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Question Bank

DLW Apprentice Exam (Mechanical) - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 100 · Language: 3

View Diesel Locomotive Works Apprentice 2026 Exam Page

English

1
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. A.a
  2. B.an
  3. C.some
  4. D.the
2
Have the car stolen!
  1. A.Steal the car
  2. B.You should have the stolen car
  3. C.Get someone to steal the car
  4. D.They have stolen the car
3
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
  1. A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
  2. B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
  3. C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
  4. D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
4
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
  1. A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
  2. B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
  3. C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
  4. D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
5
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
  1. A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
  2. B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
  3. C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
  4. D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them. 
6
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A. presented , stay
  2. B.introduced , keep
  3. C.announce , make
  4. D.created , let
  5. E.proclaimed , hold
7
Assets
  1. A.liabilities
  2. B.responsibilities
  3. C.estates
  4. D.profits
8
Affidavit
  1. A. Affirmation
  2. B.Slander
  3. C.Oath
  4. D.Testimony
9
Hollow
  1. A.Alveolate
  2. B.Cleft
  3. C. Cavernous
  4. D.Solid
10
Cosset 
  1. A.Ignoreb
  2. B.Close
  3. C.Caress
  4. D.Fondle

Mechanical

1
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
  1. A.Greater than 1
  2. B.Equal to 1
  3. C.Between 1 and 3
                   4        4
  4. D.Less than 1
2
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
3
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
  1. A.Newtonian fluid 
  2. B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
  3. C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
  4. D.Dilatent fluids
4
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
  1. A.8
  2. B.6
  3. C.4
  4. D.2
5
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
  1. A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
  2. B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
  3. C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
  4. D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
6
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.1 only 
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
7
State whether following flow field is physically possible? 
  1. A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
  2. B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
  3. C.Possible for steady, compressible flow 
  4. D.Not Possible 
8
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
  1. A.0.25
  2. B.0.26
  3. C.2
  4. D.4
9
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
  1. A.10 kW 
  2. B.20 kW
  3. C.30 kW
  4. D.50 kW
10
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
  1. A.man power
  2. B.profit
  3. C.inventory
  4. D.manufacturing
11
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
  1. A.3 m/s2
  2. B.6 m/s2
  3. C.9 m/s2
  4. D.15 m/s2
12
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
  1. A.9
  2. B.-6
  3. C.117
  4. D.10.8
13
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
  1. A.More for lighter fluid
  2. B.More for denser fluid
  3. C.Less for denser fluid
  4. D.Less for lighter fluid
14
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
  1. A.Linearly with fluid density
  2. B.Inversely with pressure drop
  3. C.Directly as square of pipe radius
  4. D.Inversely with fluid velocity
15
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
  1. A.1.5mm
  2. B.2.5mm
  3. C.4.0mm
  4. D.5.0mm
16
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
  1. A.0.05m 
  2. B.0.07m
  3. C.0.08m
  4. D.0.09m
17
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
 
  1. A.8 kW     
  2. B.4 kW
  3. C.2 kW    
  4. D. 1 kW
18
In a hydraulic coupling
  1. A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
  2. B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
  3. C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
  4. D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque 
19
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
  1. A.1,2 and 3 only
  2. B.1,2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1,2, 3 and 4 
20
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
  1. A.150 N
  2. B.1470 N
  3. C.340 N
  4. D.900 N

Hindi

1
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
  1. A. गुण संधि के अनुसार   
  2. B. यण संधि के अनुसार
  3. C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार  
  4. D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार 
2
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है - 
  1. A. त्
  2. B. न् 
  3. C. द् 
  4. D. भ्
3
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
  1. A. ल
  2. B. ष
  3. C. ड़
  4. D. न
4
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
  1. A. ख
  2. B. ग
  3. C. च
  4. D. द
5
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
  1. A. ट ड द ढ
  2. B. च छ ज झ
  3. C. त थ द ध
  4. D. प फ ब भ
6
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
  1. A. मूर्धा
  2. B. कण्ठ
  3. C. तालु
  4. D. ओष्ठ
7
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
  1. A. ए - ऐ
  2. B. ए - ओ
  3. C. ए - ऊ
  4. D. त - द
8
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
  1. A. समास
  2. B. अव्यय
  3. C. उपसर्ग
  4. D. प्रत्यय
9
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
  1. A. प्र
  2. B. त
  3. C. प्रख
  4. D. आत
10
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
  1. A. सखी
  2. B. शाखा
  3. C. राखी
  4. D. साक्षी

Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
12
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
13
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
14
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
15
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
17
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
18
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
19
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
20
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
  1. A.HID
  2. B.SON
  3. C.Both LAP and BUT
  4. D.CAR
  5. E.Both CAR and LAP

Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Chemistry but not in Physics.
  1. A.318
  2. B.198
  3. C.213 
  4. D.206
12
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
  1. A.558   
  2. B.718
  3. C.628  
  4. D.None of these
13
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
  1. A.20%  
  2. B.25%
  3. C.30%  
  4. D.40%
14
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
  1. A.19%  
  2. B.31%
  3. C.44%
  4. D.None of these
15
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
  1. A.38% 
  2. B.48%
  3. C.51%  
  4. D.None of these
16
What is the percentage of persons who read only A but neither B nor C ?
  1. A.4%
  2. B.3%
  3. C.1%  
  4. D.None of these
17
If A and B are any two sets, then what is A á´– (A á´— B) equal to ?
  1. A.Complement of A 
  2. B.Complement of B
  3. C.B   
  4. D.A
18
40% of the people read newspaper X, 50% read newspaper Y and 10% read both the papers. What percentage of the people read neither newspaper ?
  1. A.10%    
  2. B.15%
  3. C.20%  
  4. D.25%
19
The passengers who like only coffee is greater than the passengers who like only lassi by
  1. A.25%   
  2. B.100%
  3. C.75%   
  4. D.0%
20
The percentage of passengers who like both tea and lassi but not coffee, is
  1. A.15 
  2. B.25
  3. C.40 
  4. D.75

GK

1
Which ministry launched the ‘One Nation-One Port Process’ (ONOP) in 2025?
  1. A.Ministry of Defence
  2. B.Ministry of Finance
  3. C.Ministry of Commerce
  4. D.Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways
2
How many judges were appointed to the Supreme Court of India in May 2025 to reach its full strength of 34?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Four
  4. D.Three
3
Which Indian city hosted the 81st IATA Annual General Meeting in 2025?
  1. A.New Delhi
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Bengaluru
  4. D.Hyderabad
4
Which ministry launched the Bhasha Sangam initiative for schools in 2025?
  1. A.Ministry of Culture
  2. B.Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. C.Ministry of Education
  4. D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
5
Which country launched the world’s first ship tunnel project, set to be completed by 2025-26?
  1. A.Sweden
  2. B.Denmark
  3. C.Norway
  4. D.Finland
6
Which site in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh, was added to UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage List in 2025?
  1. A.Madihan Caves
  2. B.Chunar Fort
  3. C.Salkhan Fossils Park
  4. D.Vindhyachal Temple
7
Which Indian state’s folk dance, Jhumur, was performed by 8,600 dancers at the Jhumoir Binandini 2025 event?
  1. A.Assam
  2. B.Odisha
  3. C.Jharkhand
  4. D.West Bengal
8
When is the International Day of Education observed annually?
  1. A.26 January
  2. B.25 January
  3. C.24 January
  4. D.27 January
9
What is Neonatal Sepsis, which was in the news in 2025?
  1. A.A viral infection
  2. B.A bacterial infection in newborns
  3. C.A genetic disorder
  4. D.A respiratory disease
10
Which team won the Ranji Trophy 2024-25 title?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Vidarbha
11
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
  1. A.Uttar Pradesh
  2. B.Rajasthan
  3. C.Tamil Nadu
  4. D.Gujarat
12
Who was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI in February 2025?
  1. A.Mani Shankar
  2. B.Jitendra Kumar
  3. C.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
  4. D.Balbeer Singh
13
Which Indian city hosted the 9th National Summit on Public Healthcare in February 2025?
  1. A.Odisha
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Telangana
  4. D.Karnataka
14
Which space agency launched the ‘Artemis III’ mission to the Moon in 2025?
  1. A.ESA
  2. B.CNSA
  3. C.ISRO
  4. D.NASA
15
What was the theme of the Pusa Krishi Vigyan Mela 2025 held in New Delhi?
  1. A.Organic Agriculture
  2. B.Advanced Agriculture – Developed India
  3. C.Digital Farming
  4. D.Sustainable Irrigation
16
Who was appointed as the first Indian-origin Director of the FBI in February 2025?
  1. A.Ajit Pai
  2. B.Neal Katyal
  3. C.Kash Patel
  4. D.Preet Bharara
17
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?
  1. A.Rajasthan
  2. B.Gujarat
  3. C.Madhya Pradesh
  4. D.Maharashtra
18
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
  1. A.Promote cash transactions
  2. B.Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
  3. C.Reduce ATM usage
  4. D.Increase bank branch networks
19
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
  1. A.Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  3. C.Ministry of External Affairs
  4. D.Ministry of Electronics and IT
20
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
  1. A.ISRO
  2. B.HAL
  3. C.Bharat Dynamics Limited
  4. D.DRDO
Question for Diesel Locomotive Works Apprentice 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam