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Latest DHFWS Purba Bardhaman CHO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

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Question Bank DHFWS Purba Bardhaman CHO Exam - English
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CHO

Question 1Single Answer
In the classic epidemiological triad, the factor that includes age, sex, immunity status, nutritional status and genetic make-up is classified as which component?
  1. AHost
  2. BAgent
  3. CEnvironment
  4. DVector
Question 2Single Answer
Iceberg phenomenon of disease is most classically demonstrated in which disease?
  1. APoliomyelitis
  2. BMeasles
  3. CTuberculosis
  4. DDengue
Question 3Single Answer
The term “generation time” in epidemiology refers to:
  1. AIncubation period
  2. BInterval between receipt of infection by host and maximal infectivity of that host
  3. CLatent period
  4. DSerial interval
Question 4Single Answer
The single most important determinant of secondary attack rate in a household contacts of pulmonary TB index case is:
  1. ABCG vaccination status of contacts
  2. BSputum AFB grade of index case
  3. CHIV status of contacts
  4. DDuration of symptoms in index case
Question 5Single Answer
In malaria epidemiology, the term “zooprophylaxis” refers to:
  1. AIRS with DDT
  2. BUse of bed nets
  3. CPreference of mosquito for animal blood over human blood
  4. DLarvivorous fish
Question 6Single Answer
The “critical community size” below which measles cannot be sustained endemically is approximately:
  1. A100,000
  2. B250,000–400,000
  3. C1 million
  4. D50,000
Question 7Single Answer
In the natural history of disease, the stage where early pathogenic changes occur but no signs/symptoms are present is called:
  1. APre-pathogenesis
  2. BIncubation period
  3. CLatency
  4. DSubclinical stage
Question 8Single Answer
The index that best measures the risk of developing disease among exposed individuals compared to non-exposed is:
  1. ARelative risk
  2. BAttributable risk percent
  3. COdds ratio
  4. DPopulation attributable risk
Question 9Single Answer
In dengue epidemiology, the phenomenon where second infection with different serotype causes severe disease is called:
  1. AAntibody-dependent enhancement (ADE)
  2. BOriginal antigenic sin
  3. CHerd immunity failure
  4. DCross-protection
Question 10Single Answer
The most important reservoir for urban yellow fever is:
  1. AAedes aegypti mosquito
  2. BHumans
  3. CMonkeys
  4. DBoth humans and monkeys
Question 11Single Answer
The term “index case” is synonymous with:
  1. ATertiary case
  2. BSecondary case
  3. CCo-primary case
  4. DPrimary case
Question 12Single Answer
In outbreak investigation, the first step after verification of diagnosis is:
  1. ACase definition
  2. BLine listing
  3. CSpot map
  4. DHypothesis generation
Question 13Single Answer
The most sensitive indicator for ongoing transmission of tuberculosis in a community is:
  1. APrevalence of sputum-positive cases
  2. BIncidence of new smear-positive cases
  3. CAnnual risk of tuberculous infection (ARTI)
  4. DCase detection rate
Question 14Single Answer
In leprosy, the “reversal reaction” (Type-1) is mediated by:
  1. ADelayed-type hypersensitivity (cell-mediated immunity)
  2. BImmune-complex deposition
  3. CIgE-mediated
  4. DAntibody-dependent cytotoxicity
Question 15Single Answer
The “window period” in HIV refers to:
  1. ATime from infection to AIDS
  2. BTime from infection to development of detectable antibodies
  3. CSeroconversion illness
  4. DTime when CD4 <200
Question 16Single Answer
The most common mode of transmission of hepatitis B in Indian adults is:
  1. AVertical
  2. BHorizontal (parenteral/sexual)
  3. CNeedle-stick
  4. DBlood transfusion
Question 17Single Answer
In malaria, the “relapse” is characteristically seen in infections caused by:
  1. AP. falciparum
  2. BP. vivax and P. ovale
  3. CP. malariae
  4. DP. knowlesi
Question 18Single Answer
The most reliable single indicator of malaria endemicity in a community is:
  1. ASpleen rate in children 2–9 years
  2. BParasite rate
  3. CInfant parasite rate
  4. DAPI
Question 19Single Answer
In polio eradication, the “zero-dose” child is defined as a child who has:
  1. AMissed booster
  2. BReceived only bOPV
  3. CReceived only IPV
  4. DNever received any OPV/IPV dose
Question 20Single Answer
The term “herd immunity threshold” for measles is closest to:
  1. A70–75%
  2. B80–85%
  3. C60%
  4. D90–95%
Question 21Single Answer
In tuberculosis, the risk of developing disease after primary infection is highest in:
  1. AElderly
  2. BAdolescents
  3. CAdults 20–40 years
  4. DChildren <5 years
Question 22Single Answer
The “stop transmission” strategy in leprosy elimination targets reduction of:
  1. ANew case detection rate
  2. BGrade-2 disability rate among new cases
  3. CMB proportion
  4. DChild proportion
Question 23Single Answer
In dengue, the critical phase begins around:
  1. AAfter shock
  2. BDay 1–2
  3. CDay 8–10
  4. DDefervescence (day 3–7 of illness)
Question 24Single Answer
The most important portal of exit for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
  1. ASputum
  2. BRespiratory droplets
  3. CUrine
  4. DSkin
Question 25Single Answer
The most sensitive test for detecting latent TB infection in children <5 years in India (as per NTEP 2024) is:
  1. AC-Tb skin test
  2. BIGRA
  3. CTuberculin skin test (TST)
  4. DChest X-ray
Question 26Single Answer
In malaria, the “hypnozoite” stage is responsible for:
  1. ATransmission
  2. BRecrudescence in P. falciparum
  3. CRelapse in P. vivax
  4. DGametocyte production
Question 27Single Answer
The vectorial capacity of a mosquito population is directly proportional to:
  1. Ama²pn / –ln p (where m = man-biting rate, a = human biting habit, p = daily survival, n = extrinsic incubation period)
  2. BOnly man-biting rate
  3. COnly longevity
  4. DOnly density
Question 28Single Answer
The most common cause of epidemic viral conjunctivitis in India is:
  1. AEnterovirus 70
  2. BAdenovirus 8
  3. CCoxsackie A24
  4. DHerpes simplex
Question 29Single Answer
The “ring strategy” in malaria elimination is applied when API is:
  1. A<1 per 1000
  2. B<5 per 1000
  3. C>10 per 1000
  4. DAny API
Question 30Single Answer
In HIV, the most important prognostic marker is:
  1. ACD4 count
  2. BViral load
  3. Cp24 antigen
  4. DCD4/CD8 ratio
Question 31Single Answer
The minimum duration for which a patient with MDR-TB must remain culture-negative before being declared cured under NTEP is:
  1. A6 months
  2. B9 months
  3. C12 months
  4. D18 months
Question 32Single Answer
The “test and treat” strategy for HIV in India is applied to:
  1. AOnly if viral load >1000
  2. BOnly if CD4 <350
  3. CAll persons diagnosed with HIV irrespective of CD4 count
  4. DOnly pregnant women
Question 33Single Answer
The most common serotype causing dengue hemorrhagic fever in India in recent years is:
  1. ADEN-2
  2. BDEN-1
  3. CDEN-3
  4. DDEN-4
Question 34Single Answer
The incubation period of chikungunya is:
  1. A14–28 days
  2. B7–21 days
  3. C2–12 days (average 3–7 days)
  4. D1–3 days
Question 35Single Answer
The most common neurological complication of Japanese encephalitis in children is:
  1. ADeafness
  2. BParkinsonism
  3. CBehavioural abnormalities
  4. DSeizures
Question 36Single Answer
The case fatality rate of Nipah virus infection in India (2018 Kerala outbreak) was approximately:
  1. A20–30%
  2. B40–50%
  3. C<10%
  4. D70–90%
Question 37Single Answer
The vector for Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFd) is:
  1. AAnopheles stephensi
  2. BAedes aegypti
  3. CCulex tritaeniorhynchus
  4. DHaemaphysalis spinigera
Question 38Single Answer
The most sensitive indicator for monitoring elimination of lymphatic filariasis is:
  1. AMicrofilaria rate <1% in children 6–10 years
  2. BAntigenemia rate <1% in children 6–10 years
  3. CMF rate <1% in all ages
  4. DElephantiasis rate
Question 39Single Answer
The “Tasmanian devil effect” in epidemiology refers to:
  1. ARapid decline in herd immunity when vaccination coverage falls slightly below critical level
  2. BRe-emergence of disease
  3. CAntigenic drift
  4. DZoonotic spillover
Question 40Single Answer
In measles outbreak, the most important priority group for supplementary immunisation is:
  1. A9 months–10 years
  2. B6 months–15 years
  3. C9 months–5 years
  4. DAll ages
Question 41Single Answer
The minimum duration of isolation for chickenpox patient is:
  1. A7 days
  2. B5 days after rash
  3. CUntil all lesions crust
  4. D10 days
Question 42Single Answer
The most common cause of viral encephalitis in India is:
  1. ANipah
  2. BHerpes simplex
  3. CJapanese encephalitis
  4. DChandipura
Question 43Single Answer
The “cold chain” temperature for storage of OPV is:
  1. A+2 to +8°C
  2. B–20°C
  3. C–20°C at central, +2 to +8°C at PHC
  4. D+2 to +8°C only
Question 44Single Answer
The vaccine vial monitor (VVM) stage at which measles vaccine should be discarded is:
  1. AStage 3
  2. BStage 2
  3. CStage 4
  4. DAny stage
Question 45Single Answer
The most heat-stable vaccine in routine immunisation is:
  1. ABCG
  2. BHepatitis B
  3. COPV
  4. DDPT
Question 46Single Answer
The “open vial policy” is applicable to:
  1. AAll vaccines
  2. BOPV, measles
  3. CBCG
  4. DDPT, TT, Hepatitis B, PCV, IPV, JE
Question 47Single Answer
The most common opportunistic infection in HIV in India is:
  1. ATuberculosis
  2. BPneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
  3. CCryptococcal meningitis
  4. DToxoplasmosis
Question 48Single Answer
The drug used for post-exposure prophylaxis of rabies in category III exposure along with vaccine is:
  1. AEquine RIG
  2. BHuman RIG or monoclonal antibodies
  3. CBoth
  4. DNo RIG needed
Question 49Single Answer
The incubation period of rabies in humans is usually:
  1. A1–3 months
  2. B7–10 days
  3. C6 months–1 year
  4. D<7 days–10 years
Question 50Single Answer
The most common animal responsible for human rabies in India is:
  1. AMonkey
  2. BCat
  3. CDog
  4. DBat
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