What is the primary aim of a Complete Blood Count (CBC) test?
A
Measure blood glucose
B
Evaluate components of blood like RBC, WBC, and platelets
C
Assess kidney function
D
Test liver enzymes
Question 2Single Answer
Which test measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood?
A
ESR
B
Hematocrit
C
Serum Creatinine
D
Blood Urea Nitrogen
Question 3Single Answer
ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is used to detect?
A
Blood glucose level
B
Inflammation in the body
C
Liver disease
D
Cardiac enzymes
Question 4Single Answer
What does the Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) test measure?
A
Electrolyte balance
B
Blood sugar after fasting
C
Kidney function
D
Lipid levels
Question 5Single Answer
Which test evaluates liver enzymes such as ALT and AST?
A
Lipid profile
B
Liver Function Test (LFT)
C
Kidney profile
D
Thyroid panel
Question 6Single Answer
What is measured in a Lipid Profile test?
A
Electrolytes
B
Cholesterol and triglycerides
C
Blood sugar
D
Coagulation factors
Question 7Single Answer
Serum creatinine indicates the function of which organ?
A
Liver
B
Kidney
C
Pancreas
D
Heart
Question 8Single Answer
Which test indicates clotting time and bleeding disorders?
A
CRP
B
Serum albumin
C
Blood culture
D
PT/INR
Question 9Single Answer
Blood culture detects?
A
Viral infection
B
Fungal antigen
C
Parasitic infection
D
Bacterial or fungal growth in blood
Question 10Single Answer
Urinalysis tests what type of sample?
A
Blood
B
Urine
C
Sputum
D
Saliva
Question 11Single Answer
What does Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) test evaluate?
A
Kidney function
B
Thyroid gland function
C
Cardiac markers
D
Liver enzymes
Question 12Single Answer
Which test is used for early detection of heart attack?
A
CBC
B
Blood glucose
C
Troponin I or T
D
Bilirubin
Question 13Single Answer
C-Reactive Protein (CRP) is measured to evaluate?
A
Kidney disease
B
Liver function
C
Inflammation and infection
D
Glucose metabolism
Question 14Single Answer
What test is used to assess allergic reactions?
A
PT/INR
B
IgE levels
C
Lipid profile
D
Electrolytes
Question 15Single Answer
Which test confirms diagnosis of malaria?
A
Rapid diagnostic test or peripheral blood smear
B
Urinalysis
C
PT/INR
D
Blood culture
Question 16Single Answer
What is measured by Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) analysis?
A
Blood sugar
B
Blood pH, oxygen, carbon dioxide, bicarbonate
C
Lipid profile
D
Kidney function
Question 17Single Answer
HCG test in blood or urine is used to?
A
Detect glucose level
B
Confirm pregnancy
C
Evaluate kidney function
D
Diagnose liver disease
Question 18Single Answer
What does HbA1c test measure?
A
Liver enzymes
B
Long-term blood sugar control
C
Lipid cholesterol
D
Serum electrolytes
Question 19Single Answer
PCR test in infectious disease detection is used to?
A
Measure glucose
B
Estimate anemia
C
Detect genetic material of pathogens
D
Assess lipid levels
Question 20Single Answer
What type of test is ELISA used for?
A
Kidney function
B
Detecting antigens or antibodies
C
Complete blood count
D
Liver function
Question 21Single Answer
PTT/APTT tests assess the condition of which pathway?
A
Bone metabolism
B
Blood clotting—intrinsic pathway
C
Thyroid function
D
Liver enzymes
Question 22Single Answer
Crossmatch test before blood transfusion is done to check?
A
Cholesterol level
B
Compatibility between donor and recipient blood
C
Glucose level
D
Inflammation marker
Question 23Single Answer
D-dimer assay helps to rule out?
A
Kidney stones
B
Deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism
C
Liver disease
D
Anemia
Question 24Single Answer
Stool microscopy is commonly used to detect?
A
Viral load
B
Fungal infection
C
Parasitic ova and cysts
D
Renal stones
Question 25Single Answer
CSF analysis is used to diagnose which condition?
A
Liver failure
B
Meningitis
C
Diabetes
D
Heart disease
Question 26Single Answer
Which test measures vitamin D levels?
A
Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D
B
TSH
C
HbA1c
D
CRP
Question 27Single Answer
Rheumatoid factor (RF) is used to diagnose?
A
Diabetes
B
Thyroid disorder
C
Rheumatoid arthritis
D
Blood infection
Question 28Single Answer
What does ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test screen for?
A
Diabetes
B
Autoimmune diseases like lupus
C
Infection
D
Kidney stones
Question 29Single Answer
Procalcitonin test is a marker for?
A
Lipid metabolism
B
Systemic bacterial infection or sepsis
C
Carbohydrate metabolism
D
Renal failure
Question 30Single Answer
What is measured in a Coombs test?
A
Blood glucose
B
Liver enzymes
C
Antibodies attached to RBCs
D
Lipid levels
Question 31Single Answer
Serum electrolytes include measurement of?
A
Glucose
B
Sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate
C
Enzymes
D
Hormone levels
Question 32Single Answer
Serum albumin test evaluates?
A
Blood culture
B
Kidney stones
C
Liver and nutritional status
D
Lipid profile
Question 33Single Answer
Troponin T/I is the biomarker of choice for?
A
Kidney function
B
Myocardial infarction
C
Autoimmune conditions
D
Thyroid disease
Question 34Single Answer
What does Cold Agglutinins test detect?
A
Viral infection
B
Cold-reactive antibodies
C
Renal infection
D
Blood sugar fluctuation
Question 35Single Answer
BACTEC system is used for?
A
Lipid analysis
B
Automated blood culture detection
C
Thyroid assessment
D
Electrolyte measurement
Question 36Single Answer
Which test is used to diagnose genetic conditions like sickle cell?
A
Peripheral smear
B
Hb electrophoresis
C
CRP
D
CBC
Question 37Single Answer
PTEN gene expression is assessed in what type of test?
A
Blood count
B
Genetic/molecular diagnostics
C
Serum protein
D
Liver enzymes
Question 38Single Answer
What does Serum ferritin measure?
A
Blood coagulation
B
Iron storage status
C
Blood sugar
D
Liver function
Question 39Single Answer
Beta-hCG quantification is used to evaluate?
A
Cardiac enzymes
B
Fetal health and pregnancy progress
C
Electrolyte levels
D
Kidney function
Question 40Single Answer
The Westergren method measures?
A
Blood sugar
B
Coagulation time
C
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
D
Viral load
Question 41Single Answer
Serum bilirubin test is primarily used to assess?
A
Kidney function
B
Liver function and hemolysis
C
Thyroid function
D
Lipid profile
Question 42Single Answer
CMP (Comprehensive Metabolic Panel) typically includes all except?
A
ECG tracing
B
Electrolytes
C
Liver enzymes
D
Glucose
Question 43Single Answer
Urine culture helps in diagnosing?
A
Thyroid disorders
B
Viral hepatitis
C
Anemia
D
Urinary tract infections
Question 44Single Answer
Semen analysis is commonly done in which context?
A
Diabetes
B
Infertility evaluation
C
Kidney disease
D
Thyroid assessment
Question 45Single Answer
Serum PSA test is used primarily for?
A
Liver disease
B
Prostate health screening
C
Cardiac risk
D
Autoimmune conditions
Reasoning
Question 46Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 47Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 48Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 49Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 50Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
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Reasoning
Question 51Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 52Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 53Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 54Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 55Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 56Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 57Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS. (II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Mathematical ability
Question 81Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 82Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 84Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 85Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 86Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 87Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 88Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 89Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 90Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 91Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 93Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 94Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 95Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 96Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 97Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 98Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 99Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 100Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 101Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 103Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 104Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 105Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 106Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 107Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 108Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 109Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 110Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 111Single Answer
If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x N}, then A B consists of all multiples of
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 112Single Answer
A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these
Question 113Single Answer
A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above
Question 114Single Answer
A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these
Question 115Single Answer
If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A B will be
A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above
Administration of Higher Educational Institutions
Question 116Single Answer
What is the main aim of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020?
A
Focus on technical education
B
Universalization of education from pre-school to secondary
C
Emphasis on increasing literacy rates only
D
Reforms in higher education only
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of the NEP 2020 regarding the structure of education?
A
The 10+2 structure remains unchanged
B
Emphasis on a 5+3+3+4 structure of school education
C
Introduction of a 4+4+4 structure
D
Exclusion of technical education
Question 118Single Answer
According to the NEP 2020, the focus of education at the higher level should be on:
A
Vocational education
B
Liberal arts
C
Research and innovation
D
All of the above
Question 119Single Answer
Which institution will be responsible for regulating higher education in India as per the NEP 2020?
A
University Grants Commission (UGC)
B
National Higher Education Regulatory Authority (NHERA)
C
Ministry of Education (MoE)
D
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
Question 120Single Answer
What is the target Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education by 2035 as per NEP 2020?
A
50%
B
65%
C
75%
D
100%
Question 121Single Answer
According to the NEP 2020, which language is emphasized for teaching in the early stages of education?
A
English
B
Hindi
C
Regional languages
D
French
Question 122Single Answer
In NEP 2020, which of the following is introduced to reduce the burden on students in the higher education system?
A
Standardized tests for all students
B
Multi-entry and exit options
C
Fixed academic calendar
D
Short-term courses
Question 123Single Answer
What is the focus of the NEP 2020 regarding the assessment of students?
A
Marks-based assessment
B
Competency-based learning and assessment
C
No assessment at all
D
Oral exams only
Question 124Single Answer
Which new institution is proposed under NEP 2020 to foster research in higher education?
A
National Research Foundation (NRF)
B
National Institute for Research (NIR)
C
Indian Institute for Research (IIR)
D
National Educational Research Council (NERC)
Question 125Single Answer
According to the NEP 2020, which of the following is a key objective for Indian higher education institutions?
A
Enhancing capacity for imparting vocational skills
B
Making higher education accessible only to the elite
C
Reducing international student enrollment
D
Restricting research opportunities
Question 126Single Answer
Which of the following is emphasized under the NEP 2020 for higher education institutions?
A
Reducing diversity in institutions
B
Internationalization of higher education
C
Maintaining traditional methods of teaching
D
Focusing on a single discipline
Question 127Single Answer
NEP 2020 proposes the establishment of which type of universities?
A
Private-only universities
B
Research-intensive and teaching universities
C
Online-only universities
D
Government-owned universities
Question 128Single Answer
The NEP 2020 proposes that by which year, all higher education institutions will be of high quality and inclusive?
A
2030
B
2040
C
2025
D
2035
Question 129Single Answer
What is the aim of setting up 'Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities (MERUs)' as per NEP 2020?
A
To increase the number of engineering colleges
B
To offer only technical courses
C
To offer multidisciplinary courses and promote research
D
To focus solely on humanities
Question 130Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of the NEP 2020's higher education reforms?
A
Emphasis on online education
B
Introduction of four-year undergraduate programs
C
Encouragement of students to join only government institutions
D
Establishment of National Educational Technology Forum (NETF)
Question 131Single Answer
What does NEP 2020 recommend for the improvement of teacher education in India?
B and A
B, then
R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
B 
A
(A 
= 100, then n
is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x 
N}, then A 
B consists of all multiples of
B will be
