Question for DHFWS Puducherry Pharmacist 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest DHFWS Puducherry Pharmacist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Pharmacist (Allopathy)

Question Bank DHFWS Puducherry Pharmacist Exam Paper 2 - English

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Pharmacist (Allopathy)

Question 1Single Answer

Creaming is a ________ process.

A
Reversible
B
Irreversible
C
Downward
D
Both (a) and (c)

Question 2Single Answer

o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.

A
Downward
B
Upward
C
First up and then down
D
First down then up

Question 3Single Answer

______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.

A
Cellulose
B
Pectin
C
Glucose
D
Methyl cellulose

Question 4Single Answer

Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.

A
Neutralize
B
Decrease
C
Increase
D
Stabilize

Question 5Single Answer

The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____

A
One
B
Greater than one
C
Zero
D
Less than one

Question 6Single Answer

Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?

A
Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
B
Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
C
Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
D
Redispersion becomes progressively impossible

Question 7Single Answer

Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?

A
Stokes' law
B
Henry's law
C
Raoult's law
D
Beer-Lambert law

Question 8Single Answer

According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?

A
0.26
B
0.50
C
0.74
D
0.90

Question 9Single Answer

Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?

A
Charcoal
B
Kaolin
C
Calamine
D
Aluminum Hydroxide

Question 10Single Answer

Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?

A
Creep test
B
Pycnometry
C
Nephelometry
D
Refractometry

Question 11Single Answer

Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?

A
Higher
B
Always lower
C
Exactly identical
D
Always zero

Question 12Single Answer

According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.

A
Downward
B
Upward
C
Centre
D
Both (a) and (b)

Question 13Single Answer

____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions is of globules is not uniform.

A
Caking
B
Breaking
C
Creaming
D
Coalescence

Question 14Single Answer

The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______

A
Homogenization
B
Lyophilization
C
Centrifugation
D
Both (a) and (c)

Question 15Single Answer

According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?

A
Decreasing globule size
B
Increasing globule size
C
Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
D
Increasing the density difference between phases

Question 16Single Answer

The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____

A
4 : 4 : 2
B
4 : 2 : 1
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
2 : 4 : 4

Question 17Single Answer

The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___

A
66.7% w/w
B
85% w/w
C
56% w/w
D
33% w/w

Question 18Single Answer

Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____

A
Castor Oil
B
Sucrose Syrup
C
Glycerin
D
Alcohol

Question 19Single Answer

Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?

A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bicarbonate
C
Calcium chloride
D
Magnesium sulfate

Question 20Single Answer

Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?

A
Simple Distillation
B
Steam Distillation
C
Extraction
D
Soxhlation

Question 21Single Answer

In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.

A
Triglycerides
B
VLDL
C
HDL
D
LDL

Question 22Single Answer

Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?

A
Quinidine
B
Potassium chloride
C
Lidocaine
D
Magnesium sulfate

Question 23Single Answer

When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?

A
Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
B
Routinely double the digoxin dose
C
Discontinue all potassium intake
D
Administer digoxin only intramuscularly

Question 24Single Answer

Name a substitute of enalapril.

A
Losartan
B
Rosiglitazone
C
Omeprazole
D
Famotidine

Question 25Single Answer

Antihypertensive drugs                 Mode of action
1. Methyldopa                                               (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine                                              (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine                                                 (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine                                         (D) False neurotransmitter

A
1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
B
1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
C
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
D
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

Question 26Single Answer

Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
B
Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
C
Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
D
Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Question 27Single Answer

Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H₂-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)

- adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins

A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
A and D

Question 28Single Answer

Hypotensive agents                        Mode of action
1. Clonidine                                      (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril                                        (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin                                        (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil                                        (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

A
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B
1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
C
1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D
1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

Question 29Single Answer

Which statement about digoxin is correct?

A
Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
B
It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
C
It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
D
Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion

Question 30Single Answer

Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.

A
Force of myocardial contraction
B
Cardiac filling pressure
C
Heart rate
D
Venous pressure

Question 31Single Answer

Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.

A
Decreasing the intracellular sodium levels
B
Activating adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
C
Decreasing the release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
D
Inhibiting the action of Na⁺ -K⁺ -ATPase enzyme

Question 32Single Answer

Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.

A
Lidocaine
B
Triamterene
C
Hydrochlorothiazide
D
Captopril

Question 33Single Answer

___is a cardioselective

-blocker with vasodilatory action.

A
Atenolol
B
Bisoprolol
C
Nebivolol
D
Pindolol

Question 34Single Answer

___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.

A
Mexiletine
B
Diltiazem
C
Propranolol
D
Nifedipine

Question 35Single Answer

Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?

A
Valsartan
B
Amlodipine
C
Atenolol
D
Enalapril

Question 36Single Answer

Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when β₁-selectivity is clinically desirable?

A
Metoprolol is relatively selective for β₁-adrenoceptors
B
Metoprolol is an irreversible α-blocker
C
Metoprolol is a calcium-channel blocker
D
Metoprolol stimulates β₂-adrenoceptors

Question 37Single Answer

Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating β₁-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?

A
Dobutamine
B
Digitoxin
C
Nicardipine
D
Sotalol

Question 38Single Answer

Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?

A
Nitroglycerin
B
Timolol
C
Atenolol
D
Ivabradine

Question 39Single Answer

Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?

A
Nifedipine
B
Timolol
C
Digoxin
D
Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 40Single Answer

Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.

A
3-5 mins
B
10-30 mins
C
1-2 hours
D
8-10 hours

Question 41Single Answer

When was the Pharmacy Act 1948 enacted ?

A
1945
B
1948
C
1950
D
1955

Question 42Single Answer

The Pharmacy Act 1948 regulates the profession of :

A
Medicine
B
Law
C
Pharmacy
D
Engineering

Question 43Single Answer

The primary objective of the Pharmacy Act 1948 is to :

A
Control the prices of medicines
B
Regulate the education and practice of pharmacy
C
Promote alternative medicine systems
D
Regulate the practice of medicine

Question 44Single Answer

The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted by the Central Government under which section of the Pharmacy Act, 1948?

A
Section 3
B
Section 10
C
Section 19
D
Section 29

Question 45Single Answer

Who elects the President and Vice-President of the Pharmacy Council of India?

A
Members of the Central Council from among themselves
B
Central Government
C
State Governments jointly
D
President of India

Question 46Single Answer

The Pharmacy Act 1948 is applicable to which of the following professions ?

A
Medical practitioners
B
Pharmacists
C
Lawyers
D
Engineers

Question 47Single Answer

Who is responsible for maintaining the Indian Register of Pharmacists under the Pharmacy Act ?

A
Central Government
B
State Government
C
Pharmacy Council of India
D
Indian Medical Association

Question 48Single Answer

Which document prescribed under the Pharmacy Act specifies the minimum standard of education required for qualification as a pharmacist?

A
Education Regulations
B
Drugs Price Control Order
C
Indian Penal Code
D
National Formulary alone

Question 49Single Answer

Under the Pharmacy Act, inspectors appointed by the Pharmacy Council of India may inspect?

A
Institutions providing an approved course of study and examinations
B
Every retail pharmacy solely for drug-price control
C
Banks maintaining pharmaceutical accounts
D
Pharmaceutical patent offices

Question 50Single Answer

Under the Pharmacy Act, the education and training of pharmacists are regulated by :

A
Medical Council of India
B
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
C
Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
D
Indian Nursing Council (INC)

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Pharmacist (Allopathy)

Question 51Single Answer

What term describes the study of how drugs affect the body and how the body affects drugs ?

A
Pathology
B
Physiology
C
Pharmacology
D
Histology

Question 52Single Answer

Which phase of drug development involves testing a new drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety and dosage range ?

A
Phase I
B
Phase II
C
Phase III
D
Phase IV

Question 53Single Answer

Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action ?

A
Oral
B
Intravenous
C
Subcutaneous
D
Topical

Question 54Single Answer

When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their individual effects, the interaction is called?

A
Synergism
B
Antagonism
C
Additive action
D
Indifference

Question 55Single Answer

Which organ is primarily responsible for drug metabolism ?

A
Kidneys
B
Liver
C
Heart
D
Lungs

Question 56Single Answer

Which of the following is the primary responsibility of a hospital pharmacist regarding drug procurement?

A
Administering medications to patients
B
Ensuring the availability of safe and effective medications
C
Diagnosing patient illnesses
D
Performing surgical procedures

Question 57Single Answer

The "FIFO" method in drug storage stands for:

A
First in, first out
B
First in, first out
C
Fast in, fast out
D
Fixed in, fixed out

Question 58Single Answer

Which temperature range is generally considered ideal for storing most medications?

A
0-5°C
B
15-25°C
C
30-40°C
D
Above 40°C

Question 59Single Answer

What is the purpose of a drug formulary in a hospital?

A
To list all available drugs in the market
B
To list approved drugs for use in the hospital
C
To provide information on drug prices
D
To regulate drug advertising

Question 60Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT a common method for drug dispensing in hospitals?

A
Unit dose dispensing
B
Bulk compounding for individual patients
C
Automated dispensing cabinets
D
Floor stock dispensing

Question 61Single Answer

What is the role of a Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC)?

A
To manage the hospital's finances
B
To develop and maintain the drug formulary and promote rational drug use
C
To oversee nursing staff training
D
To handle patient complaints

Question 62Single Answer

Which type of drug distribution system minimizes medication errors?

A
Floor stock system
B
Unit dose system
C
Bulk dispensing system
D
Individual prescription system

Question 63Single Answer

What is the purpose of "drug recall"?

A
To introduce a new drug to the market
B
To remove a defective or potentially harmful drug from the market
C
To increase the price of a drug
D
To promote a specific brand of drug

Question 64Single Answer

Which of the following is an essential aspect of inventory control in a hospital pharmacy?

A
Minimizing storage space
B
Maintaining optimal stock levels to avoid shortages and wastage
C
Maximizing drug variety
D
Ignoring expiry dates

Question 65Single Answer

What is the significance of cold chain management in a hospital pharmacy?

A
It ensures the proper storage of controlled substances.
B
It maintains the potency and efficacy of temperature-sensitive medications.
C
It simplifies drug dispensing.
D
It reduces the cost of drug storage.

Question 66Single Answer

Which of the following is an important responsibility of a clinical pharmacist?

A
Monitoring medication therapy and promoting safe drug use
B
Manufacturing medicines exclusively
C
Marketing pharmaceutical products
D
Performing surgical procedures

Question 67Single Answer

Which knowledge is particularly important for a clinical pharmacist when optimizing pharmacotherapy?

A
Disease states and their pharmacological management
B
Pharmaceutical advertising alone
C
Drug packaging design alone
D
Hospital architecture

Question 68Single Answer

Which is NOT a part of the clinical pharmacy practice?

A
Patient counseling
B
Drug utilization review
C
Manufacturing drugs
D
Therapeutic drug monitoring

Question 69Single Answer

Clinical pharmacists commonly collaborate with which healthcare professionals in multidisciplinary patient care?

A
Physicians, nurses, dietitians and other healthcare professionals
B
Pharmaceutical sales representatives only
C
Administrative staff exclusively
D
Accountants exclusively

Question 70Single Answer

Which of the following is a symptom of Tuberculosis?

A
Fever and cough
B
Skin rash
C
Joint pain
D
Nausea

Question 71Single Answer

Which early Indian law specifically regulated the import, possession for sale, and sale of poisons?

A
Poisons Act, 1919
B
Pharmacy Act, 1948
C
Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
D
Drugs and Magic Remedies Act, 1954

Question 72Single Answer

Which committee’s recommendations led to the enactment of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

A
Bhore Committee
B
Chopra Committee
C
Mudaliar Committee
D
Hathi Committee

Question 73Single Answer

Which Act governs the manufacture, sale, and distribution of drugs in India?

A
Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
B
Pharmacy Act, 1948
C
Medical Council Act, 1956
D
Indian Penal Code

Question 74Single Answer

What is the main objective of pharmaceutical legislation in India?

A
Promotion of pharmaceutical companies
B
Regulation of drug prices
C
Ensuring safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs
D
Encouraging drug exports

Question 75Single Answer

The Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 regulates which broad categories of products within its statutory scope?

A
Drugs and cosmetics, including specified categories recognized under the Act
B
Only allopathic medicines
C
Only veterinary medicines
D
Only Ayurvedic medicines

Question 76Single Answer

What does a Complete Blood Count (CBc) primarily measure?

A
Blood glucose levels
B
Cellular components of blood
C
Serum electrolytes
D
Liver enzymes

Question 77Single Answer

Which parameter is NOT evaluated in a CBC?

A
Hemoglobin concentration
B
Platelet count
C
Serum creatinine
D
White blood cell count

Question 78Single Answer

What condition is indicated by a low hemoglobin level?

A
Dehydration
B
Anemia
C
Leukemia
D
Thrombocytopenia

Question 79Single Answer

Which type of white blood cell increases in response to parasitic infections?

A
Neutrophils
B
Basophils
C
Eosinophils
D
Lymphocytes

Question 80Single Answer

A high platelet count is known as:

A
Thrombocytopenia
B
Thrombocytosis
C
Leukopenia
D
Anemia

Question 81Single Answer

What is the primary role of a community pharmacist in patient counseling?

A
Dispense medications
B
Educate patients on medication use
C
Prescribe medications
D
Monitor the patient's health status

Question 82Single Answer

Which of the following is a key responsibility of a community pharmacist in medication management?

A
Conducting laboratory tests
B
Ensuring the safe and effective use of medications
C
Prescribing medications
D
Monitoring the financial aspects of healthcare

Question 83Single Answer

When a patient receives a prescription, what is the community pharmacist's responsibility regarding the medication?

A
To provide it without any counseling
B
To ensure that the medication is dispensed correctly with proper instructions
C
To fill the prescription and charge the patient
D
To offer discounts on medications

Question 84Single Answer

Which activity is a clear example of health promotion that can be provided through community pharmacy practice?

A
Smoking-cessation counseling
B
Manufacturing surgical instruments
C
Performing major surgery
D
Issuing medical degrees

Question 85Single Answer

What is the first step a pharmacist should take in patient counseling?

A
Provide information on medication costs
B
Ask the patient about their health condition and concerns
C
Recommend a treatment without consulting the doctor
D
Offer discounts on medication

Question 86Single Answer

Which is an important advantage of liposomes as drug-delivery carriers?

A
Ability to encapsulate both hydrophilic and lipophilic drugs
B
Guaranteed elimination of drug toxicity
C
Mandatory rapid renal clearance
D
Complete prevention of drug degradation in every formulation

Question 87Single Answer

Liposomes are primarily composed of:

A
Polysaccharides
B
Proteins
C
Phospholipids
D
Nucleic acids

Question 88Single Answer

The aqueous cavity of a liposome is best suited for encapsulating:

A
Hydrophobic drugs
B
Lipophilic drugs
C
Hydrophilic drugs
D
Gaseous drugs

Question 89Single Answer

Which method is commonly used for the preparation of multilamellar vesicles (MLVs)?

A
Sonication
B
Extrusion
C
Thin-film hydration
D
Reverse-phase evaporation

Question 90Single Answer

Sterically stabilized liposomes, often referred to as "stealth liposomes," are modified with which polymer to prolong circulation time?

A
Polyvinylpyrrolidone (PVP)
B
Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
C
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
D
Ethylcellulose

Question 91Single Answer

Under the commonly used general definition, nanoparticles have dimensions approximately within which range?

A
1–100 nm
B
1–1000 µm
C
1–10 mm
D
10–100 cm

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following materials is commonly used for the fabrication of polymeric nanoparticles?

A
Gold
B
Silicon dioxide
C
Polylactic acid (PLA)
D
Carbon nanotubes

Question 93Single Answer

Nanoparticles can enhance drug delivery by:

A
Increasing first-pass metabolism
B
Promoting drug degradation
C
Improving drug penetration across biological barriers
D
Enhancing non-specific drug distribution

Question 94Single Answer

Which of the following is a method for preparing nanoparticles by precipitation?

A
Emulsification-solvent evaporation
B
Nanoprecipitation
C
High-pressure homogenization
D
Spray drying

Question 95Single Answer

The enhanced permeability and retention effect has traditionally been associated with passive accumulation of nanocarriers particularly in?

A
Some solid tumors with abnormal vasculature
B
All healthy tissues equally
C
Normal intact brain tissue universally
D
Every organ regardless of vascular properties

Question 96Single Answer

Transdermal drug delivery systems (TDDS) primarily deliver drugs through which route?

A
Oral
B
Intravenous
C
Across the skin
D
Inhalation

Question 97Single Answer

The outermost layer of the skin that acts as the primary barrier to drug permeation is the:

A
Dermis
B
Hypodermis
C
Stratum corneum
D
Epidermis

Question 98Single Answer

Permeation enhancers are often included in transdermal formulations to:

A
Increase drug stability
B
Reduce skin irritation
C
Enhance drug penetration across the skin
D
Control the release rate from the patch

Question 99Single Answer

In which transdermal patch design is the drug incorporated directly into the pressure-sensitive adhesive layer?

A
Drug-in-adhesive system
B
Reservoir system
C
Membrane-controlled reservoir only
D
Osmotic implant

Question 100Single Answer

Iontophoresis, as an enhancement technique for transdermal delivery, utilizes:

A
Ultrasound waves
B
Magnetic fields
C
Electrical current
D
Microneedles

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Latest DHFWS Puducherry Pharmacist Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Pharmacist (Allopathy)

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