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Question for DSE Haryana PGT (Commerce) - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English
Last Update on : October 11, 2026
Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200
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Latest DSE Haryana PGT (Commerce) Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, General Hindi, Current Affairs, Reasoning, Commerc
Question Bank DSE Haryana PGT (Commerce) Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
- A.a
- B.an
- C.some
- D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
- A.Steal the car
- B.You should have the stolen car
- C.Get someone to steal the car
- D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
- A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
- B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
- C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
- D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
- A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
- B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
- C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
- D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
- A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
- B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
- C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
- D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
- A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
- B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
- C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
- D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
- A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
- B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
- C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
- D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
- A.Suresh would be invited by us
- B.Suresh would have been invited by us
- C.Suresh will be invited by us
- D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
- A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
- B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
- C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
- D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
- A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
- B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
- C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
- D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
- A.why is the vase broken by him
- B.why was the vase broken by him
- C.why had been the vase broken by him
- D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
- A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
- B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
- C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
- D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
- A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
- B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
- C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
- D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
- A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
- B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
- C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
- D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
- A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
- B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
- C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
- D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
- A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
- B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
- C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
- D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 17 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
- A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
- B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
- C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
- D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 18 :
One must keep one’s promises.
- A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
- B.One’s promises had to be kept.
- C.Promises must be kept.
- D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 19 :
I read the story in one night.
- A.The story had been read by me in one night.
- B.The story has been read by me in one night
- C.n one night the story has been read by me.
- D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 20 :
We must take care of the old.
- A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
- B.The old must be taken care of by us.
- C.Those who are old need care by us
- D.The old should be taken care of by us.
General Hindi
Q 21 :
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
- A. गुण संधि के अनुसार
- B. यण संधि के अनुसार
- C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
- D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Q 22 :
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
- A. त्
- B. न्
- C. द्
- D. भ्
Q 23 :
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
- A. ल
- B. ष
- C. ड़
- D. न
Q 24 :
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
- A. ख
- B. ग
- C. च
- D. द
Q 25 :
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
- A. ट ड द ढ
- B. च छ ज झ
- C. त थ द ध
- D. प फ ब भ
Q 26 :
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
- A. मूर्धा
- B. कण्ठ
- C. तालु
- D. ओष्ठ
Q 27 :
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
- A. ए - ऐ
- B. ए - ओ
- C. ए - ऊ
- D. त - द
Q 28 :
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
- A. समास
- B. अव्यय
- C. उपसर्ग
- D. प्रत्यय
Q 29 :
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
- A. प्र
- B. त
- C. प्रख
- D. आत
Q 30 :
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
- A. सखी
- B. शाखा
- C. राखी
- D. साक्षी
Q 31 :
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
- A. आ
- B. ऊँ
- C. ओ
- D. औ
Q 32 :
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
- A. शब्द के आदि में
- B. शब्द के मध्य में
- C. शब्द के अंत में
- D. इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q 33 :
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
- A. कर्म, करण
- B. सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
- C. कर्ता, कर्म
- D. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q 34 :
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
- A. कर्ता
- B. करण
- C. सम्प्रदान
- D. कर्म
Q 35 :
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
- A. संयुक्त वाक्य
- B. सरल वाक्य
- C. मिश्रित वाक्य
- D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Q 36 :
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
- A. रावण को राम ने मारा।
- B. राम ने रावण को मारा।
- C. मारा राम ने रावण को।
- D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Q 37 :
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
- A. अरे
- B. में
- C. से
- D. को
Q 38 :
स्वर होते हैं -
- A. घोष
- B. अघोष
- C. अल्पप्राण
- D. महाप्राण
Q 39 :
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
- A. ल्
- B. ड
- C. ढ़
- D. स्
Q 40 :
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
- A. सच्चा
- B. कुत्ता
- C. बल्गा
- D. बग्गा
Current Affairs
Q 41 :
What is the target of India's "National Electric Vehicle Policy" by 2030?
- A.20% EV penetration
- B.50% EV penetration
- C.40% EV penetration
- D.30% EV penetration
Q 42 :
What is the theme of Gandhi Jayanti 2025, observed on October 2?
- A.Satyagraha for Peace
- B.Gandhi's Vision for India
- C.Ahimsa in Action
- D.Non-Violence in Modern Times
Q 43 :
Which Indian state launched the "Gandhi Heritage Portal" on October 2, 2025?
- A.Delhi
- B.Gujarat
- C.Uttar Pradesh
- D.Maharashtra
Q 44 :
The "Swachh Bharat Mission" was launched on October 2, 2014. What is its primary goal?
- A.Clean India by 2030
- B.Open Defecation Free India
- C.Waste Management Improvement
- D.All of the above
Q 45 :
India celebrates October 2, 2025, as the birth anniversary of which leader?
- A.Jawaharlal Nehru
- B.Mahatma Gandhi
- C.Sardar Patel
- D.Subhas Chandra Bose
Q 46 :
Which international day is observed on October 2, 2025, to promote non-violence and peace?
- A.World Peace Day
- B.International Day of Non-Violence
- C.Gandhi Jayanti
- D.Human Rights Day
Q 47 :
Whose leadership change was effective from 1 October 2025 at Tata Motors?
- A.N. Chandrasekaran
- B.Shailesh Chandra
- C.Guenter Butschek
- D.Ratan Tata
Q 48 :
What theme was chosen for Breast Cancer Awareness Month 2025, which starts on 1 October?
- A.“Pink Power”
- B.“Stay Strong”
- C.“Hope & Cure”
- D.Every Story is Unique, Every Journey Matters
Q 49 :
What major regulatory changes are set to begin in India from 1 October 2025?
- A.New trade sanctions
- B.Rules in pensions, banking, UPI, gaming etc.
- C.New tax slabs
- D.Ban on foreign media
Q 50 :
Which biosphere reserve was added by UNESCO, making India’s count reach 13 as of 1 October 2025?
- A.Sundarbans
- B.Gulf of Mannar
- C.Nilgiri Biosphere
- D.Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve
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Current Affairs
Q 51 :
Which festival, falling on 1 October 2025, involves the worship of tools, machines, vehicles and knowledge instruments?
- A.Ayudha Puja
- B.Diwali
- C.Dussehra
- D.Navratri
Q 52 :
Who was appointed as the new Deputy Governor of the RBI in October 2025?
- A.Shirish Chandra Murmu
- B.T Rabi Sankar
- C.Swaminathan J
- D.M Rajeshwar Rao
Q 53 :
Which regulator eased rules on banks’ overseas perpetual debt in September 2025 to allow more capital flexibility?
- A.SEBI
- B.IRDAI
- C.NITI Aayog
- D.RBI
Q 54 :
What decision did the RBI take on 1 October 2025 regarding the repo rate?
- A.Increased it
- B.Decreased it
- C.Kept it unchanged at 5.50%
- D.Abolished it
Q 55 :
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025, to promote elderly rights?
- A.World Elders Day
- B.Age Care Day
- C.Senior Citizens Day
- D.International Day of Older Persons
Q 56 :
Which day is observed on October 1, 2025 to promote elderly care and respect?
- A.World Heart Day
- B.International Day of Older Persons
- C.World Habitat Day
- D.International Coffee Day
Q 57 :
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025, to celebrate music and arts?
- A.World Music Day
- B.International Day of Arts
- C.World Culture Day
- D.UNESCO Creativity Day
Q 58 :
Which global organization released the "World Economic Outlook 2025" on October 1?
- A.IMF
- B.World Bank
- C.WTO
- D.UNCTAD
Q 59 :
India's first "National Maritime Heritage Complex" was inaugurated on October 1, 2025, in which state?
- A.Kerala
- B.Gujarat
- C.Tamil Nadu
- D.Maharashtra
Q 60 :
Which country launched its first carbon-neutral city on October 1, 2025?
- A.Denmark
- B.Sweden
- C.Norway
- D.Finland
Q 61 :
Which international organization released the "Global Biodiversity Outlook 5" on October 1, 2025?
- A.UNEP
- B.CBD
- C.IUCN
- D.WWF
Q 62 :
Which country hosted the "Global Climate Action Summit 2025" concluding on October 1?
- A.France
- B.Australia
- C.Kenya
- D.Brazil
Q 63 :
India's first "National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research" was established on October 1, 2025, in which city?
- A.Mumbai
- B.Goa
- C.Chennai
- D.Kochi
Q 64 :
India's first "National Hydrogen Valley" was inaugurated on October 1, 2025, in which state?
- A.Maharashtra
- B.Gujarat
- C.Andhra Pradesh
- D.Tamil Nadu
Q 65 :
The "PM Jan Dhan Yojana" completed 11 years on October 1, 2025. What is its main goal?
- A.Financial inclusion
- B.Digital payments
- C.Crop insurance
- D.Pension scheme
Q 66 :
Which Indian state launched a "Zero Budget Natural Farming" scheme on October 1, 2025?
- A.Andhra Pradesh
- B.Karnataka
- C.Telangana
- D.Kerala
Q 67 :
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025, to honor Mahatma Gandhi?
- A.Gandhi Jayanti
- B.International Day of Non-Violence
- C.World Peace Day
- D.Human Rights Day
Q 68 :
The "PM Vishwakarma Scheme" was launched on October 1, 2025, targeting which group?
- A.Farmers
- B.Artisans and craftsmen
- C.Students
- D.Senior citizens
Q 69 :
India's first indigenous 5G mmWave module was developed by which organization on October 1, 2025?
- A.DRDO
- B.C-DOT
- C.BEL
- D.ISRO
Q 70 :
Which international day is observed on October 1, 2025 to raise awareness about habitat and urban issues?
- A.World Habitat Day
- B.World Animal Day
- C.International Day of Non-Violence
- D.World Teachers' Day
Reasoning
Q 71 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
- A.Two
- B.Three
- C.Five
- D.Four
- E.None of these
Q 72 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.True
- B.False
- C.Uncertain
- D.None
Q 73 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
- A.A
- B.E
- C.T
- D.X
- E.Y
Q 74 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
- A.T
- B.L
- C.E
- D.Y
- E.X
Q 78 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 79 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 80 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
- A.V
- B.T
- C.E
- D.A
- E.B
Q 81 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
- A.N
- B.Q
- C.J
- D.M
- E.None of these
Q 82 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 83 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
- A.The only argument I is strong
- B.Only argument II is strong
- C.Either I or II is strong
- D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 84 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
- A.P
- B.L
- C.T
- D.X
- E.Y
Q 85 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 86 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.One
- B.Two
- C.Three
- D.Four
- E.More than four
Q 87 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
- A.I
- B.A
- C.L
- D.M
- E.N
Q 88 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 89 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
- A.26
- B.28
- C.30
- D.32
- E.None of these
Q 90 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 91 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
- A.X
- B.W
- C.I
- D.H
Q 92 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 93 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 94 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
- A.P
- B.Q
- C.B
- D.K
- E.None of these
Q 95 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Three
- D.Four
- E.More than Four
Q 96 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 97 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 98 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 99 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 100 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Commerc
Q 101 :
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
- A.Henry Fayol
- B.Elton Mayo
- C.Chester Bernard
- D.F. W. Taylor
Q 102 :
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
- A.Promoters
- B.Board of Directors
- C.Debenture holders
- D.Government
Q 103 :
Bonus Shares are issued to –
- A.Equity Shareholders
- B.Preference Shareholders
- C.Debenture Holders
- D.Secured Creditors
Q 104 :
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
- A.Subrogation
- B.Utmost good faith
- C.Contribution
- D.Average clause
Q 105 :
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
- A.Capital expenditure
- B.Revenue expenditure
- C.Deferred revenue expenditure
- D.Capital loss
Q 106 :
EPS is calculated as –
- A.EBIT / Equity shares
- B.EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
- C.EAT / Equity shares
- D.EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Q 107 :
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
- A.Line
- B.Line and staff
- C.Functional
- D.Matrix
Q 108 :
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
- A.To machines
- B.To paper work
- C.To man
- D.To production
Q 109 :
Standard costing is a technique of –
- A.Planning
- B.Organising
- C.Coordination
- D.Control
Q 110 :
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
- A.Prospectus
- B.Articles of Association
- C.Memorandum of Association
- D.None of the above
Q 111 :
FEMA stands for –
- A.Foreign Exchange Management Act
- B.Funds Exchange Management Act
- C.Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
- D.Future Exchange Management Act
Q 112 :
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
- A.It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
- B.It is global in its membership
- C.It has far wider scope than GATT
- D.Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Q 113 :
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
- A.ISRD
- B.ADS
- C.WTO
- D.DIMF
Q 114 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
- A.The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
- B.Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
- C.Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
- D.None of the above
Q 115 :
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
- A.Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
- B.Liability side of the Balance Sheet
- C.Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
- D.Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Q 116 :
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
- A.5%
- B.6%
- C.10%
- D.None of the above
Q 117 :
Interim Dividend is shown –
- A.In Profit and Loss Account
- B.In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
- C.On Asset side of Balance Sheet
- D.On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Q 118 :
Memorandum of Association contains –
- A.Objective clause
- B.Name clause
- C.Capital clause
- D.All of the above
Q 119 :
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
- A.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
- B.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
- C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
- D.RBI Clearing House Rules
Q 120 :
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
- A.By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
- B.By order of Registrar of Companies
- C.By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
- D.None of the above
Q 121 :
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
- A.Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
- B.Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
- C.Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
- D.Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Q 122 :
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
- A.Loco price
- B.C.I.F. price
- C.Franco price
- D.Landed price
Q 123 :
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
- A.5 Times
- B.4 Times
- C.2 Times
- D.1 Time
Q 124 :
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
- A.Rs. 9,000
- B.Rs. 10,000
- C.Rs. 11,000
- D.Rs. 19,000
Q 125 :
Commercial paper is a –
- A.long-term corporate security meant for small investors
- B.medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
- C.treasury paper meant for corporate investors
- D.short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Q 126 :
A cartel is a combination of firms –
- A.which are functioning in a particular industry
- B.whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
- C.who control major chunk of the market
- D.whose combined profits are enormous
Q 127 :
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
- A.low investment
- B.low productivity
- C.ineffective marketing
- D.poor inventory control
Q 128 :
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
- A.in foreign currency only
- B.both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
- C.as zero-interest loans
- D.as subsidies
Q 129 :
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
- A.Ordinary resolution
- B.Special resolution
- C.Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
- D.Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Q 130 :
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
- A.hostile takeover
- B.illegal takeover
- C.leveraged buy-out
- D.management buy-out
Q 131 :
A public company can start business –
- A.After incorporation
- B.After promotion
- C.After registration
- D.After getting certificate of commencement of business
Q 132 :
Impact of O & M is that –
- A.promotion possibility becomes restricted
- B.it leads to less scope for high salary and wages
- C.entire organization is streamlined
- D.work measurement is costly
Q 133 :
The term ‘Organisational climate’ best represents –
- A.human environment prevailing in an organisation
- B.union-management relations within an organisation
- C.problems introduced by faulty organisational structure
- D.socio-cultural environment in an organisation
Q 134 :
The Memorandum of Association shall be signed by each –
- A.director
- B.shareholder
- C.subscriber
- D.promoter and director
Q 135 :
Changing the name of a company requires –
- A.special resolution and approval of Company Law Board
- B.special resolution and approval of Securities and Exchange Board of India
- C.special resolution and approval of Central Government
- D.ordinary resolution and approval of Company Law Board
Q 136 :
Registration of Articles of Association is optional in the case of –
- A.unlimited company
- B.private company limited by shares
- C.company limited by guarantee
- D.public company limited by share
Q 137 :
The Base Rate system has replaced BPLR with effect from:
- A.01.05.2010
- B.01.06.2010
- C.01.07.2010
- D.01.08.2010
Q 138 :
Under the accrual concept which one of the following will not be shown as an asset/liability in the balance sheet of an entity ?
- A.Interest due but not paid
- B.Interest due but not received
- C.Interest due and paid
- D.Interest paid but not due
Q 139 :
Goods worth Rs. 24,000 were returned by X. The accountant however credited the sales returns account by Rs. 42,000. In order to rectify this error, what should be done ?
- A.Debit the sale return by Rs.42,000
- B.Credit the sales return account by Rs. 24,000
- C.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 66,000
- D.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 18,000
Q 140 :
A machine with a written down value of Rs. 10,000 has been sold for Rs. 13,000. The amount realized is a –
- A.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Capital Reserve
- B.Revenue receipt
- C.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to General Reserve
- D.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Profit and Loss A/c
Q 141 :
Provisions are amounts set aside out of profits and other surpluses for –
- A.meeting a liability, the amount of which can be determined with exact figure
- B.any known liability of which the amount cannot be determined with substantial accuracy
- C.meeting an eventuality arising out of revaluation of assets in ordinary course of business
- D.meeting a liability arising out of arbitration
Q 142 :
A Ltd. Company issues 3,000, 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 7•5% repayable at a premium of 5% at the end of 5 years. The loss on issue of debentures will be –
- A.Rs. 22,500
- B.Rs. 30,000
- C.Rs. 37,500
- D.Rs. 45,000
Q 143 :
X Ltd. has current ratio of 2– 1 and quick ratio of 1•5– 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000, then the value of stock would be –
- A.Rs. 1,60,000
- B.Rs. 1,20,000
- C.Rs. 40,000
- D.Rs. 80,000
Q 144 :
Test checking of entries in the audit work refers to –
- A.the internal checks
- B.the inernal controls
- C.checking some sample items from a large number of similar items
- D.checking the cash flow of business
Q 145 :
Share premium account can be used for –
- A.Paying tax liability
- B.Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
- C.Paying Dividend on shares
- D.Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Q 146 :
Ploughing-back of profits means –
- A.Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
- B.Non-declaration of dividend in any year
- C.Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
- D.Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Q 147 :
As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be –
- A.Added to paid up capital
- B.Deducted from called up capital
- C.Added to capital reserve
- D.Shown as a revenue reserve
Q 148 :
‘Profit objective’ is of least priority in case of –
- A.Private enterprise
- B.Public enterprise
- C.Department undertaking
- D.Cooperative society
Q 149 :
Partnership may come into existence by –
- A.The operation of law
- B.An express agreement only
- C.An express or implied agreement only
- D.Inheritance of property
Q 150 :
When a security is not treated in the Stock Exchange for a period of.........days prior to the date of valuation, it is treated as "Non- Traded" security:
- A.30 days
- B.45 days
- C.60 days
- D.90 days
Q 151 :
Debit means:
- A.Decrease in asset
- B.Increase in liability
- C.An entry on the left hand side of an account
- D.Moderate increase in liability
Q 152 :
Drawings account is related to:
- A.Nominal account
- B.Personal account
- C.Real account
- D.Company drawings account
Q 153 :
Goodwill account is related to:
- A.Nominal account
- B.Personal account
- C.Real account
- D.Tangible account
Q 154 :
Prepaid insurance is:
- A.Nominal account
- B.Personal account
- C.Real account
- D.Prepaid account
Q 155 :
Revenue is considered as being earned when:
- A.Cash is received
- B.Production is done
- C.Sale is effected
- D.Purchase is done
Q 156 :
Goods destroyed by fire should be credited to:
- A.Purchases account
- B.Sales account
- C.Loss of goods by fire account
- D.Insurance account
Q 157 :
The credit balance of bank account indicates:
- A.Amount payable by the bank
- B.Amount payable to the bank
- C.Cash at bank
- D.Loan from bank
Q 158 :
The credit balance in the bank account is:
- A.An asset
- B.A liability
- C.An expense
- D.Contingent liability
Q 159 :
Return outward book makes a record of:
- A.Goods returned to the suppliers
- B.Goods returned to customers
- C.Goods returned to proprietor
- D.Goods returned to neighbours
Q 160 :
When 1000 units are 60% complete in a process, it is equivalent to..............complete units.
- A.60
- B.600
- C.6000
- D.1000
Q 161 :
The Life Insurance in India was nationalised in the year –
- A.1870
- B.1956
- C.1960
- D.1966
Q 162 :
The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the –
- A.Board of Directors
- B.Shareholders
- C.Managing Director
- D.Outsiders
Q 163 :
Liability of a Company Secretary is –
- A.Contractual only
- B.Statutory only
- C.Civil only
- D.Both contractual and statutory
Q 164 :
...............process loss should be transferred to costing profit & loss account.
- A.Abnormal
- B.Normal
- C.Both A & B
- D.None of these
Q 165 :
In inter process profits, the output of one process is transferred from one process to another not at...........but at..............
- A.Market price, actual cost
- B.Actual cost , market price
- C.Both A & B
- D.None of these
Q 166 :
In process costing, the abnormal loss is treated as...........cost and written off to profit & loss account.
- A.Unit
- B.Period
- C.Future
- D.Process
Q 167 :
.............arises where the actual process loss is less than the normal predetermined process loss.
- A.Normal loss
- B.Abnormal loss
- C.Abnormal gain
- D.None of these
Q 168 :
Budgeting system..............key managerial functions.
- A.Dismisses
- B.Integrates
- C.Discharges
- D.None of these
Q 169 :
The budget relating to................must be prepared first and the other budgets should be prepared in the light of that factor
- A.Limiting factor
- B.Materials
- C.Labour
- D.Production
Q 170 :
..............budget may be classified into material cost budget, labour cost budget and overhead budget.
- A.Cost of production
- B.Purchase
- C.Sales
- D.Cash
Q 171 :
..............is the consolidated summary of the various functional budgets.
- A.Master budget
- B.Sales budget
- C.Performance budget
- D.Cash budget
Q 172 :
...............budget gives different budgeted costs for different levels of activity
- A.Master
- B.Fixed
- C.Flexible
- D.All of these
Q 173 :
When actual loss is .............than the estimated loss, the difference between the two is considered to be abnormal gain.
- A.More
- B.Less
- C.Higher
- D.None of these
Q 174 :
When the actual loss is more than the estimated loss, the difference between the two is considered to be..............
- A.Abnormal loss
- B.Normal loss
- C.Loss
- D.None of these
Q 175 :
Average unit cost for each process is calculated by dividing the............by...........
- A.Total cost, number of units
- B.Total process cost, number of units in process
- C.Total process cost, number of finished goods
- D.Total cost, number of units produced
Q 176 :
In.................costing where standardized goods or services result from a sequence of repetitive and more or less continuous operations to which costs are collected and averaged over the units produced during the year.
- A.Multiple
- B.Process
- C.Operation
- D.Single
Q 177 :
If the present cost of the car is Rs. 1,00,000 residual value at the end of the 5th year is Rs. 20,000, the monthly depreciation is.........
- A.Rs. 20,000
- B.Rs. 16,000
- C.Rs. 1,333
- D.Rs. 17,333
Q 178 :
In service costing, fixed charges are also called as............
- A.Standing charges
- B.Variable charges
- C.Fixed charges
- D.None of these
Q 179 :
In transportation costing a composite unit such as............is used.
- A.Passenger mile/km or Ten kilometer
- B.Per km
- C.Per passenger
- D.Per stop
Q 180 :
Calendar Ratio
Q 181 :
Efficiency Ratio =
Q 182 :
................is a summary of all function budgets in a Capsule form.
- A.Master budget
- B.Sales budget
- C.Performance budget
- D.Cash budget
Q 183 :
Cash Budget is a............budget.
- A.Long-term
- B.Very long-term
- C.Short-term
- D.Very short-term
Q 184 :
Sales budget is a:
- A.Functional budget
- B.Master budget
- C.Expenditure budget
- D.None of these
Q 185 :
The difference between fixed and variable cost has a special significance in the preparation of:
- A.Flexible budget
- B.Master budget
- C.Cash budget
- D.Sales budget
Q 186 :
In case of materials the key factor may be.
- A.Insufficient advertising
- B.Restrictions imposed by quota
- C.Low market demand
- D.Shortage of power
Q 187 :
Standard cost is a.............cost.
- A.Predetermined
- B.Historical
- C.Actual
- D.Final
Q 188 :
Standard costing is more widely applied in..............industries.
- A.Process and engineering
- B.Jobbing industries
- C.Construction industry
- D.All of these
Q 189 :
The deviation of the actual cost or profit or sales from the standard cost or profit or sale is known as............
- A.Difference
- B.Variance
- C.Discrepancy
- D.Inconsistency
Q 190 :
Material price variance is the difference between standard and actual prices of materials used multiplied by.............
- A.Actual quantity of materials used
- B.Budgeted quantity of materials used
- C.Standard quantity of materials used
- D.Either A or B
Q 191 :
Idle time variance is...............
- A.Idle time × actual labour
- B.Idle time × standard rate
- C.Idle time × budgeted labour rate
- D.Idle time × histrionica cost
Q 192 :
Standards set provide yardsticks against which ...............are compared.
- A.Budgeted costs
- B.Estimated costs
- C.Actual costs
- D.None of these
Q 193 :
Total Material cost variance =
- A.Standard cost of materials-actual cost of materials
- B.Budgeted cost of materials-actual cost of materials
- C.Standard cost of materials-budgeted cost of materials
- D.Actual cost of materials-budgeted cost of materials
Q 194 :
Material price variance = Actual u (..............)
- A.Standard price
- B.Standard unit price-actual unit price
- C.Actual price
- D.Standard usage
Q 195 :
Material mix variance = standard cost of standard mix - ..............
- A.Actual cost of actual mix
- B.Actual cost of standard mix
- C.Standard cost of actual mix
- D.Standard cost of budgeted mix
Q 196 :
Volume Variance =
- A.Standard rate (Actual output-budgeted output)
- B.Actual output x standard rate-budgeted fixed overheads
- C.Standard rate per hour (Standard hours produced-actual hours)
- D.All of the above
Q 197 :
A favorable variance will arise when capital revenues are…………….than expected.
- A.more
- B.less
- C.Lesser
- D.None of the above
Q 198 :
An unfavorable material usage arises because of:
- A.Price increase in raw materials
- B.Price decrease in raw materials
- C.Less than anticipated normal wastage in the manufacturing process
- D.More than anticipated normal wastage in the manufacturing process.
Q 199 :
………………….is an example of long-term budget.
- A.Cash budget
- B.Capital expenditure budget
- C.Research and development budget
- D.Both B & C
Q 200 :
…………..is an example of short-term budget.
- A.Cash budget
- B.Capital expenditure budget
- C.Material budget
- D.Both A & C