A refrigeration plant provides 90 kW of cooling for 15 kW compressor input. What is its COP?
A
6
B
7
C
105
D
0.167
Question 2Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 400 kg and occupies 8 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
3200 kg/m³
B
150 kg/m³
C
0.020 kg/m³
D
50 kg/m³
Question 3Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 80 g and moisture mass 7 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
1142.9%
B
96.2%
C
8.8%
D
91.2%
Question 4Single Answer
A grain sample contains 40 kg of dry solids and 8 kg of water. What is its moisture content on a wet basis (nearest 0.1%)?
A
16.7%
B
83.3%
C
20.0%
D
26.7%
Question 5Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 1000 kg and occupies 25 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
140 kg/m³
B
0.025 kg/m³
C
40 kg/m³
D
25000 kg/m³
Question 6Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 38 g and moisture mass 3 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
92.1%
B
7.9%
C
1266.7%
D
97.1%
Question 7Single Answer
Which sorter identifies defects based on colour or optical signatures?
A
Bucket elevator
B
Hammer mill
C
Air lock
D
Optical colour sorter
Question 8Single Answer
Which grain property is important for designing hopper discharge angles?
A
Angle of repose
B
Specific heat
C
Colour value
D
Protein content
Question 9Single Answer
Which rice-milling stage removes bran layers from brown rice?
A
Whitening
B
Winnowing
C
Drying
D
Threshing
Question 10Single Answer
Which equipment removes ferrous contaminants from grain?
A
Aspirator
B
Cyclone separator
C
Indented cylinder
D
Magnetic separator
Question 11Single Answer
Which edible-oil refining step removes phospholipids and gums?
A
Blanching
B
Degumming
C
Extrusion
D
Pearling
Question 12Single Answer
The equipment separates particles that primarily by size is:
A
Gravity separator
B
Screen cleaner
C
Optical sorter
D
Magnetic separator
Question 13Single Answer
Which packaging material is generally an excellent oxygen and moisture barrier when undamaged?
A
Uncoated kraft paper
B
Open-weave jute
C
Aluminium foil laminate
D
Perforated mesh
Question 14Single Answer
A grain sample contains 46 kg of dry solids and 12 kg of water. What is its moisture content on a wet basis (nearest 0.1%)?
A
79.3%
B
20.7%
C
26.1%
D
30.7%
Question 15Single Answer
Unit is that commonly used for grain bulk density:
A
Joules per kilogram-kelvin
B
Watts per metre-kelvin
C
Pascals per second
D
Kilograms per cubic metre
Question 16Single Answer
A food portion has 10 g protein, 15 g fat and 68 g digestible carbohydrate. Estimate energy using 4-9-4 kcal/g factors.
A
487 kcal
B
837 kcal
C
372 kcal
D
447 kcal
Question 17Single Answer
A grain sample contains 33 kg of dry solids and 12 kg of water. What is its moisture content on a wet basis (nearest 0.1%)?
A
73.3%
B
36.7%
C
36.4%
D
26.7%
Question 18Single Answer
Which bagging machine operation verifies filled bag weight?
A
Roasting
B
Checkweighing
C
Degumming
D
Tempering
Question 19Single Answer
Which equipment grades grains principally by length?
A
Thermocouple
B
Aspirator
C
Refrigeration compressor
D
Indented-cylinder separator
Question 20Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 1200 kg and occupies 10 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
12000 kg/m³
B
0.008 kg/m³
C
120 kg/m³
D
220 kg/m³
Question 21Single Answer
Which type of water is generally removed first during grain drying?
A
Water of crystallization
B
Chemically bound water
C
Water in starch molecules only
D
Free or loosely held water
Question 22Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 700 kg and occupies 8 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
187.5 kg/m³
B
87.5 kg/m³
C
0.011 kg/m³
D
5600 kg/m³
Question 23Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 76 g and moisture mass 3 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
2533.3%
B
3.9%
C
96.1%
D
101.1%
Question 24Single Answer
Which device removes stones by exploiting density and motion differences?
A
Retort
B
Destoner
C
Blancher
D
Polisher
Question 25Single Answer
What is measured as grain mass divided by the volume occupied only by grain solids?
A
Porosity
B
True density
C
Bulk density
D
Moisture ratio
Question 26Single Answer
A grain sample contains 44 kg of dry solids and 3 kg of water. What is its moisture content on a wet basis (nearest 0.1%)?
A
6.8%
B
93.6%
C
16.4%
D
6.4%
Question 27Single Answer
A grain sample contains 21 kg of dry solids and 12 kg of water. What is its moisture content on a wet basis (nearest 0.1%)?
A
36.4%
B
63.6%
C
46.4%
D
57.1%
Question 28Single Answer
Which device measures grain moisture by electrical response after calibration?
A
Lux meter
B
Tachometer
C
Aneroid barometer
D
Electronic grain moisture meter
Question 29Single Answer
Which hopper pattern leaves stagnant material near its walls?
A
Mass flow
B
Funnel flow
C
Plug flow of air
D
Countercurrent drying
Question 30Single Answer
Which flow behavior describes all material in a hopper moving as the outlet discharges?
A
Mass flow
B
Funnel flow
C
Turbulent boiling
D
Laminar air flow
Question 31Single Answer
System that can link sampling outcomes to a particular stored lot:
A
Unlabelled bulk stock
B
Anonymous sample jar
C
Only warehouse paint
D
Unique lot identification
Question 32Single Answer
The correct description of equilibrium moisture content is:
A
Maximum possible water content
B
Moisture after boiling
C
Initial moisture at harvest
D
Moisture level at which grain and air exchange no net water
Question 33Single Answer
Which operation conditions wheat moisture before milling?
A
Sterilization
B
Tempering
C
Hydrogenation
D
Carbonation
Question 34Single Answer
A refrigeration plant provides 40 kW of cooling for 20 kW compressor input. What is its COP?
A
60
B
3
C
2
D
0.500
Question 35Single Answer
A refrigeration plant provides 30 kW of cooling for 20 kW compressor input. What is its COP?
A
0.667
B
1.5
C
2.5
D
50
Question 36Single Answer
Which system can link sampling outcomes to a particular stored lot?
A
Anonymous sample jar
B
Unlabelled bulk stock
C
Unique lot identification
D
Only warehouse paint
Question 37Single Answer
On a dry basis, moisture content uses which denominator?
A
Total wet mass
B
Mass of packaging
C
Mass of bone-dry solids
D
Volume of air
Question 38Single Answer
Which measure is often used to compare energy consumed per unit water evaporated?
A
Fineness modulus
B
Protein efficiency ratio
C
Specific energy consumption
D
Compression index
Question 39Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 41 g and moisture mass 15 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
36.6%
B
273.3%
C
68.4%
D
63.4%
Question 40Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 53 g and moisture mass 1 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
98.1%
B
103.1%
C
1.9%
D
5300.0%
Question 41Single Answer
Which food-quality characteristic is evaluated by sensory panel?
A
Bulk density only
B
Grain porosity only
C
Thermal conductivity only
D
Flavour acceptability
Question 42Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 72 g and moisture mass 11 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
15.3%
B
84.7%
C
654.5%
D
89.7%
Question 43Single Answer
A validated treatment achieves a 2-log reduction from 1,000,000 viable microbial cells. How many cells are expected to survive mathematically?
A
10000 cells
B
999998 cells
C
100000 cells
D
250000 cells
Question 44Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 1000 kg and occupies 5 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
300 kg/m³
B
200 kg/m³
C
0.005 kg/m³
D
5000 kg/m³
Question 45Single Answer
A food portion has 16 g protein, 18 g fat and 51 g digestible carbohydrate. Estimate energy using 4-9-4 kcal/g factors.
A
430 kcal
B
340 kcal
C
765 kcal
D
470 kcal
Question 46Single Answer
Mill that commonly uses paired rolls for wheat grinding:
A
Roller mill
B
Sugar centrifuge
C
Balling press
D
Rotary evaporator
Question 47Single Answer
The treatment of rice is that primarily intended to reduce breakage in milling and improve nutritional retention is:
A
Carbonation
B
Parboiling
C
Bleaching
D
Pickling
Question 48Single Answer
A food portion has 9 g protein, 4 g fat and 65 g digestible carbohydrate. Estimate energy using 4-9-4 kcal/g factors.
A
372 kcal
B
312 kcal
C
702 kcal
D
332 kcal
Question 49Single Answer
Which property relates force to elongation within the linear elastic range?
A
Water activity
B
Bulk density
C
Young's modulus
D
Thermal conductivity
Question 50Single Answer
Grain characteristic is that commonly evaluated using a standard sieve set:
A
Enzyme activity
B
Particle-size distribution
C
Salt content
D
Vitamin retention
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A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 1000 kg and occupies 2 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
600 kg/m³
B
500 kg/m³
C
2000 kg/m³
D
0.002 kg/m³
Question 52Single Answer
A validated treatment achieves a 4-log reduction from 100 viable microbial cells. How many cells are expected to survive mathematically?
A
6.25 cells
B
0.01 cells
C
96 cells
D
10 cells
Question 53Single Answer
Which equipment grades grains principally by length?
A
Aspirator
B
Refrigeration compressor
C
Indented-cylinder separator
D
Thermocouple
Question 54Single Answer
Which equipment separates mixed grain fractions through specific gravity differences?
A
Gravity separator
B
Tray dryer
C
Ribbon blender
D
Retort
Question 55Single Answer
A refrigeration plant provides 60 kW of cooling for 5 kW compressor input. What is its COP?
A
13
B
0.083
C
65
D
12
Question 56Single Answer
A validated treatment achieves a 4-log reduction from 10,000 viable microbial cells. How many cells are expected to survive mathematically?
A
1000 cells
B
9996 cells
C
625 cells
D
1 cells
Question 57Single Answer
A bulk grain consignment has a mass of 700 kg and occupies 20 m³. What is its bulk density?
A
135 kg/m³
B
14000 kg/m³
C
35 kg/m³
D
0.029 kg/m³
Question 58Single Answer
Which rice-milling stage removes the outer husk?
A
Polishing
B
Parboiling
C
Tempering
D
Dehusking
Question 59Single Answer
A food analysis reports total mass 79 g and moisture mass 6 g. What is dry-matter fraction by mass (nearest 0.1%)?
A
92.4%
B
7.6%
C
1316.7%
D
97.4%
Question 60Single Answer
A food portion has 7 g protein, 13 g fat and 79 g digestible carbohydrate. Estimate energy using 4-9-4 kcal/g factors.
A
396 kcal
B
501 kcal
C
891 kcal
D
461 kcal
General Awareness
Question 61Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 62Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 63Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 64Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 65Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 66Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 67Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 68Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 69Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 71Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 72Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 73Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 74Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 75Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 76Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 77Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 79Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 80Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 81Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 82Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 83Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 84Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 85Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 86Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 87Single Answer
The process of soil formation is called :
A
Erosion
B
Weathering
C
Deposition
D
Lithification
Question 88Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 89Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 90Single Answer
In which year did India successfully launch its first satellite, Aryabhata?
A
1975
B
1965
C
1980
D
1990
Question 91Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 92Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Question 93Single Answer
The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?
A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal
Question 94Single Answer
The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:
A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore
Question 95Single Answer
Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?
A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission
Question 96Single Answer
The Indian Navy plans to induct how many warships in 2026 according to Defence Minister Rajnath Singh?
A
10
B
12
C
18
D
15
Question 97Single Answer
The Central Government banned which highly toxic herbicide citing risks to human and animal life?
A
Glyphosate
B
2,4-D
C
Atrazine
D
Paraquat Dichloride
Question 98Single Answer
US forces completed their withdrawal from Iraq after approximately how many years of presence?
A
10 years
B
20+ years (since 2003)
C
15 years
D
30 years
Question 99Single Answer
Which airline flight experienced a cockpit stabbing incident involving the co-pilot attempting to crash the plane while en route to Israel?
A
Emirates
B
Flydubai
C
Qatar Airways
D
Etihad
Question 100Single Answer
India’s women’s compound archery team won gold at the Asian Games 2026 by defeating which country?
A
South Korea
B
Japan
C
China
D
Chinese Taipei
Reasoning & Computer Aptitude
Question 101Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 102Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 103Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 104Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 105Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 106Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 107Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 108Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 109Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 110Single Answer
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar
Question 111Single Answer
What is active desktop ?
A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these
Question 112Single Answer
What is meant by an active window?
A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first
Question 113Single Answer
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system
Question 114Single Answer
An application is
A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these
Question 115Single Answer
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these
Question 116Single Answer
The term Briefcase is used for
A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these
Question 117Single Answer
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically
Question 118Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 119Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 120Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 121Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 122Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 123Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 124Single Answer
Who is known as the Father of Computer?
A
Alan Turing
B
Charles Babbage
C
John von Neumann
D
Herman Hollerith
Question 125Single Answer
Which calculating device is considered one of the earliest known calculating tools?
A
Abacus
B
Pascaline
C
ENIAC
D
Difference Engine
Question 126Single Answer
Who invented the Pascaline?
A
John Napier
B
Gottfried Leibniz
C
Charles Babbage
D
Blaise Pascal
Question 127Single Answer
Napier's Bones were developed by:
A
George Boole
B
Charles Babbage
C
John Napier
D
Howard Aiken
Question 128Single Answer
Who developed the Stepped Reckoner?
A
Herman Hollerith
B
Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz
C
John Mauchly
D
Konrad Zuse
Question 129Single Answer
Charles Babbage designed the Difference Engine primarily to perform:
A
Communication
B
Image processing
C
Data transmission
D
Mathematical calculations
Question 130Single Answer
Which machine designed by Charles Babbage contained concepts similar to a modern computer?
A
Pascaline
B
Tabulating Machine
C
Analytical Engine
D
Mark I
English Language
Question 131Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 132Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 133Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 134Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 135Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 136Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 137Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 138Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 139Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 140Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 141Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 142Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 143Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 144Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 145Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 146Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 147Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 148Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 149Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 150Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 151Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 152Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 153Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 154Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
Question 155Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
To scowl
A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin
Question 156Single Answer
Passage :
In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 157Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Atheist
A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic
Question 158Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: in the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Abdicate
A
Forgo
B
Usurp
C
Waive
D
Cede
Question 159Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.
Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by people.
A
Little
B
Few
C
Many
D
Big
Question 160Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: A passage is given with question following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. Passage Some languages are used by a few people. Others, such a Mandarin Chinese and English, are spoken by millions. Many people speak two or more languages. They may use one language at home with family and friends and other at work or school. Regional variations of language are known as dialects. The Anglo-Saxons, who conquered Britain at the end of the Roman Empire, spoke a Germanic language include Danish, Dutch, German and Swedish. English also contains Drench-derived words after it was ruled by French-speaking king following the Norman Conquest.
A person who is good at foreign languages is known as-
A
Virtuoso
B
Linguist
C
Ventriloquist
D
Scholar
Question 161Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 162Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 163Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 164Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 165Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 166Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 167Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 168Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 169Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 170Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
Data Analysis & Interpretation and Quantitative Aptitude
Question 171Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 173Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 174Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 175Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 176Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 177Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 178Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 179Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 180Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 181Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 182Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 183Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 184Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 185Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 186Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 187Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 188Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 189Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 190Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Question 191Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 192Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 193Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 194Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 195Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 196Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 197Single Answer
Passage :
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Question 198Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below :
J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden . They are wearing clothes of colours black, Blue , white, green , pink , yellow and brown . Out of the seven , three are girls. No girls wearing either black yellow or brown . M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown . J is wearing blue while his sister K is not green . N is wearing yellow low while his best friend P is a boy .
What colour is K wearing ?
A
Green
B
Pink
C
Brown
D
Data inadequate
E
None of these
Question 199Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below :
J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden . They are wearing clothes of colours black, Blue , white, green , pink , yellow and brown . Out of the seven , three are girls. No girls wearing either black yellow or brown . M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown . J is wearing blue while his sister K is not green . N is wearing yellow low while his best friend P is a boy .
What colour is P wearing ?
A
Black
B
Blue
C
White
D
Green
E
None of these
Question 200Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below :
J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden . They are wearing clothes of colours black, Blue , white, green , pink , yellow and brown . Out of the seven , three are girls. No girls wearing either black yellow or brown . M’s sister O is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown . J is wearing blue while his sister K is not green . N is wearing yellow low while his best friend P is a boy .