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Latest DNS Bank Probationary Management Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning, Computer Aptitude, General & Banking, General Economics, Banking, English, General English, Quantitative Aptitude, Data Analysis & Interpretation
Question Bank DNS Bank Probationary Management Officer Exam - English
In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from lamp’Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language ?
A.Si
B.Pa
C.Ti
D.Ke
E.None of these
Q 2 :
What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetic order given below?
C B A A C B A A B C B A A B C C B A A B ?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Q 3 :
How many meaningful English works can be formed with the letters ‘RAE’ using each letter only once in each word ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 4 :
The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternative shall replace the question mark?
AD, C, HK, MJ,?
A.NQ
B.OQ
C.OR
D.MP
E.None of these
Q 5 :
If the letters in the word 'DOLPHIN' are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of the following letters will be the fifth from left?
A.O
B.D
C.I
D.L
E.None of these
Q 6 :
In a certain code EXPERT is written as $Z%$Q5 and PETROL is written as %$5Q#9. How will 'EXPLORE' be writ n in that code?
A.$ Z % 9 Q # $
B.$ Z % 9 # Q $
C.$ Z % 9 # $ Q
D.$ Z % 9 $ # Q
E.None of these
Q 7 :
Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and B?
A.Cannot be determined
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 8 :
In a certain code 'BACK' is written as '5914' and 'KITE' is written as '4876'. How is 'BEAT' written in that code?
A.5697
B.5967
C.4697
D.5687
E.None of these
Q 9 :
West : North - East :: South : ?
A.North - West
B.South - East
C.North
D.East
Q 10 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.one
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 11 :
Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.39
B.48
C.56
D.31
E.72
Q 12 :
In a certain code language, 'go and come' is written as 'na ta ka' and 'black and white' is written as 'pa ma ta'. How is 'go' written in that code language?
A.na
B.ka
C.pa
D.na or ka
E.None of these
Q 13 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 14 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 15 :
In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME written as 64 $ How is GEAR written in that code ?
A.74$@
B.7$4@
C.7%4@
D.7@$4
E.none of these
Q 16 :
How is L elated to Q in the expression L M x O – P Q’ ?
A.Granddaughter
B.Niece
C.Daughter - in - law
D.Daughter
E.Cannot be determined
Q 17 :
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression'Q ? R ÷ S x T'?
A.+
B.x
C.–
D.÷
E.Either – or ÷
Q 18 :
Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the equation:'A - B x C + D - E'?
A.C is mother of A
B.E is wife of B
C.D is brother of A
D.E is mother-in-law of C
E.None is true
Q 19 :
Who lives on a floor immediately above B's floor?
A.A
B.C
C.D
D.A or C
E.B lives on top floor
Q 20 :
Who lives on the fifth floor?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.None of these
Computer Aptitude
Q 21 :
Ethernet, LAN Token Ring and Token Bus are types of
A.WAN
B.Communication Channels
C.LAN
D.Physical medium
E.none of these
Q 22 :
A(n).....is composed of several computers connected together to share resources and data.
A.Internet
B.network
C.backbone
D.hyperlink
E.protocol
Q 23 :
FAT stands for
A.File Activity Table
B.File allocation Table
C.File Alless Tape
D.File Accommodation Table
E.None of the above
Q 24 :
A template is a
A.pattern of worksheet
B.heading
C.title
D.theme
E.None of these
Q 25 :
The purpose of DISKCOPY command is to
A.format the disk if it is not formatted before a write operation is initiated on it
B.overwrite the existing contents of the destination disk as it copies the new information to it
C.make an exact copy of a floppy disk
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 26 :
Storage media such as CD read and write information using .
A.a laser beam of d light
B.magnetic dots
C.magnetic strips
D.All of these
E.None of these
Q 27 :
Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc are
A.Task bar
B.Windows
C.Desktop
D.Icons
E.None of these
Q 28 :
CD-ROM is an example of
A.input device
B.Output device
C.Both input & output
D.pointing device
E.None of these
Q 29 :
Which of the following could be digital input devices for computers?
A.Digital camcorder
B.Microphone
C.Scanner
D.All of these
E.None of these
Q 30 :
Punched cards w re first introduced by
A.Powers
B.Pascal
C.Jacquard
D.Herman Hollerith
E.None of these
Q 31 :
On saving a worksheet, the 'Save As' Dialog Box
A.is used to open he saved Excel files
B.is used for saving the file for the first time
C.is used for saving the file by some alternative name
D.(1) and (2)
E.None of the above
Q 32 :
Auto-text can be used to insert ............ in document
A.Text
B.graphics
C.Any of the two
D.(1) and (2)
E.None of these
Q 33 :
Which of the following is not an example of a document file?
A.Spreadsheet
B.Memo
C.Letter
D.Term paper
E.Thesis
Q 34 :
Menus are part of the
A.hardware
B.user interface
C.status bar
D.monitor
E.None of these
Q 35 :
In Excel the intersection of a column and a row is called
A.cell
B.grid
C.table
D.box
E.None of these
Q 36 :
The ground station in VSAT communication is
A.HTTP
B.Multiplexer
C.Hub
D.Repeater
E.None of these
Q 37 :
What is Website ?
A.A place from where we can get information in documents and files
B.A site that is owned by any particular company
C.A location on the World Wide Web
D.A place from here we can access Internet
E.None of the above
Q 38 :
Which of the following is a temporary primary memory?
A.PROM
B.RAM
C.ROM
D.EPROM
E.None of the
Q 39 :
Which name is suitable to run a macro at starting time of 1 database?
A.Start.exe
B.Autoexec
C.Mocro.exe
D.Any of these
E.None of these
Q 40 :
Magnifier button is available on
A.Print Preview Toolbar
B.Standard Toolbar
C.Formatting Toolbar
D.(1) and (2)
E.None of these
General Economics, Banking
Q 41 :
‘Economics is the study of mankind in the ordinary business of life’ was given by :
A.Adam Smith
B.Lord Robbins
C.Alfred Marshall
D.Samuelson
Q 42 :
A study of how increase in the corporate income tax rate will affect the natural unemployment rate is an example of :
A.Macro Economics
B.Descriptive Economics
C.Micro Economics
D.Normative Economics
Q 43 :
Under a free economy, prices are :
A.Regulated
B.Determined through free interplay of demand and supply
C.Partly regulated
D.None of these
Q 44 :
In a free market economy, when consumers increase their purchase of a goods and the level of _______exceeds ______ then prices tend to rise :
A.Demand, Supply
B.Supply, Demand
C.Prices, Demand
D.Profits, Supply
Q 45 :
Under Inductive method, the logic proceeds from:
A.General to particulars
B.Particular to general
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.None
Q 46 :
Which of these would cause a rightward shift of the PPC curve?
A.Improvement in technology
B.Greater capital formation
C.Increase in population
D.All of these
Q 47 :
Economics is the study of :
A.How society manages its unlimited resources
B.How to reduce our wants until we are satisfied
C.Who society manages its scarce resources
D.How to fully satisfy our unlimited wants.
Q 48 :
Who defines Economics in terms of Dynamic Growth and Development?
A.Robbins
B.Paul A Samuelson
C.Adam Smith
D.None
Q 49 :
Which one is not the characteristic of capitalistic economy?
A.Profit motive
B.Income inequality
C.Free employment
D.Collective ownership
Q 50 :
Capitalistic Economy uses _____ as principal means of allocating resources.
A.Demand
B.Supply
C.Price
D.All of the above
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General Economics, Banking
Q 51 :
Micro economics is also known as_______
A.Public economics.
B.Price theory.
C.Income theory.
D.Demand theory.
Q 52 :
Which one in the following is not correct:
A.There are limited wants
B.Means are scarce
C.Resources have alternative uses
D.Economics is science.
Q 53 :
Who gave the positive aspect of science?
A.Alfred Marshall
B.A.C. Pigou
C.Adam smith
D.Robbins.
Q 54 :
In a capitalist economy the allocation of resources is performed by:
A.Producers
B.Government
C.Planners
D.Price mechanism
Q 55 :
Which of the following are the features of a mixed economy?
A.Planned economy
B.Dual system of pricing exists
C.Balanced regional development
D.All of the above.
Q 56 :
A Capitalist Economy follows the policy of :-
A.Laissez faire
B.Regulated markets
C.Promoting public sector
D.None of the above.
Q 57 :
Deductive and Inductive methods are complimentary to each other. It is:
A.Absolutely correct
B.Absolutely incorrect
C.Partially incorrect
D.None of the above.
Q 58 :
Where does price mechanism exists?
A.Capitalist Economy
B.Socialist Economy
C.Both type of economies
D.None of the above.
Q 59 :
Who has defined economics as “Science which deals with wealth” ?
A.Adam Smith
B.Canon
C.J.B. Say
D.A.C. Pigou
Q 60 :
Demand for a commodity refers to :
A.Desire for the commodity
B.Need for the commodity
C.Quantity demanded of that commodity
D.Quantity of the commodity demanded at a certain price during any particular period of time
General & Banking
Q 61 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 62 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 63 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 64 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 65 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 66 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 67 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 68 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 69 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 70 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 71 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 72 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 73 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 74 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 75 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 76 :
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A.State Bank of India
B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C.Export-Import Bank of India
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of the above
Q 77 :
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 400
C.Rs. 500
D.Rs.1000
E.Rs. 1500
Q 78 :
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A.Position of profit on a particular date
B.Position of profit for a given period
C.Position of loss for a given period
D.Both 2 and 3
E.None of the above
Q 79 :
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A.Fixed Deposit
B.Current Deposit
C.Recurring Deposit
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 80 :
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A.The Commercial Bank of India
B.Allahabad Bank
C.Oudh Commercial Bank
D.Punjab National bank ltd
E.None of the above
General English
Q 81 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The principle that
B.a pen is mightier
C.then a sword
D.was known to early Greeks.
E.No error
Q 82 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 83 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.There was such
B.a crowd that
C.he would not
D.find his brother.
E.No error
Q 84 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Having managed the
B.team of two
C.years, he knew
D.his players well.
E.No error
Q 85 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 86 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The State Government
B.has send reports
C.to the centre
D.on the situation.
E.No error
Q 87 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Whether a person
B.takes to smoking
C.depends a lot
D.in his social network.
E.No error
Q 88 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Every home and every office
B.needs the latest equipment
C.for keep up
D.with times.
E.No error
Q 89 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The idea of turning
B.invisible with the
C.swish of clock have
D.always fascinated scientists.
E.No error
Q 90 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.She had seen
B.the approaching truck
C.and had jumping
D.out of the way.
E.No error
Q 91 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.No country can long endure
B.if its foundations
C.were not laid deep
D.in the material prosperity.
E.No error
Q 92 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.I went 0 the liberarian and cashier
B.and they gave me
C.all facilities required
D.to complete the project
E.No error
Q 93 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.When she comes
B.to see us
C.she usually were bring
D.somethings with her.
E.No errors
Q 94 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Why did you
B.not told me
C.that the meeting
D.was postponed.
E.No error
Q 95 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.He picked up
B.the books
C.and put it
D.on the table.
E.No error
Q 96 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Almost
B.two hours have elapsed
C.since he fell
D.asleep.
E.All correct
Q 97 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Have you noticed
B.that the country is on the brink
C.of a serious
D.dissaster
E.All correct
Q 98 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.If the worst
B.comes to
C.worst,
D.I will have to bid good bye to my studies and join my family business.
E.No error
Q 99 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 100 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.The institute
B.imparts training
C.in
D.the French.
E.No error
Q 101 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Looking forward
B.to meet
C.you
D.soon.
E.No error
Q 102 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 103 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Pionear
B.Neighbour
C.Harmony
D.Propriety
E.All correct
Q 104 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.instantly
B.comfortable
C.Enforcement
D.wisedom
E.All correct
Q 105 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Enhance
B.Assumption
C.vehical
D.prisoner
E.All correct
Q 106 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Noteworthy
B.Pecular
C.Priority
D.Trianguiar
E.All correct
Q 107 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Viollence
B.Heredity
C.Conclusion
D.Engagement
E.All correct
Q 108 :
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Every citizen is
B.required to follow scrupulous
C.all the rules and regulations
D.prescribed by the government.
E.No error
Q 109 :
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.They have donated
B.large sums of money
C.for the we fare of
D.the poor and the underprivileged.
E.No error
Q 110 :
Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that ps. t is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No error. [Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Mr. Shome who is a
B.renowned economist has
C.been appointed to
D.an advisor to the minister.
E.No error
English
Q 111 :
How did old Sean manage to meet his food requirements?
A.By buying food from the market
B.His nephew Luke took care of his requirements
C.Lu brought fruits from the emperor's orchard for Sean
D.He picked up fruits from the emperor's orchard
E.The emperor provided him with ample supply of fruits
Q 112 :
Which f the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
A.Sean was a poor and suffering man
B.Luke came to know about the orchard from his uncle
C.Sea initially hesitated to take his nephew along
D.Luke was finally set free
E.Both Sean and Luke collected fruits from Emperor's orchard
Q 113 :
why was sean reluctant to take luke along ?
A.Because he was a selfish man
B.He feared that luke’s reaction may alert the emperor’s men
C.Because luke could harm him
D.He wanted to bring fruits for luke himself
E.He knew Luke was a greedy person
Q 114 :
How often did Sean visit the emperor's orchard?
A.Daily
B.Once month
C.In a period of two weeks
D.Never his nephew Luke brought fruits for him
E.Everyday during midnight
Q 115 :
Luke remained behind at the orchard because he
A.was greedy and wanted to collect more fruits
B.waited for the emperor’s men to arrest him
C.Lost his composure and started expressing his felling loudly
D.had waited for his uncle to return
E.Could not move in the dark
Q 116 :
Bieng toiled for two hours, he sat down to take some rest.
A.Have toiled for
B.Had toiled for
C.Having to be toiled at
D.Having toiled for
E.No correction required
Q 117 :
Highly intelligent people seldom tolerate any ambiguity.
A.tolerate hardly amy ambiguity
B.hardly tolerate ambiguous
C.tolerate ny clarity whatsoever
D.hardly tolerate any lacuna
E.No correction required
Q 118 :
Because of his efficiency, the director wanted him to work as his assistant.
A.wanted to him
B.wants him to be
C.wanted he to
D.wanted of him
E.No correction required
Q 119 :
Had I realized how close I was to falling.I would not have gone to the party.
A.If I would have realized
B.Had I realize how close
C.When I realized how close
D.If I realized close
E.No change required
Q 120 :
Except for you and I, everyone brought a present to you party.
A.With the exception of you and I everyone brought
B.Except for you and me, everyone brought
C.Except for you and me, everyone brought
D.Exception of you and me, eceryone had brought
E.No change required
Data Analysis & Interpretation
Q 121 :
The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 34.2 what is 78% of that number ?
A.1342
B.1482
C.1558
D.1670
E.none of these
Q 122 :
What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount Rs. 4000 at the rate of 5% per annum after 3 yr
A.Rs. 612
B.Rs. 578
C.Rs. 525.5
D.Rs. 630.5
E.none of these
Q 123 :
A car covers a distance of 1450 km in 25 h. What is the speed of the car ?
A.58 km/h
B.66 km/h
C.72 km/h
D.cannot be determined
E.none of these
Q 124 :
The average age of a man and his son is 40 yr. The ratio of their ages is 7:3 respectively. What is the man’s age
A.70 yr
B.63 yr
C.56 yr
D.49 yr
E.none of these
Q 125 :
A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days
A.2256
B.322
C.196
D.2352
E.none of these
Q 126 :
The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.none of these
Q 127 :
The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B and D ?
A.11440
B.11024
C.10608
D.11232
E.none of these
Q 128 :
The owner of a cell phones shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone ?
A.Rs. 5845
B.Rs. 6750
C.Rs. 5900
D.Rs. 6925
E.none of these
Q 129 :
IF (16)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3825. What is the number ?
A.69
B.59
C.89
D.79
E.none of these
Q 130 :
If an amount of Rs 85602 is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each person get ?
A.Rs. 2594
B.Rs. 2954
C.Rs. 2549
D.Rs. 2495
E.none of these
Q 131 :
43% of a number is 559. What is 32% of that number ?
A.416
B.429
C.403
D.384
E.none of these
Q 132 :
In Boolean algebra, which of the following statement is correct
A.(a + b)’ = a’ + b'
B.(a + b)’ = a’ . b'
C.(a + b)’ = (a’ . b’)
D.None of the above
E.none of these
Q 133 :
If (92)2 is added to the square of a number the answer so obtained is 10768 . what is the number
A.46
B.2304
C.48
D.2116
E.none of these
Q 134 :
The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school
A.49 : 52
B.51 : 50
C.50 : 51
D.52 : 49
E.none of these
Q 135 :
Sumit invests Rs. 4762, Which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly income
A.Rs. 28572
B.Rs. 23810
C.Rs. 19048
D.Rs 14285
E.none of these
Q 136 :
There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
A.603
B.402
C.804
D.703
E.none of these
Q 137 :
In an examination shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the examination
A.83
B.65
C.82
D.78
E.70
Q 138 :
What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs 8930 at the rate of 8% per annum after 5 yr ?
A.Rs. 5413
B.Rs. 2678
C.Rs. 3572
D.Rs 4752
E.none of these
Q 139 :
The cost of 12 chairs and 15 tables is Rs 58968. What is the cost of 4 chairs and 5 tables
A.Rs. 19656
B.Rs. 29484
C.Rs. 39312
D.cannot be determined
E.none of these
Q 140 :
The smallest number of 4-digits which when divided by 6, 8, 12 and 20 leaves no remainder is
A.120
B.1040
C.1200
D.1080
E.None of these
Q 141 :
After deducting 10% from a certain sum and there from the remainder, there is ~ 14400 left. The on sum is
A.Rs. 18000
B.Rs. 20000
C.Rs. 22000
D.Rs 22250
E.None of these
Q 142 :
A vector which makes equal angle with the vectors 1/3(i – 2j + 2k), 1/5(- 4i – 3k) and j is
A.5i + j + 5k
B.– 6i + j + 5k
C.5i – j – 5k
D.5i + j – 5k
E.none of theses
Q 143 :
A cistern is normally filled in 8 h but takes two hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. : cistern is full, the leak will empty it in
A.10h
B.18h
C.30h
D.40h
E.None of these
Q 144 :
A and B are 20 km apart. A can walk at an average of 4 km/h and B at an average speed of 6 km/h, IF they start walking towards each other at 8 am at wha1 will they meet?
A.9:00 am
B.9:30 am
C.10:00 am
D.10:30 am
E.None of these
Q 145 :
15 persons can fill 35 boxes in 7 days. How many persons are required to fill 65 boxes in 5 days?
A.39
B.49
C.33
D.36
E.None of these
Q 146 :
There are n different books and p copies of each. The number of ways in which a selection can be made from them, is
A.np
B.pn
C.(p +1)n – 1
D.(n + 1)p – 1
E.None of these
Q 147 :
A saree is sold at a profit of 20%. If both the cost price and selling price are Rs. 100 less, the profit would be 5% more. The cost price is
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 200
C.RS. 300
D.Rs. 500
E.None of these
Q 148 :
Surbhi sold a washing for Rs 9499 at a gain of 15% find the cost price of the washing machine
A.Rs 8000
B.Rs 8100
C.Rs 8260
D.Rs 8300
E.none of these
Q 149 :
The value of x in the given proportion is 15kg : 12 kg : : x : Rs 36
A.Rs 45
B.45 kg
C.Rs 54
D.54 kg
E.none of these
Q 150 :
The ratio of 250 m and 0.75 cm is
A.3 : 10
B.10 : 3
C.1000 : 3
D.100 : 3
E.none of these
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 151 :
3.88 x 5.6 x 11.5 – 31.653 = ?
A.234.880
B.265.404
C.213.067
D.256.072
E.none of these
Q 152 :
The function xx decreases in the interval
A.(0, e)
B.(0, 1)
C.(0, 1/e)
D.None of these
E.none of these
Q 153 :
93% of 456 = ?
A.435.06
B.419.02
C.443.04
D.424.08
E.none of these
Q 154 :
8.2 x ? = 465.76
A.56.8
B.48.6
C.62.4
D.74.2
E.none of these
Q 155 :
1485 ÷ (44 x 0.75) = ?
A.33
B.56
C.45
D.67
E.none of these
Q 156 :
128 ÷ 8 ÷ 0.4 = ?
A.36
B.42
C.48
D.54
E.none of these
Q 157 :
9358-5086-2384 =?
A.1788
B.1988
C.2188
D.2388
E.none of these
Q 158 :
Four of the following, five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
