Question for DRDO CEPTAM MTS 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest DRDO CEPTAM MTS Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Science, Mathematics, General English

Question Bank DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam - English

Back to Exam

General Science

Question 1Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 2Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 3Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 4Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 5Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 6Single Answer

In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across

A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter

Question 7Single Answer

Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules

A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only

Question 8Single Answer

Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.

A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only

Question 9Single Answer

Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have

A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss

Question 10Single Answer

According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is

A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium

Question 11Single Answer

For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to

A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n

Question 12Single Answer

The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using

A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer

Question 13Single Answer

A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?

A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant

Question 14Single Answer

Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?

A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)

Question 15Single Answer

An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be

A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km

Question 16Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 17Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 18Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 19Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 20Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

Question 21Single Answer

In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl₂. This is

A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road

Question 22Single Answer

A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is

A
AB₂
B
A₂B
C
AB
D
AB₃

Question 23Single Answer

In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position

Question 24Single Answer

The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with

A
PCI₅
B
PCI₃
C
SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 25Single Answer

The carbon bond length in benzene is

A
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₄
B
same as in C₂H₄
C
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₂
D
in between C₂H₄ and C₂H₂

Question 26Single Answer

The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is

A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal

Question 27Single Answer

An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K₂Cr₂O₇. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is

A
CH₃CH₂OH
B
CH₃ – C – CH₃
C
(CH₃)₂CHOH
D
CH₃CHO

Question 28Single Answer

Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₂N, NH₃

A
NH₃, < (CH₃)₃N < (CH₃)₂NH < CH₃NH₂
B
NH₃ < (CH₃)₃N < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH
C
(CH₃)₃N < NH₃ < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH
D
CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH < (CH₃)₃N , NH₃

Question 29Single Answer

The one which has least iodine value is

A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil

Question 30Single Answer

A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because

A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously

Question 31Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 32Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 33Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 34Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 35Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

Question 36Single Answer

Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A

Question 37Single Answer

What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.

A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C

Question 38Single Answer

Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B

Question 39Single Answer

Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects

A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition

Question 40Single Answer

Stoma opens, when

A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential

Mathematics

Question 41Single Answer

The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x² : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to

A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}

Question 42Single Answer

A
B
C
D
None of these

Question 43Single Answer

If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as

A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}

Question 44Single Answer

The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is

A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}

Question 45Single Answer

If A

B and A

B, then

A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A

Question 46Single Answer

The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is

A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17

Question 47Single Answer

The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is

A
2^m – 1
B
m
C
m²
D
2^m

Question 48Single Answer

If A = {x : x = n², n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is

A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these

Question 49Single Answer

If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is

A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these

Question 50Single Answer

Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then

A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint

Important Questions Package

DRDO CEPTAM MTS Exam Online Question Bank Package

Buy DRDO CEPTAM MTS Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in DRDO CEPTAM MTS question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.

+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download

Sr.	Package Name	Amount
1.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer	₹61 ~~[₹500]~~
2.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam - Hindi Description : 1500 Question with Answer.	₹81 ~~[₹500]~~
3.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer.	₹61 ~~[₹500]~~
4.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam - English Description : 1500 Question with Answer.	₹81 ~~[₹500]~~
5.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam - Hindi Description : 1000 Question With Answer	₹61 ~~[₹500]~~
6.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam - Hindi Description : 1500 Question With Answer	₹81 ~~[₹500]~~
7.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam - English Description : 1000 Question With Answer	₹61 ~~[₹500]~~
8.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam - English Description : 1500 Question With Answer	₹81 ~~[₹500]~~
9.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹390 ~~[₹600]~~
10.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier I Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹450 ~~[₹800]~~
11.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹390 ~~[₹600]~~
12.	DRDO CEPTAM MTS Tier II Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)	₹450 ~~[₹800]~~

Mathematics

Question 51Single Answer

Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}

A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above

Question 52Single Answer

The set {x : x⁴ = 1 and x

R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to

A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton

Question 53Single Answer

The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x² – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x² – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is

A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}

Question 54Single Answer

If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},

C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and

D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are

A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D

Question 55Single Answer

If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then

A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these

Question 56Single Answer

Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are

A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7

Question 57Single Answer

Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .

A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b

Question 58Single Answer

The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .

A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25

Question 59Single Answer

60 Times of 8 Equals to

A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400

Question 60Single Answer

Consider the sets

A = {x : x is a real number and x² + 1 = 0}

B = {x : x is a real number and x² – 16 = 0}

C = {x : x is a real number and x² = x + 2}

Which of the following is are null set ?

A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C

Question 61Single Answer

If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to

A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y

Question 62Single Answer

Which of the following is / are correct?

I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}

III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}

IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}

A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct

Question 63Single Answer

Question 64Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 65Single Answer

What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?

A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11

Question 66Single Answer

If A and B are two given sets, then A

B)^C is equal to

Question 67Single Answer

121 Divided by 11 is

A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18

Question 68Single Answer

Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n

= 100, then n

is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to

A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900

Question 69Single Answer

A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}

Question 70Single Answer

Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then

Question 71Single Answer

If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x

N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x

N}, then A

B consists of all multiples of

A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4

Question 72Single Answer

A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these

Question 73Single Answer

A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above

Question 74Single Answer

A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these

Question 75Single Answer

If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A

B will be

A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above

Question 76Single Answer

In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are

A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45

Question 77Single Answer

20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is

A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20

Question 78Single Answer

In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to

A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20

Question 79Single Answer

A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is

A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270

Question 80Single Answer

If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is

A
42
B
43
C
45
D
None of these

General English

Question 81Single Answer

Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error

Question 82Single Answer

A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error

Question 83Single Answer

A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error

Question 84Single Answer

A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error

Question 85Single Answer

A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error

Question 86Single Answer

A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error

Question 87Single Answer

A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error

Question 88Single Answer

A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error

Question 89Single Answer

A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error

Question 90Single Answer

A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error

Question 91Single Answer

A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error

Question 92Single Answer

A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error

Question 93Single Answer

A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error

Question 94Single Answer

A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error

Question 95Single Answer

A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error

Question 96Single Answer

A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error

Question 97Single Answer

A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error

Question 98Single Answer

A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error

Question 99Single Answer

A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error

Question 100Single Answer

A
Gandhiji was born on 2^nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error

Back to Exam

Latest DRDO CEPTAM MTS Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

General Science

Mathematics

DRDO CEPTAM MTS Exam Online Question Bank Package

Mathematics

General English

Quick View