Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 9Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 11Single Answer
The term classic style implies
A
you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B
a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C
both a and b
D
font style
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
The term click implies
A
to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B
a button in a dialog box
C
to shut down or exit a dialog box
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 13Single Answer
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A
Minimize the window
B
Close the associated window or application
C
Maximize the window
D
Move the window
Question 14Single Answer
A command button
A
is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B
is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D
is a small button with an X on it
E
None of these
Question 15Single Answer
What is smallest unit of the information?
A
A bit
B
A byte
C
A block
D
A nibble
Question 16Single Answer
A cursor is
A
to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B
a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C
pressing and holding the main mouse button
D
A button in a dialog box
E
None of these
Question 17Single Answer
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A
A structured collection of data only
B
Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C
A physical device for storing database backups
D
A programming language used only for calculations
Question 18Single Answer
The meaning of cut is
A
to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B
to cut a document in two unequal parts
C
to cut a document in two equal parts
D
Only b and c are correct
Question 19Single Answer
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A
pre - determined setting
B
user - setting
C
default
D
setting
E
None of these
Question 20Single Answer
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
A
wall paper
B
desktop
C
background
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
English Language
Question 41Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 42Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 43Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 44Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 45Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 46Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 47Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 48Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 49Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 50Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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English Language
Question 51Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 52Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 53Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 54Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 55Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
To scowl
A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Atheist
A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Abdicate
A
Forgo
B
Usurp
C
Waive
D
Cede
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A
Little
B
Few
C
Many
D
Big
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A
Virtuoso
B
Linguist
C
Ventriloquist
D
Scholar
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Astringe
A
Liberate
B
Constringe
C
Circumscribe
D
Tauten
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage
The………of gurudakshina is very ancient and it is ……… to the Indian culture and tradition. If you are absolutely ……… about India, then it’s advisable that you first try to understand the meaning of a guru and the …………. of his presence in you to understand what gurudakshina is in ancient India, a teacher or a guru was a spiritually …………. Guide.
The ………..of gurudakshina is very ancient.
A
habit
B
approach
C
perception
D
concept
Data Analysis & Interpretation and Quantitative Aptitude
Question 76Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 78Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 79Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 80Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 81Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 82Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 83Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 84Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 85Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 86Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 87Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 88Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 89Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 90Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 91Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 93Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 94Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 95Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 96Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 98Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 99Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 100Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 101Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 102Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 103Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 104Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 105Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Question 106Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 107Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
18
B
13
C
15
D
11
E
None of these
Question 108Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 109Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
4875
B
4857
C
4785
D
4877
E
None of these
Question 110Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
1512
B
1521
C
1251
D
1531
E
None of these
Question 111Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
6389 – 1212 – 2828 = ?
A
2349
B
2493
C
2934
D
2394
E
None of these
Question 112Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of these
Question 113Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
526 x 12 + 188 = 50 x ?
A
120
B
160
C
140
D
110
E
None of these
Question 114Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
622 – 322 + (?)2 = 3144
A
17
B
16
C
19
D
15
E
None of these
Question 115Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
A
58
B
61
C
63
D
51
E
None of these
General Awareness
Question 116Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 117Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 118Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 119Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 120Single Answer
The earlist manuscripts were written on
A
palm leaves
B
paper
C
wood
D
stones
Question 121Single Answer
What does BC and AD stands for?
A
Anno Domini and Before Common
B
Before Christ and Anno Domini
C
Anno Domini and Before Christ
D
None of the above
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of a manuscript?
(A) It is written on a hard surface such as a stone or a metal.
(B) It is an old book written by hand.
(C) It is written on palm leaf or on specially prepared bark of the birch tree.
A
Only A
B
B and C
C
Only B
D
All of these
Question 123Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is false?
A
History is about changes that over time, about finding out how things were in the past and how things have changed
B
In the histories narrated by British historians about India, the rule of each Governor-General was important
C
James Mill divided Indian History into three periods Hindu, Muslim and Christian
D
The British in India believed that surveys were important for effective administration
Question 124Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 125Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 126Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 127Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 128Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 129Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 130Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 131Single Answer
Which is the longest river in India?
A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari
Question 132Single Answer
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A
Sahyadris
B
Vindhyas
C
Satpuras
D
Aravallis
Question 133Single Answer
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A
Ganges
B
Kosi
C
Son
D
Gandak
Question 134Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 135Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Accountant
Question 136Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers presentation of financial statements?
A
Ind AS 16
B
Ind AS 7
C
Ind AS 2
D
Ind AS 1
Question 137Single Answer
Which Ind AS governs inventories?
A
Ind AS 12
B
Ind AS 2
C
Ind AS 23
D
Ind AS 10
Question 138Single Answer
Which Ind AS deals with statements of cash flows?
A
Ind AS 7
B
Ind AS 10
C
Ind AS 24
D
Ind AS 8
Question 139Single Answer
Which Ind AS addresses accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and errors?
A
Ind AS 21
B
Ind AS 8
C
Ind AS 12
D
Ind AS 7
Question 140Single Answer
Which Ind AS deals with events after the reporting period?
A
Ind AS 34
B
Ind AS 10
C
Ind AS 12
D
Ind AS 19
Question 141Single Answer
Which Ind AS addresses income taxes?
A
Ind AS 16
B
Ind AS 20
C
Ind AS 12
D
Ind AS 24
Question 142Single Answer
Which Ind AS governs property, plant and equipment?
A
Ind AS 16
B
Ind AS 23
C
Ind AS 40
D
Ind AS 2
Question 143Single Answer
Which Ind AS relates to employee benefits?
A
Ind AS 24
B
Ind AS 38
C
Ind AS 21
D
Ind AS 19
Question 144Single Answer
Which Ind AS concerns government grants?
A
Ind AS 20
B
Ind AS 23
C
Ind AS 37
D
Ind AS 12
Question 145Single Answer
Which Ind AS addresses borrowing costs?
A
Ind AS 28
B
Ind AS 24
C
Ind AS 40
D
Ind AS 23
Question 146Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers related party disclosures?
A
Ind AS 19
B
Ind AS 37
C
Ind AS 34
D
Ind AS 24
Question 147Single Answer
Which Ind AS governs impairment of assets?
A
Ind AS 20
B
Ind AS 16
C
Ind AS 36
D
Ind AS 40
Question 148Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers provisions, contingent liabilities and contingent assets?
A
Ind AS 37
B
Ind AS 12
C
Ind AS 40
D
Ind AS 38
Question 149Single Answer
Which Ind AS governs intangible assets?
A
Ind AS 36
B
Ind AS 38
C
Ind AS 41
D
Ind AS 16
Question 150Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers investment property?
A
Ind AS 23
B
Ind AS 16
C
Ind AS 2
D
Ind AS 40
Question 151Single Answer
Which Ind AS applies to agriculture?
A
Ind AS 20
B
Ind AS 34
C
Ind AS 41
D
Ind AS 28
Question 152Single Answer
Which Ind AS governs first-time adoption of Indian Accounting Standards?
A
Ind AS 103
B
Ind AS 101
C
Ind AS 102
D
Ind AS 105
Question 153Single Answer
Which Ind AS addresses share-based payment?
A
Ind AS 102
B
Ind AS 103
C
Ind AS 101
D
Ind AS 107
Question 154Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers business combinations?
A
Ind AS 111
B
Ind AS 110
C
Ind AS 103
D
Ind AS 105
Question 155Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers financial instruments disclosures?
A
Ind AS 113
B
Ind AS 109
C
Ind AS 107
D
Ind AS 110
Question 156Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers operating segments?
A
Ind AS 107
B
Ind AS 112
C
Ind AS 110
D
Ind AS 108
Question 157Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers financial instruments recognition and measurement?
A
Ind AS 109
B
Ind AS 115
C
Ind AS 110
D
Ind AS 107
Question 158Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers consolidated financial statements?
A
Ind AS 110
B
Ind AS 113
C
Ind AS 112
D
Ind AS 111
Question 159Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers joint arrangements?
A
Ind AS 111
B
Ind AS 110
C
Ind AS 115
D
Ind AS 112
Question 160Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers disclosure of interests in other entities?
A
Ind AS 110
B
Ind AS 113
C
Ind AS 112
D
Ind AS 108
Question 161Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers fair value measurement?
A
Ind AS 113
B
Ind AS 116
C
Ind AS 115
D
Ind AS 109
Question 162Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers revenue from contracts with customers?
A
Ind AS 115
B
Ind AS 20
C
Ind AS 23
D
Ind AS 16
Question 163Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers leases?
A
Ind AS 116
B
Ind AS 115
C
Ind AS 117
D
Ind AS 40
Question 164Single Answer
Which Ind AS covers insurance contracts?
A
Ind AS 116
B
Ind AS 104
C
Ind AS 117
D
Ind AS 115
Question 165Single Answer
Which entity notifies Ind AS for companies in India?
A
Central Board of Direct Taxes
B
Securities Appellate Tribunal
C
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D
Reserve Bank of India
Question 166Single Answer
How is inventory generally measured under Ind AS 2?
A
Replacement cost only
B
Selling price only
C
Lower of cost and net realisable value
D
Higher of cost and net realisable value
Question 167Single Answer
Which method is prohibited for cost assignment of ordinarily interchangeable inventories under Ind AS 2?
A
FIFO
B
Weighted average
C
Specific identification for non-interchangeable goods
D
LIFO
Question 168Single Answer
An adjusting event after the reporting period provides evidence about what?
A
Only future budgets
B
Conditions existing at the reporting date
C
Only conditions created after the reporting date
D
Only later dividend policies
Question 169Single Answer
Which technique generally measures a provision under Ind AS 37?
A
Original contract revenue
B
Highest imaginable loss
C
Zero in all cases
D
Best estimate of expenditure required to settle present obligation
Question 170Single Answer
Which item is normally not recognised as an asset when only a contingent asset exists?
A
Cash in bank
B
Trade receivable
C
Purchased equipment
D
Contingent asset
Question 171Single Answer
Which type of tax is income tax?
A
Indirect Tax
B
Goods and Services Tax
C
Customs Duty
D
Direct Tax
Question 172Single Answer
Which authority administers direct taxes in India?
A
CBDT
B
RBI
C
CBIC
D
SEBI
Question 173Single Answer
What does CBDT stand for?
A
Central Board of Direct Taxes
B
Central Bureau of Domestic Taxation
C
Central Board of Duty and Trade
D
Central Banking Department of Taxation
Question 174Single Answer
Which Act governed the principal framework of income taxation in India for tax years before the Income-tax Act, 2025 took effect?
A
Companies Act, 1956
B
Income-tax Act, 1961
C
Indian Contract Act, 1872
D
CGST Act, 2017
Question 175Single Answer
On which date did the Income-tax Act, 2025 come into force?
A
1 April 2025
B
1 April 2026
C
1 January 2026
D
1 July 2026
Question 176Single Answer
What is the general meaning of the previous year under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
A
Calendar year after the assessment year
B
Financial year immediately preceding the assessment year
C
Year in which tax refund is received
D
Year in which the assessment order is issued
Question 177Single Answer
Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, which term refers to the year following the previous year in which income is assessed?
A
Tax Audit Year
B
Accounting Quarter
C
Calendar Year
D
Assessment Year
Question 178Single Answer
Which assessment year ordinarily corresponds to financial year 2025-26 under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
A
AY 2026-27
B
AY 2025-26
C
AY 2027-28
D
AY 2024-25
Question 179Single Answer
Which section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 defined the term person?
A
Section 4
B
Section 10
C
Section 2(31)
D
Section 14
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following is included in the definition of person under Section 2(31)?
A
Only individuals
B
Individual, HUF, company, firm and specified other entities
C
Only registered companies
D
Only government employees
Question 181Single Answer
What does HUF stand for in income taxation?
A
Human Unified Fund
B
Household Utility Fund
C
Higher Urban Finance
D
Hindu Undivided Family
Question 182Single Answer
Which section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was the principal charging section for income tax?
A
Section 10
B
Section 14
C
Section 80C
D
Section 4
Question 183Single Answer
Which section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 dealt with the scope of total income?
A
Section 5
B
Section 2
C
Section 44
D
Section 80
Question 184Single Answer
Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, the taxability of global income was most directly linked to which factor?
A
Residential status
B
Type of bank account
C
Employee designation
D
Number of investments
Question 185Single Answer
Which section of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribed residential status?
A
Section 15
B
Section 6
C
Section 28
D
Section 50
Question 186Single Answer
Which residential category generally covered an individual resident in India without satisfying the conditions for ordinary residence?
A
Non-Resident
B
Resident and Ordinarily Resident
C
Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
D
Foreign Company
Question 187Single Answer
Under the general residence test of Section 6 of the 1961 Act, an individual staying in India for how many days or more in a previous year satisfied one basic residence condition?
A
90 days
B
30 days
C
120 days
D
182 days
Question 188Single Answer
Which income was generally taxable in India for a resident and ordinarily resident individual under the 1961 Act?
A
Only income from Indian banks
B
Only income received in cash
C
Only salary from Indian employers
D
Worldwide income, subject to applicable provisions and relief
Question 189Single Answer
Which statement generally applied to a non-resident's total income under Section 5 of the 1961 Act?
A
Income received or deemed received in India and income accruing or deemed accruing in India was relevant
B
Every foreign income was automatically taxable
C
Only salary income was taxable
D
Only agricultural income was taxable
Question 190Single Answer
Which section of the 1961 Act dealt with income deemed to accrue or arise in India?
A
Section 80D
B
Section 9
C
Section 139
D
Section 54
Question 191Single Answer
What is the primary objective of an independent financial statement audit?
A
To prepare the financial statements
B
To express an opinion on the financial statements
C
To guarantee business profitability
D
To eliminate all business risks
Question 192Single Answer
Which term describes an independent examination of financial information with a view to expressing an opinion?
A
Bookkeeping
B
Auditing
C
Budgeting
D
Costing
Question 193Single Answer
Who is primarily responsible for preparing financial statements?
A
External Auditor
B
Management
C
Bank Manager
D
Tax Department
Question 194Single Answer
What level of assurance is normally provided by an audit conducted under Standards on Auditing?
A
Absolute assurance
B
Reasonable assurance
C
No assurance
D
Guaranteed assurance
Question 195Single Answer
What does reasonable assurance mean?
A
Assurance that no fraud exists
B
Complete certainty about every transaction
C
High but not absolute level of assurance
D
Assurance only about cash transactions
Question 196Single Answer
Which characteristic is essential for an external auditor?
A
Authority to approve every sale
B
Ownership of the audited company
C
Participation in daily management
D
Independence
Question 197Single Answer
Which auditing principle requires an auditor to maintain a questioning mind?
A
Consistency
B
Materiality
C
Professional Skepticism
D
Historical Cost
Question 198Single Answer
Which Standard on Auditing deals with the overall objectives of the independent auditor?
A
SA 230
B
SA 200
C
SA 500
D
SA 700
Question 199Single Answer
Which Standard on Auditing deals with agreeing the terms of audit engagements?
A
SA 210
B
SA 315
C
SA 240
D
SA 530
Question 200Single Answer
What is an audit engagement letter?
A
Written document recording agreed audit terms and responsibilities