that the medical examination will afford evidence as to the commission of any offense by the arrested person or if such examination is necessary for the reasons mentioned therein.
D
Only if the arrested person is injured during arrest.
Question 109Single Answer
Under Section 59 of the BNSS, no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody beyond a period of:
A
24 hours without being produced before a magistrate.
B
48 hours without being produced before a magistrate.
C
15 days in police custody in total.
D
Such period as the police officer deems necessary for investigation.
Question 110Single Answer
Section 60 of the BNSS deals with the procedure when police officer deputes subordinate to make arrest without warrant. The subordinate officer:
A
Can arrest anyone they deem suspicious.
B
Must have a written order specifying the person to be arrested and the offense.
C
Can use their discretion regarding whom to arrest.
D
Only needs a verbal instruction from the senior officer.
Question 111Single Answer
According to Section 96 of the BNSS, a search warrant can be issued by:
A
Any police officer.
B
Only a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.
C
Only a Magistrate.
D
Any gazetted officer.
Question 112Single Answer
Under Section 97 of the BNSS, a Magistrate can issue a search warrant for a place suspected to contain:
A
Stolen property only.
B
Any property with respect to which an offense has been committed, or which is intended to be used for the commission of an offense.
C
Any property that the police officer wants to inspect.
D
Any property belonging to a suspect.
Question 113Single Answer
Section 100 of the BNSS mandates that the officer conducting a search shall:
A
Allow only police officers to be present during the search.
B
Call upon two or more independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality to attend and witness the search.
C
Not prepare a list of things seized during the search.
D
Detain all persons found in the place being searched.
Question 114Single Answer
As per Section 102 of the BNSS, any police officer may, without a warrant, enter any place for the purpose of conducting a search if:
A
They have a general suspicion.
B
They have reason to believe that any delay occasioned by obtaining a search warrant may result in the secreting of evidence.
C
They have the permission of the owner of the place.
D
The offense is non-cognizable.
Question 115Single Answer
Section 103 of the BNSS deals with the power to seize certain property. A police officer seizing property under this section:
A
Can keep the property indefinitely.
B
Shall give a receipt specifying the things seized to the person from whom the property was seized.
C
Is not required to make a list of the property seized.
D
Can dispose of the property immediately if they deem it necessary.
Question 116Single Answer
Under Section 105 of the BNSS, a Magistrate may issue a search warrant to search for persons wrongfully confined:
A
Only if the confinement is for more than 24 hours.
B
If there is reason to believe that any person is confined under such circumstances that the confinement amounts to an offense.
C
Only if the confined person is a minor.
D
Only if the confinement is for ransom.
Question 117Single Answer
Section 107 of the BNSS provides for the search of a place outside the jurisdiction of the issuing Magistrate. In such cases:
A
The warrant is invalid.
B
The warrant can be endorsed by a Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction such place is situated.
C
The police officer must obtain a fresh warrant.
D
The search can be conducted without any endorsement.
Question 118Single Answer
According to Section 109 of the BNSS, the provisions relating to search warrants shall, so far as may be, apply to:
A
General diaries maintained at police stations.
B
Summons to produce documents.
C
Search otherwise than under a warrant.
D
Routine police patrolling.
Question 119Single Answer
Section 110 of the BNSS grants certain powers to officers in charge of police stations regarding search:
A
To search any place within their jurisdiction without a warrant at their discretion.
B
To require an officer in charge of another police station to cause a search to be made in that officer’s jurisdiction.
C
To issue search warrants.
D
To conduct searches only in the presence of a Magistrate.
Question 120Single Answer
According to Section 148 of the BNSS, an assembly of five or more persons is designated an "unlawful assembly" if the common object of the persons composing that assembly is:
A
To engage in peaceful protest.
B
To commit any offense.
C
To discuss matters of public interest.
D
To celebrate a festival.
Question 121Single Answer
What is the primary goal of computer security?
A
To make computers faster.
B
To protect computer systems and data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction.
C
To improve software functionality.
D
To enhance user interface.
Question 122Single Answer
What is unauthorized access to a computer system called?
A
Data mining
B
Hacking
C
Phishing
D
Social engineering
Question 123Single Answer
A program that can replicate itself and spread to other computers is known as a:
A
Firewall
B
Antivirus
C
Virus
D
Spyware
Question 124Single Answer
Malicious software designed to infiltrate and damage a computer system without the user's knowledge or consent is called:
A
Freeware
B
Shareware
C
Malware
D
Firmware
Question 125Single Answer
A self-replicating malware that doesn't need a host program to spread is called a:
A
Virus
B
Worm
C
Spyware
D
Adware
Question 126Single Answer
A type of malware disguised as legitimate software is a:
A
Virus
B
Worm
C
Trojan horse
D
Ransomware
Question 127Single Answer
Malware that encrypts a victim's files and demands a ransom to restore them is known as:
A
Spyware
B
Adware
C
Ransomware
D
Keylogger
Question 128Single Answer
Software that secretly monitors and collects user information is called:
A
Antivirus
B
Firewall
C
Spyware
D
Utility software
Question 129Single Answer
A technique used to trick users into revealing sensitive information, often through deceptive emails or websites, is called:
A
Hacking
B
Phishing
C
Denial of Service
D
Data mining
Question 130Single Answer
What is a data breach?
A
A sudden increase in internet traffic.
B
A security incident in which sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so.
C
A computer system malfunction.
D
An update to software.
Question 131Single Answer
Which cybersecurity principle focuses on granting only the necessary level of access to perform specific tasks?
A
Defense in depth
B
Least privilege
C
Confidentiality
D
Integrity
Question 132Single Answer
The principle of having multiple layers of security controls to protect a system is known as:
A
Least privilege
B
Separation of duties
C
Defense in depth
D
Availability
Question 133Single Answer
Ensuring that data is accurate and complete, and that unauthorized modifications are prevented, relates to the cybersecurity principle of:
A
Confidentiality
B
Integrity
C
Availability
D
Non-repudiation
Question 134Single Answer
Protecting information from unauthorized disclosure is the goal of:
A
Integrity
B
Availability
C
Confidentiality
D
Authentication
Question 135Single Answer
Making sure that authorized users have timely and reliable access to data and resources relates to:
A
Confidentiality
B
Integrity
C
Availability
D
Authorization
Question 136Single Answer
The Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 are applicable to:
A
All employees of the Central Government.
B
All members of the Armed Forces.
C
All employees of Public Sector Undertakings.
D
All employees of State Governments.
Question 137Single Answer
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, Central Government servants are classified into how many groups?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Five
Question 138Single Answer
The classification of Central Government servants under CCS (CCA) Rules is based on:
A
Their pay scale only.
B
The nature of their duties only.
C
Their pay scale and the nature of their duties.
D
Their seniority in service.
Question 139Single Answer
Rule 3 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964 emphasizes on:
A
Promptness and courtesy.
B
Maintenance of discipline.
C
Integrity, devotion to duty, and acting in public interest.
D
Observance of rules regarding attendance.
Question 140Single Answer
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, which of the following is not a prescribed penalty?
A
Censure
B
Fine
C
Reduction in rank
D
Dismissal
Question 141Single Answer
A minor penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules includes:
A
Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period.
B
Withholding of increments of pay.
C
Reduction in rank to a lower post.
D
Compulsory retirement.
Question 142Single Answer
A major penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules includes:
A
Censure.
B
Withholding of promotion.
C
Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period with further directions regarding the postponement of future increments.
D
Suspension.
Question 143Single Answer
Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules deals with the procedure for:
A
Imposing minor penalties.
B
Imposing major penalties.
C
Suspension of a government servant.
D
Appeals against penalties.
Question 144Single Answer
Before imposing a major penalty, a government servant is entitled to:
A
Only a verbal warning.
B
A charge sheet and an opportunity to defend himself.
C
An immediate dismissal order.
D
A transfer to another department.
Question 145Single Answer
The Disciplinary Authority for Group 'C' employees in CISF is usually:
A
The Director General, CISF.
B
A Deputy Inspector General, CISF.
C
An Assistant Commandant, CISF.
D
An Inspector General, CISF.
Question 146Single Answer
Suspension of a government servant can be ordered:
A
Only after a major penalty proceeding has been initiated.
B
When a disciplinary proceeding is contemplated or pending.
C
Only after a charge sheet has been served.
D
Only with the approval of the President of India.
Question 147Single Answer
The period of suspension should normally not exceed:
A
30 days.
B
90 days.
C
180 days.
D
365 days.
Question 148Single Answer
A suspended government servant is entitled to:
A
Full pay and allowances.
B
Subsistence allowance.
C
No pay and allowances.
D
Half pay and full allowances.
Question 149Single Answer
The subsistence allowance payable to a suspended government servant is initially:
A
25% of the basic pay and dearness allowance.
B
50% of the basic pay and dearness allowance.
C
75% of the basic pay and dearness allowance.
D
100% of the basic pay and dearness allowance.
Question 150Single Answer
A departmental inquiry is conducted by:
A
The Disciplinary Authority itself.
B
An Inquiry Officer appointed by the Disciplinary Authority.
C
A representative of the Staff Council.
D
A retired government servant nominated by the accused.