Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 2Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 3Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 4Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 5Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 6Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 7Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 8Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 9Single Answer
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 10Single Answer
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline
Question 11Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 13Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 14Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 15Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
English Language
Question 21Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 22Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 23Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 24Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 25Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 31Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 32Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 33Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 34Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 35Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 36Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 37Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 38Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 39Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 40Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
Data Analysis & Interpretation and Quantitative Aptitude
Question 46Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 48Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 49Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 50Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
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Data Analysis & Interpretation and Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 53Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 54Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 55Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 56Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 58Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 59Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 60Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
A
4%
B
3%
C
1%
D
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A ᴖ (A ᴗ B) equal to ?
A
Complement of A
B
Complement of B
C
B
D
A
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
A
10%
B
15%
C
20%
D
25%
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
A
25%
B
100%
C
75%
D
0%
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Read the passage below and solve the question based on it.
5% of the passengers do not like coffee, tea and lassi and 10% like all the three, 20% like coffee and tea, 25% like lassi and coffee and 25% like lassi and tea. 55% like coffee, 50% like tea, and 50% like lassi.
Where C = Coffee, T = Tea and L =Lassi
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
A
15
B
25
C
40
D
75
General Awareness
Question 71Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 72Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 73Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 74Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 75Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 76Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 77Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 78Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 79Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 81Single Answer
What is family ?
A
Family is the primary group of the society
B
Family is the secondary group of the society
C
It is the periphery of the social structure
D
None of the above
Question 82Single Answer
Family according to Biesenz and Biesenz
A
family is a group defined by sex relationship
B
it is the periphery of the social structure
C
a women with a child and a man to look after them
D
The family is a social institution
Question 83Single Answer
Which is not the characteristic of family ?
A
Universality
B
Sense of responsbility
C
Social control
D
All of the above
Question 84Single Answer
One of the characteristic of family is
A
nuclear position in the society
B
system of nomenclature
C
Both (1) and (2)
D
None of the above
Question 85Single Answer
What are the functions of the family ?
A
Emotional bonding
B
Protection
C
Economic support
D
All of the above
Question 86Single Answer
Phangnon Konyak, who was seen in the news, is a Member of Parliament from which state/UT ?
A
Nagaland
B
Manipur
C
Sikkim
D
Arunachal Pradesh
Question 87Single Answer
Which river serves as the predominant border between the United States and Mexico ?
A
Niagara River
B
Rio Grande River
C
St. Lawrence River
D
Detroit River
Question 88Single Answer
Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state/UT ?
A
Maharashtra
B
Goa
C
West Bengal
D
Manipur
Question 89Single Answer
Which is the first African country to initiative a debt-for-nature swap ?
A
Egypt
B
South Africa
C
Gabon
D
Kenya
Question 90Single Answer
X-59, also known as the ‘Son of Concorde, is an experimental supersonic aircraft to which country ?
A
Russia
B
China
C
USA
D
UAE
Civil
Question 91Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 92Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 93Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 94Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 95Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 96Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 97Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 98Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 99Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 100Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 101Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60
Question 102Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A
0.5 m2
B
1.0 m2
C
3 m2
D
0.75 m2
Question 103Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm
Question 104Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 105Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A
121o25'
B
148o25'
C
58o25'
D
211o25'
Question 106Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe
Question 107Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May
Question 109Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value
Question 110Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A
2.5 m2
B
0.55 m2
C
1.10 m2
D
0.25 m2
Question 111Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law
Question 113Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A
C4AF
B
C3S
C
C3A
D
C2A
Question 115Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m
Question 116Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Question 118Single Answer
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test
Question 119Single Answer
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan
Question 121Single Answer
The following two statements pertain to a simply supported under reinforced concrete beam. Select the correct option with regard is these statements .
1. The failure of the beam takes place due to the yielding of steel .
2. The moment of resistance of the beam is more than that of the balanced section of the beam .
A
Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false
B
Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true
C
Both statement 1 and 2 are true
D
Both statement 1 and 2 are false
Question 122Single Answer
A continuous beam ABC with span AB = BC = L is shown in the figure. Support A is fixed type, and supports B and C are roller type. The kinematic indeterminacy of the beam is :
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 123Single Answer
The soils transported and deposited by a river or a stream care called :
A
aeolian soils
B
alluvial soils
C
lacustrine soils
D
marine soils
Question 124Single Answer
What is the mechanical extra widening required for a two-lane pavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve of radius 250 m, if the longest wheel base of a vehicle expected on the road is 5 m with a design speed of 70 km/h ?
A
0.155 m
B
0.225 m
C
0.100 m
D
0.552 m
Question 125Single Answer
The following are some of the errors that area associated with a total station survey work. Vertical collimation error, Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error Categorize the given errors as those due to temporary adjustments (T) and permanent adjustments (P).
A
T : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Eccentricity error
B
T : Centering error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
P : Vertical collimation error
C
T : Eccentricity error, Horizontal collimation error
P : Centering error, Vertical collimation error, Eccentricity error
D
T : Centering error
P : Vertical collimation error, Horizontal collimation error, Eccentricity error
Question 126Single Answer
According to IS 800 : 2007, identify the property which is considered as a mechanical property of structural steel, important in design .
A
Unit mass
B
Maximum percent elongation on a standard gauge length
C
Co - efficient of thermal expansion
D
Poisson ration
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for measuring air content in fresh concrete ?
A
Blaine air permeability method
B
Gravimetric method
C
Pressure method
D
Volumetric method
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following methods is NOT used for the calculation of depreciation of a structure ?
A
Straight line method
B
Quantity survey method
C
Geometric projection method
D
Declining balance method
Question 129Single Answer
The failure of an over reinforced concrete beam is due to :
A
compression failure
B
mid failure
C
shear failure
D
tension failure
Question 130Single Answer
In which type of estimate is 'Court yard' NOT considered ?
A
Unit rate estimate
B
Plinth area estimate
C
Lump sum estimate
D
Cub rate estimate
Question 131Single Answer
Match the items in List 1 (name of quantities) with those in List 2 (unit of quantities in the SI system). Use codes in List for matching .
List 1 List 2
M. Dynamic viscosity 1. N/m
N. Kinematic viscosity 2. N.m
O. Surface tension 3. N.s/m2
P. Energy 4. m2/s
A
M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
B
M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2
C
M-4, N-3, O-1, P-2
D
M-2, N-4, O-1, P-3
Question 132Single Answer
A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to the following bending moments .
Moment due to dead load = 50 kNm
Moment due to live load = 50 kNm
Moment due to seismic load = 20 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state of collapse is :
A
120 kNm
B
180 kNm
C
144 kNm
D
150 kNm
Question 133Single Answer
In a workshop shade, trusses are spaced at 4 m centre to centre. The purlins are spaced at 1.4 m centre to centre along the slope of 300. The (Dead Load + Live load) is 3 kNm2 and the wind load in 5 kNm2. The vertical and the inclined point loads, respectively, will be :
A
14.54 kN and 28 kN
B
17.8 kN and 48 kN
C
20 kN and 24 kN
D
18 kN and 21 kN
Question 134Single Answer
What will be the percentage of passing aggregate for the grading zone 1 of sieve size 1.18 mm ?
A
100%
B
10% - 20%
C
7% - 25%
D
30% - 70%
Question 135Single Answer
The annual or periodical payment for repayment of the capital amount invested on a property for a specified period is known as :
A
depreciation
B
obsolescence
C
amortization
D
annuity
Question 136Single Answer
Among the following river training works, which are aligned either parallel or at an angle to the banks, identify the one having a difference in alignment when compared to others :
A
Flood walls
B
Guide banks
C
Groynes
D
Levees
Question 137Single Answer
The test commonly to determine the grade of bitumen in terms of its hardness is :
A
the penetration test
B
the ductility test
C
the softening point test
D
the flash and fire point test
Question 138Single Answer
A level section has formation width of 10 m, side slope of 1 : 2 (vertical : horizontal) and central height of 2 m. Determine the quantity of earthwork required for a 1 km length of formation (in m3) .
A
24,000
B
20,000
C
18,000
D
28,000
Question 139Single Answer
Which type of odour characteristic is NOT used for classifying odour of a given water sample as per IS 3025 (part-5) 1983 ?
A
Degree of sweetness
B
Degree of turbidity
C
Degree of pungency
D
Degree of smokiness
Question 140Single Answer
The liquid limit and plastic limit of clay materials is 45% and 25% respectively, what is the activity of clay materials if 20% by weight of particles of size less than 2 microns ?
A
0
B
2
C
3
D
1
Question 141Single Answer
Among the following corrections applied for tape measurement, identify the correction which is NOT always negative in sign :
A
Sag
B
Slope of taype
C
Pull
D
Wrong alignment
Question 142Single Answer
A village has a population of 200 with as average rate of water demand as 100 litre per capita per day. A rapid sand filter having an average filtration rate of 100 litre/hour/m2 is to be designed for water treatment. The area of rapid sand filter required is : (Take the ratio of maximum demand to average demand as 1.5.)
A
8.00 m2
B
14.50 m2
C
10.00 m2
D
12.50 m2
Question 143Single Answer
If the bearing of the side AB of a regular hexagon traverse ABCDFFA shown in the figure is 36o45', the bearing of the adjacent side BC of the traverse is :
A
216o15'
B
96o45'
C
83o15'
D
156o45'
Question 144Single Answer
Pigment volume concentration (PVC) of paint is defined as :
A
B
C
D
Question 145Single Answer
The Indian Roads Congress (IRC) was founded in the year :