Question for DDA Junior Engineer (Civil) 2027 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest DDA JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Respective Discipline (Civil), Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General Awareness, English Language, Computer Knowledge

Question Bank DDA Junior Engineer (Civil) Exam Stage 1 - English

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Respective Discipline (Civil)

Question 1Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 2Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 3Single Answer

100 m³ of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be

A
40.5m³
B
50m³
C
75m³
D
94.7m³

Question 4Single Answer

The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering

A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank

Question 5Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 6Single Answer

A drain carrying 5m³/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m³/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?

A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l

Question 7Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 8Single Answer

Quick sand condition occurs when

A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil

Question 9Single Answer

The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.

A
5 m²
B
25 m²
C
10 m²
D
20 m²

Question 10Single Answer

Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 11Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 12Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 13Single Answer

Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly

A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia

Question 14Single Answer

Efflorescence of bricks is due to

A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay

Question 15Single Answer

Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 16Single Answer

Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 17Single Answer

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 18Single Answer

The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is

A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite

Question 19Single Answer

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only

Question 20Single Answer

In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be

A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00

Question 21Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 22Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 23Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only

Question 24Single Answer

Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 25Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 26Single Answer

Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only

Question 27Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only

Question 28Single Answer

A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm² and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is

A
100.6 N/mm²
B
120.4 N/mm²
C
140.2 N/mm²
D
160.0 N/mm²

Question 29Single Answer

In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called

A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect

Question 30Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only

Question 31Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 32Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 33Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 34Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 35Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 36Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 37Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 38Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 39Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 40Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 41Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 42Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 43Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 44Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 45Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 46Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 47Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 48Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 49Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 50Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

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Respective Discipline (Civil)

Question 51Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 52Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 53Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 54Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 55Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 56Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 57Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 58Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 59Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 60Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 61Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 62Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 63Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 64Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 65Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 66Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 67Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 68Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 69Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 70Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 71Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 73Single Answer

The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as

A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive

Question 74Single Answer

Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?

A
C₄AF
B
C₃S
C
C₃A
D
C₂A

Question 75Single Answer

According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :

A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m

Question 76Single Answer

Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.

A
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy – Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
B
SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
SP : Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide, Ozone, Photochemical smog
C
PP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
SP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
D
PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides
SP : Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide

Question 77Single Answer

Saturated unit weight of soil is the ratio of :

A
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight

Question 78Single Answer

Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .

A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test

Question 79Single Answer

In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm² units) :

A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92

Question 80Single Answer

Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?

A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan

Question 81Single Answer

What is runoff in hydrology defined as?

A
Water that infiltrates into the ground
B
Water that flows over the surface into streams
C
Water stored in reservoirs
D
Water evaporated from the surface

Question 82Single Answer

Which factor most significantly affects runoff estimation?

A
Soil permeability
B
Air temperature
C
Wind speed
D
Cloud cover

Question 83Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in hydrology?

A
Determine groundwater recharge
B
Design hydraulic structures
C
Measure evaporation rates
D
Calculate soil moisture

Question 84Single Answer

Which method is commonly used for runoff estimation in small catchments?

A
Rational method
B
Unit hydrograph method
C
SCS curve number method
D
Muskingum method

Question 85Single Answer

What is the primary source of runoff in a catchment?

A
Groundwater flow
B
Precipitation
C
Evapotranspiration
D
Infiltration

Question 86Single Answer

Which soil type produces the highest runoff?

A
Sandy soil
B
Loamy soil
C
Clayey soil
D
Gravelly soil

Question 87Single Answer

What is the effect of urbanization on runoff?

A
Decreases runoff
B
Increases runoff
C
No effect
D
Reduces infiltration

Question 88Single Answer

Which parameter is critical for the Rational method of runoff estimation?

A
Time of concentration
B
Base flow
C
Evaporation rate
D
Groundwater storage

Question 89Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the SCS curve number method?

A
Estimate peak discharge
B
Calculate direct runoff
C
Measure base flow
D
Analyze evaporation

Question 90Single Answer

What is the effect of vegetation cover on runoff?

A
Increases runoff
B
Decreases runoff
C
No effect
D
Increases evaporation

Question 91Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?

Question 92Single Answer

What is the primary structural behavior of a frame under vertical loads?

A
Axial deformation
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation

Question 93Single Answer

How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a portal frame with fixed supports?

Question 94Single Answer

What is the effect of a point load at the crown of a three-hinged arch?

A
Increases horizontal thrust
B
Decreases horizontal thrust
C
No horizontal thrust
D
Causes shear failure

Question 95Single Answer

What is the purpose of special positional reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?

A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear failure
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal

Question 96Single Answer

What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?

Question 97Single Answer

What is the collapse mechanism in a fixed beam under uniform load?

A
One plastic hinge
B
Two plastic hinges
C
Three plastic hinges
D
Four plastic hinges

Question 98Single Answer

What is the primary force in the tie of a tied arch?

A
Compression
B
Tension
C
Shear
D
Bending

Question 99Single Answer

What is the purpose of providing stirrups in a reinforced concrete frame?

A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent cracking

Question 100Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?

Reasoning

Question 101Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 102Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 103Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 104Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 105Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 106Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 107Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 108Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 109Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 110Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Quantitative Aptitude

Question 111Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 112Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 113Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 114Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 115Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 116Single Answer

Passage :

information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Chemistry but not in Physics.

A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206

Question 117Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.

We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values

Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.

A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these

Question 118Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25

What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?

A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%

Question 119Single Answer

Passage :

For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.

What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?

A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these

Question 120Single Answer

Passage :

What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?

A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these

General Awareness

Question 121Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 122Single Answer

Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?

A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu

Question 123Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 124Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 125Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 126Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 127Single Answer

What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?

A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems

Question 128Single Answer

Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan

Question 129Single Answer

Which is the longest river in India?

A
Yamuna
B
Ganges
C
Brahmaputra
D
Godavari

Question 130Single Answer

Which state is hosting the National SARAS Mela 2025?

A
Karnataka
B
Maharashtra
C
Kerala
D
Gujarat

English Language

Question 131Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 132Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 133Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 134Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 135Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 136Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 137Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 138Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 139Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 140Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Computer Knowledge

Question 141Single Answer

Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?

A
Window
B
Pop-up menu
C
Message box
D
Taskbar

Question 142Single Answer

What is active desktop ?

A
a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B
a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C
both a and b above mentioned
D
A software
E
None of these

Question 143Single Answer

What is meant by an active window?

A
A window that is minimized
B
The window currently receiving user input
C
Any window currently open
D
The window opened first

Question 144Single Answer

What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?

A
An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B
A computer operating system
C
A spreadsheet application
D
A database management system

Question 145Single Answer

An application is

A
word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B
computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C
Both a and b above mentioned
D
a document
E
None of these

Question 146Single Answer

Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?

A
Window program
B
Spreadsheet program
C
Graphics program
D
Word program
E
None of these

Question 147Single Answer

The term Briefcase is used for

A
a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B
a window that us currently open
C
A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 148Single Answer

In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?

A
Executing a command or initiating an action
B
Permanently storing data
C
Displaying the computer's IP address
D
Formatting a disk automatically

Question 149Single Answer

A channel (in windows terminology) is

A
a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B
a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C
an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D
All of the above
E
None of these

Question 150Single Answer

What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?

A
The associated option is enabled or selected
B
The application has closed
C
The file has been deleted
D
The computer is offline

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