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Latest DFCCIL Executive Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, General Aptitude/Reasoning, Civil

Question Bank DFCCIL Executive Civil CBT 2 Exam - English
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General Knowledge, General Aptitude/Reasoning

Question 1Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance        
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 2Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance 
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A
    Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B
    Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C
    Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D
    Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A
    Two
  2. B
    Three
  3. C
    Five
  4. D
    Four
  5. E
    None of these
Question 5Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A
    True
  2. B
    False
  3. C
    Uncertain
  4. D
    None
Question 6Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A
    A
  2. B
    E
  3. C
    T
  4. D
    X
  5. E
    Y
Question 7Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A
    None            
  2. B
    One         
  3. C
    Two       
  4. D
    Three        
  5. E
    More than three
Question 8Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 9Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 10Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A
    T
  2. B
    L
  3. C
    E
  4. D
    Y
  5. E
    X
Question 11Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 12Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A
    51:52
  2. B
    52:53
  3. C
    51:53
  4. D
    52:55
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A
    √49
  2. B
    0.125
  3. C
    √2
  4. D
    22/7
Question 14Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A
    35600  
  2. B
    34500
  3. C
    9630
  4. D
    93600
Question 15Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A
    3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B
    7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C
    3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D
    5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 16Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A
    36
  2. B
    38
  3. C
    310
  4. D
    96
     
Question 17Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A
    4     
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    2 
  4. D
    5
Question 18Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A
    3/5
  2. B
    2/3
  3. C
    4/5
Question 19Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A
    169  
  2. B
    36
  3. C
    196 
  4. D
    Can not say
Question 20Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A
    Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B
    Raskhan
  3. C
    Rich Khusrow
  4. D
    Rich Hasan
Question 21Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A
    1946
  2. B
    1947
  3. C
    1948
  4. D
    1950
Question 22Single Answer
Which country observed Republic Day on June 2, 2025, commemorating the 1946 referendum that led to the establishment of the republic?
  1. A
    France
  2. B
    Germany
  3. C
    Italy
  4. D
    Spain
Question 23Single Answer
What is the name of the transgender teen athlete who won track events in California amid federal threats to cut state funding over trans-inclusive sports policies?
  1. A
    Alex Morgan
  2. B
    AB Hernandez
  3. C
    Jamie Lee
  4. D
    Taylor Smith
Question 24Single Answer
Which department in the U.S. instructed its medical personnel to seek clearance from political appointees before publishing or speaking publicly, following a critical journal article?
  1. A
    Department of Health and Human Services
  2. B
    Department of Veterans Affairs
  3. C
    Department of Defense
  4. D
    Department of Education

Civil

Question 25Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
  1. A
    11 to 15 mm
  2. B
    8 to 10 mm
  3. C
    15 to 17 mm
  4. D
    5 to 7 mm
Question 26Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
    1
  4. D
Question 27Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
  1. A
    The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
  2. B
    Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
  3. C
    The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
  4. D
    The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 28Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
  1. A
    0.5 L
  2. B
    0.85 L
  3. C
    2 L
  4. D
    0.75 L
Question 29Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
  1. A
    Working from part to whole
  2. B
    Working from point to area
  3. C
    Working from angle to volume
  4. D
    Working from whole to part
Question 30Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
  1. A
    100 m
  2. B
    1000 m
  3. C
    600 m
  4. D
    150 m
Question 31Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
  1. A
    20
  2. B
    25
  3. C
    15
  4. D
    10
Question 32Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
  1. A
    Reduces the secondary hydration process
  2. B
    Increases the heat of hydration
  3. C
    Increases the amount of air entrainment
  4. D
    Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 33Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
  1. A
    M 20 and M 30
  2. B
    M 20 and M 25
  3. C
    M 22 and M 40
  4. D
    M 15 and M 25
Question 34Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
  1. A
    Mass density
  2. B
    Moment of inertia
  3. C
    Poission’s ratio
  4. D
    Modulus of elasticity
Question 35Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
  1. A
    120
  2. B
    140
  3. C
    70
  4. D
    60
Question 36Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
  1. A
    0.5 m2
  2. B
    1.0 m2
  3. C
    3 m2
  4. D
    0.75 m2
Question 37Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
  1. A
    20 cm
  2. B
    10 cm
  3. C
    30 cm
  4. D
    25 cm
Question 38Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
  1. A
    Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
  2. B
    Both statements S1 and S2 are false
  3. C
    Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
  4. D
    Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 39Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
  1. A
    121o25'
  2. B
    148o25'
  3. C
    58o25'
  4. D
    211o25'
Question 40Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
  1. A
    creek
  2. B
    crest
  3. C
    limp
  4. D
    nappe
Question 41Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
  1. A
    10 - 25 mm
  2. B
    25 - 50 mm
  3. C
    0 - 10 mm
  4. D
    50 - 100 mm
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
  1. A
    March / April to June / July
  2. B
    December / January to April / May
  3. C
    May / June to October / November
  4. D
    October / November to April / May
Question 43Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
  1. A
    market value
  2. B
    book value
  3. C
    scrap value
  4. D
    salvage value
Question 44Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
  1. A
    2.5 m2
  2. B
    0.55 m2
  3. C
    1.10 m2
  4. D
    0.25 m2
Question 45Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
  1. A
    Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
  2. B
    Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
  3. C
    Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
  4. D
    Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
  1. A
    Newton's law
  2. B
    Pascal's law
  3. C
    Darcy's law
  4. D
    Hydrostatic law
Question 47Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample      Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A          Less than 0.75
Sample B          Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
  1. A
    Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
  2. B
    Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
  3. C
    Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
  4. D
    Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
  1. A
    C4AF
  2. B
    C3S
  3. C
    C3A
  4. D
    C2A
Question 49Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
  1. A
    0.0002 m
  2. B
    0.005 m
  3. C
    0.0001 m
  4. D
    0.01 m
Question 50Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
  1. A
    PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy – Acetyl - Nitrate
    SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
  2. B
    SP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
    SP : Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide, Ozone, Photochemical smog
  3. C
    PP : Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
    SP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate
  4. D
    PP : Ozone, Photochemical smog, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, Nitrogen oxides
    SP : Aerosol/mist, Peroxy - Acetyl - Nitrate, Hydrocarbons, Sulphur dioxide
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