To boost your performance in DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse exams.
Latest DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, Mathematics, Concerned Subject
Question Bank DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam - English
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
A.Only Mumbai office
B.SEBI
C.7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
D.Ministry of Finance
Q 2 :
RBI's April 2026 policy projected CPI inflation for FY27 at:
A.4.0%
B.3.8%
C.5.5%
D.4.6%
Q 3 :
What global event involving Iran was a dominant theme in economic and geopolitical news in April-May 2026?
A.Peace treaty with Israel
B.Ongoing war impacting oil prices and Strait of Hormuz
C.Joining NATO
D.Nuclear disarmament
Q 4 :
On 1 May 2026, school assembly news headlines prominently featured:
A.Only sports news
B.Election results
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact, Prerna 2.0, GSAT-32, and Sensex volatility
D.Budget announcements
Q 5 :
The government announced focus on connecting Poonch-Rajouri with:
A.National Highway
B.Inland waterway
C.Airport
D.Rail network
Q 6 :
On 1 May 2026, rain and thunderstorms were reported to have cooled which region of India?
A.Southern India
B.North India (while heatwave persisted elsewhere)
C.Eastern India
D.Western Ghats
Q 7 :
Ethanol blending-related amendments to Central Motor Vehicles Rules in 2026 include:
A.Only E20
B.E85, E100, and B100 biodiesel
C.Electric vehicles only
D.CNG mandates
Q 8 :
What is the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 related to?
A.Defence procurement
B.Urban development
C.Performance assessment of over 2.5 lakh panchayats
D.Export promotion
Q 9 :
Rajya Sabha passed the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill in early April 2026 to:
A.Merge forces
B.Increase salaries
C.Reduce recruitment age
D.Create a unified legal framework for CAPF personnel
Q 10 :
US President Donald Trump commented on considering exiting NATO, calling it a:
A.Paper tiger
B.Strong alliance
C.Economic burden
D.Peacekeeper
Q 11 :
Which Indian state saw clashes between Aboriginal community and police in Alice Springs (international news context)?
A.Canada
B.New Zealand
C.Australia
D.South Africa
Q 12 :
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
A.Oil prices hitting four-year high
B.Record low oil prices
C.Increased Indian exports
D.Rupee appreciation
Q 13 :
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B.Purchase of Rafale jets
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
Q 14 :
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
A.Complete deregulation
B.Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
C.Merger with banks
D.Ban on new NBFCs
Q 15 :
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
A.Delhi and Mumbai
B.Jammu and Srinagar
C.Chennai and Bengaluru
D.Kolkata and Guwahati
Q 16 :
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
A.Winter Olympics
B.FIFA World Cup 2026
C.Asian Games
D.Commonwealth Games
Q 17 :
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A.Germany
B.South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C.USA
D.Australia
Q 18 :
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A.Swachh Bharat
B.Namami Gange
C.Digital India
D.Gyan Bharatam Mission
Q 19 :
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A.6.5%
B.6.0%
C.4.75%
D.5.25%
Q 20 :
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A.Pilot shortage
B.High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C.New DGCA regulations
D.Airport congestion
Q 21 :
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A.Bengaluru, Karnataka
B.Mumbai
C.Hyderabad
D.Chennai
Q 22 :
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A.At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B.8
C.25
D.12
Q 23 :
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A.1 May 2026
B.1 January 2026
C.1 July 2026
D.31 December 2026
Q 24 :
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A.A new defence missile system
B.Green hydrogen mission
C.AI Tutoring initiative
D.Digital payment platform
Q 25 :
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A.GSAT-31
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.INSAT-4CR
D.GSAT-32
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 26 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 27 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 28 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 29 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 30 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 31 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 32 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 33 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 34 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 35 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 36 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 37 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 38 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 39 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 40 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 41 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 42 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 43 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 44 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 45 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 46 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 47 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 48 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 49 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 50 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
Important Questions Package
DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam - English
Description : 2200 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
2.
DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam - Hindi
Description : 2300 Question With Answer
₹181[₹500]
3.
DHFWS Bhiwani Staff Nurse Exam Question Bank Book - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 62 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 64 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 65 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 68 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 71 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 72 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 73 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 74 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 75 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Mathematics
Q 76 :
If A exceeds B by 40%, B is less than C by 20%, then A C is,:
A.28 : 25
B.26 : 25
C.3 : 2
D.3 : 1
Q 77 :
What is the sum of 130+125+191 ?
A.335
B.456
C.446
D.426
Q 78 :
If , then x is equal to
A.5
B.3
C.2
D.4
Q 79 :
A sum of money doubles itself at compound interest in 15 years. In how many years it will become eight times ?
A.30
B.45
C.50
D.60
Q 80 :
Compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4% per annum is Rs. 102. The simple interest on the same sum for the same rate and for the same period will be
A.Rs. 99
B.Rs. 101
C.Rs. 100
D.Rs. 98
Q 81 :
There are 5 red balls, 4 yellow balls and 3 green balls in a basket. If 3 ball are drawn at random. What is the probability that at least 2 of them are green in colour?
Q 82 :
Which of the following fractions is in descending order ?
Q 83 :
The value of
A.9
B.7
C.11
Q 84 :
The square root of is
Q 85 :
If (1101)2 = 1212201 find the value at
A.110.1
B.11.01
C.1.101
D.11.001
Q 86 :
A discount of 15% on one article is the same as discount of 20% on a second article. The costs of the two articles can be
A.Rs. 85, Rs. 60
B.Rs. 60, Rs. 40
C.Rs. 40, Rs. 20
D.Rs. 80, Rs. 60
Q 87 :
is equal to
A.-2
B.2
C.0
D.1
Q 88 :
Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different.
A.28 : 163
B.16 : 91
C.27 : 82
D.22 : 127
Q 89 :
The simplified value of is
A.0.075
B.0.705
C.0.750
D.7.500
Q 90 :
The digit in unit's place of the number
(1570)2 + (1571)2 + (1572)2 + (1573)2 is
A.4
B.1
C.2
D.3
Q 91 :
Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
MEND, PHJZ, SKFV, VNBR, ?
A.YJYN
B.YQXN
C.YRXO
D.YQZM
Q 92 :
Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(12, 14, 143)
A.(12, 18, 246)
B.(17, 12, 134)
C.(16, 10, 235)
D.(15, 19, 252)
Q 93 :
=?
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.10
Q 94 :
Select the option in which the numbers are NOT related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(64, 91, 118)
A.(46, 73, 101)
B.(48, 75, 102)
C.(72, 99, 126)
D.(55, 82, 109)
Q 95 :
is equal to
A.12.0
B.11.5
C.11.0
D.10.5
Q 96 :
The simplified value of is
A.3
B.2
C.4
D.6
Q 97 :
Given that = 3.6 and = 11.4, then the value of is equal to
A.36.164
B.37.254
C.36.254
D.37.154
Q 98 :
The monthly income of three cricketers Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan, from different sources, are in the ratio of 12 : 9 : 7, and their expenditures are in the ratio 15 : 9 : 8. If Ankit saves 25% of his income for future investments, what is the ratio of the savings of Ankit, Sanjay and Roshan?
A.15 : 18 : 11
B.25 : 16 : 13
C.5 : 8 : 7
D.23 : 18 : 11
Q 99 :
Given that is approximately equal to 4898, is nearly equal to
A.0.544
B.1.333
C.1.633
D.2.666
Q 100 :
Which of the following numbers 0.1, 0.01, (0.11)2, is greatest?
A.0.1
B.0.01
C.(0.11)2
Concerned Subject
Q 101 :
Father of anatomy-
A.Robert Koach
B.Aristotle
C.Andreas Vesalius
D.Robert Hook
Q 102 :
Power house of cell a is known as-
A.Mitochondria
B.Lysosomes
C.Ribosomes
D.​Nucleus
Q 103 :
Normal size of a cell is-
A.75-30 micron
B.7.5-300 micron
C.1-2 micron
D.​2-3 micron
Q 104 :
Plasma membrane is composed of-
A.Fat
B.Carbohydrate
C.Protein
D.​All are right
Q 105 :
The function of mitochondria in cell is-
A.To form ATP
B.Protection of cell
C.Transportation​
D.Excretion
Q 106 :
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
A.Fluid volume excess
B.Decreased RBC
C.Electrolyte imbalance
D.Impaired immune function
Q 107 :
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
A.Phagocytosis
B.Pinocytosis
C.Osmosis
D.​None of them
Q 108 :
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
A.Nucleus
B.Lysosome
C.Mitochondria
D.​Endoplasmic reticulum
Q 109 :
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-
A.Hormone
B.Mucous
C.Enzymes
D.​Digestive juices
Q 110 :
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
A.Sweat gland
B.Sebaceous gland
C.Pancreatic
D.Salivary gland
Q 111 :
In the state infection which tissue are more active-
A.Reticular tissue
B.Adipose tissue
C.Elastic tissue
D.​Collagenase tissue
Q 112 :
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-
A.Adult male
B.Adult female
C.New born
D.​Old age persons
Q 113 :
Largest gland of the body is-
A.Pituitary
B.Adrenal
C.Liver
D.​Pancreas
Q 114 :
The potential reason of alopecia is-
A.Protein deficiency
B.Malnutrition
C.Genetic
D.Vitamin deficiency
Q 115 :
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
A.Epithelial cell
B.Muscles cell
C.Nerve cell
D.​Red cell
Q 116 :
The total number of bones found in human body is-
A.206
B.306
C.205
D.​210
Q 117 :
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
A.Parietal and frontal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.​In both temporal bone
Q 118 :
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-
A.18 months
B.2 months
C.6 months
D.12 months
Q 119 :
Coronal sutures are found in-
A.Parietal and formal bone
B.Parietal and parietal bone
C.Parietal and occipital
D.In both temporal bone
Q 120 :
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?
A.Squamous part
B.Mastoid part
C.Tympanic part
D.​Petrous part
Q 121 :
Smallest bone of human body is -
A.Stapes
B.Fibula
C.Tarsel
D.Carpel
Q 122 :
Digestion begins in our body from -
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.Stomach
Q 123 :
Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embroyonic life -
A.After 6.5-7 Weeks
B.At 5 days
C.At 10 days
D.At 40 days
Q 124 :
The average time of cardiac cycle is-
A.6 sec.
B.0.8 sec
C.1 min
D.​1 sec
Q 125 :
The contraction wave of heart starts from -
A.S.A node
B.A.V node
C.Bundle of his
D.​Purkinje fiber
Q 126 :
The formula to measure the cardiac output is -
A.Stroke volume / heart rate
B.Stroke volume * heart rate
C.Stroke volume – heart rate
D.​Stroke volume + heart rate
Q 127 :
Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man ?
A.Small intestine
B.Large intestine
C.Mouth
D.​Stomach
Q 128 :
Function of pacemaker is -
A.To initiate heart beat
B.To regulate beat
C.To regulate blood pressure
D.​To regulate brain waves
Q 129 :
During sleep blood pressure -
A.Increase
B.Decreases
C.Does not change
D.First decrease than change
Q 130 :
To complete one heart beat the time taken is -
A.0.8 second
B.1 second
C.72 second
D.​1.8 second
Q 131 :
Longest artery found in the body of human is -
A.Aorta
B.Venacava
C.Capillaries
D.​Vesicles
Q 132 :
Blood bank of human body is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 133 :
Red blood corpuscles is also known as -
A.Erythrocytes
B.Leucocytes
C.Monocytes
D.Oligodendrocytes
Q 134 :
Graveyard of red blood cell is -
A.Spleen
B.Liver
C.Bone
D.​Kidney
Q 135 :
Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human?
A.Neutrophils
B.Basophils
C.Monocytes
D.​Basophila
Q 136 :
A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of the –
A.Lack of antigen in his blood
B.Lack of antibodies in his blood
C.Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
D.​Presence of antibodies in his blood
Q 137 :
In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed ?
A.Long bones
B.Spleen
C.Kidney
D.​Heart
Q 138 :
Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called -
A.Coronary artery
B.Pulmonary artery
C.Femoral artery
D.​Radial artery
Q 139 :
Which of the following chemical can be used in anti – coagulant?
A.Sodium citrate
B.Calcium
C.Sodium nitrate
D.Heparin
Q 140 :
The cells which have least regeneration capacity -
A.Cells of brain
B.Cells of bone
C.Cells of heart
D.Cells of kidney
Q 141 :
Largest part of human brain is-
A.Cerebrum
B.Cerebellum
C.Pons
D.Oblongata
Q 142 :
Centre of reflex action-
A.Spinal cord
B.Pons
C.Cerebellum
D.​Cerebrum
Q 143 :
In a cell, process of respiration takes place in -
A.Mitochondria
B.Golgi apparatus
C.Ribosome
D.​Lysosomes
Q 144 :
Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is -
A.12%
B.14%
C.16%
D.​18%
Q 145 :
Saliva secreted from mouth digest -
A.Starch
B.Fat
C.Protein
D.​Alcohol
Q 146 :
Tear gland is not found in-
A.Dog
B.Man
C.Pig
D.Crocodile
Q 147 :
Estrogen is secreted by -
A.Corpus luteum
B.Deciduas
C.Graffian follicels
D.​None of them
Q 148 :
Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone ?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
, then x is equal to
is
is equal to 
=?
is equal to
is
= 3.6 and 
= 11.4, then the value of 
is equal to 
is approximately equal to 4898, 
is nearly equal to
is greatest?