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Latest DLSA Para Legal Volunteer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Mathematics, English, Reasoning, General Knowledge
Question Bank DLSA Para Legal Volunteer Exam - English
Mathematics
Q 1 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 2 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 3 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 5 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 6 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 7 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 8 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 9 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 10 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 11 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 12 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 13 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 14 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 15 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 16 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 17 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 18 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 19 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 20 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 21 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 22 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 23 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 24 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 25 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
English
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Important Questions Package
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DLSA Para Legal Volunteer Exam Question Bank Book - English
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 52 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 53 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 54 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 58 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 60 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 61 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 62 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 63 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 64 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 65 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 66 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 67 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 68 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 69 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 71 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 72 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 73 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 74 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 75 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
General Knowledge
Q 76 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 77 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 78 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 79 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 80 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 81 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 82 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 83 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 84 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 85 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 86 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 87 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 88 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 89 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 90 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 91 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 92 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 93 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 94 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 95 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 96 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?
A.RTGS
B.NEFT
C.UPI Lite
D.IMPS
Q 97 :
Which ministry implements the PM-KISAN Scheme?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Rural Development
C.Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare
D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q 98 :
Exercise Tarang Shakti is associated with which arm of the Indian Armed Forces?
A.Indian Army
B.Indian Navy
C.Indian Coast Guard
D.Indian Air Force
Q 99 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 javelin final, the gold medal was won by an athlete from:
A.Sri Lanka
B.Australia
C.India
D.England
Q 100 :
Which institution publishes the Global Innovation Index?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?