Question Bank
Question for DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English
Last Update on : October 11, 2026
Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200
To boost your performance in DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) exams.
Latest DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, General Hindi, Current Affairs, Reasoning, Geography
Question Bank DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
- A.a
- B.an
- C.some
- D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
- A.Steal the car
- B.You should have the stolen car
- C.Get someone to steal the car
- D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
- A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
- B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
- C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
- D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
- A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
- B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
- C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
- D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
- A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
- B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
- C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
- D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
- A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
- B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
- C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
- D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
- A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
- B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
- C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
- D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
- A.Suresh would be invited by us
- B.Suresh would have been invited by us
- C.Suresh will be invited by us
- D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
- A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
- B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
- C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
- D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
- A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
- B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
- C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
- D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
Why did break the vase?
- A.why is the vase broken by him
- B.why was the vase broken by him
- C.why had been the vase broken by him
- D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 12 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
- A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
- B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
- C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
- D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 13 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
- A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
- B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
- C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
- D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 14 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
- A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
- B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
- C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
- D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 15 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
- A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
- B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
- C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
- D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 16 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
- A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
- B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
- C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
- D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 17 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
- A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
- B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
- C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
- D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 18 :
One must keep one’s promises.
- A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
- B.One’s promises had to be kept.
- C.Promises must be kept.
- D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 19 :
I read the story in one night.
- A.The story had been read by me in one night.
- B.The story has been read by me in one night
- C.n one night the story has been read by me.
- D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 20 :
We must take care of the old.
- A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
- B.The old must be taken care of by us.
- C.Those who are old need care by us
- D.The old should be taken care of by us.
General Hindi
Q 21 :
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
- A. गुण संधि के अनुसार
- B. यण संधि के अनुसार
- C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
- D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Q 22 :
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
- A. त्
- B. न्
- C. द्
- D. भ्
Q 23 :
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
- A. ल
- B. ष
- C. ड़
- D. न
Q 24 :
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
- A. ख
- B. ग
- C. च
- D. द
Q 25 :
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
- A. ट ड द ढ
- B. च छ ज झ
- C. त थ द ध
- D. प फ ब भ
Q 26 :
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
- A. मूर्धा
- B. कण्ठ
- C. तालु
- D. ओष्ठ
Q 27 :
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
- A. ए - ऐ
- B. ए - ओ
- C. ए - ऊ
- D. त - द
Q 28 :
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
- A. समास
- B. अव्यय
- C. उपसर्ग
- D. प्रत्यय
Q 29 :
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
- A. प्र
- B. त
- C. प्रख
- D. आत
Q 30 :
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
- A. सखी
- B. शाखा
- C. राखी
- D. साक्षी
Q 31 :
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
- A. आ
- B. ऊँ
- C. ओ
- D. औ
Q 32 :
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
- A. शब्द के आदि में
- B. शब्द के मध्य में
- C. शब्द के अंत में
- D. इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q 33 :
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
- A. कर्म, करण
- B. सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
- C. कर्ता, कर्म
- D. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q 34 :
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
- A. कर्ता
- B. करण
- C. सम्प्रदान
- D. कर्म
Q 35 :
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
- A. संयुक्त वाक्य
- B. सरल वाक्य
- C. मिश्रित वाक्य
- D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Q 36 :
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
- A. रावण को राम ने मारा।
- B. राम ने रावण को मारा।
- C. मारा राम ने रावण को।
- D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Q 37 :
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
- A. अरे
- B. में
- C. से
- D. को
Q 38 :
स्वर होते हैं -
- A. घोष
- B. अघोष
- C. अल्पप्राण
- D. महाप्राण
Q 39 :
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
- A. ल्
- B. ड
- C. ढ़
- D. स्
Q 40 :
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
- A. सच्चा
- B. कुत्ता
- C. बल्गा
- D. बग्गा
Current Affairs
Q 41 :
What is the name of the new generation nuclear capable missile tested by the DRDO?
- A.Agni-P (Prime)
- B.Bhim
- C.Arjun-P (Prime)
- D.Bharat
Q 42 :
Which state government implements Chief Minister Dalit Empowerment Programme?
- A.Andhra Pradesh
- B.Telangana
- C.Tamil Nadu
- D.Bihar
Q 43 :
NERAMAC, which was seen in the recent stimulus package, is associated with which sector?
- A.Agriculture
- B.Health
- C.Tourism
- D.Sports
Q 44 :
​Which Union Ministry implements the Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana?
- A.Ministry of Rural Development
- B.Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
- C.Ministry of Labour and Employment
- D.Ministry of Agriculture
Q 45 :
NEIA Trust, which was making news recently, is associated with which sector?
- A.Health
- B.Exports
- C.Social Justice
- D.Education
Q 46 :
In the ISSF World Cup shooting, who won gold in the women’s 25 meters pistol event in Osijek, Croatia?
- A.Apurvi Chandela
- B.Rahi Sarnobat
- C.Deepali Deshpande
- D.Shweta Chaudhary
Q 47 :
The PM of which country resigned in June 2021, one week after he lost a vote of confidence?
- A.Denmark
- B.Norway
- C.Finland
- D.Sweden
Q 48 :
How many Indian medical colleges have found a place in the list of 100 best medical colleges of the world in 2021?
- A.3
- B.4
- C.5
- D.6
Q 49 :
Who will lay the foundation stone of Dr Bhimrao Ambedkar cultural centre in Lucknow in June 2021?
- A.Ram Nath Kovind
- B.Narendra Modi
- C.Venkaiah Naidu
- D.Amit Shah
Q 50 :
Which city will use facial scanners to detect Coronavirus infections after a trial of 20,000 people showed a high degree of effectiveness?
- A.Riyadh
- B.Abu Dhabi
- C.Doha
- D.Beirut
Important Questions Package
DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
| Sr. | Package Name | Amount | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam - English Description : 2090 Question With Answer | ₹181 | |
| 2. | DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam - Hindi Description : 1890 Question With Answer | ₹181 | |
| 3. | DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam Question Bank Book - English Description : <span style="color:#FF0000"><span style="font-size:18px"><strong><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1oo0 Question with Answer (Printed Material)</span></strong></span></span> | ₹390 | |
| 4. | DSE Haryana PGT (Geography) Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi Description : <span style="color:#FF0000"><span style="font-size:18px"><strong><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1oo0 Question with Answer (Printed Material)</span></strong></span></span> | ₹450 |
Current Affairs
Q 51 :
K417N mutation is associated with which classification of SARS-CoV-2 virus?
- A.Alpha
- B.Beta
- C.Delta
- D.Delta Plus
Q 52 :
Which institution released a study on the ‘not-for-profit’ hospital model in India?
- A.ICMR
- B.NITI Aayog
- C.AIIMS
- D.IMA
Q 53 :
Which institution hosts the Mobile World Congress (MWC) 2021?
- A.IEEE
- B.GSMA
- C.ITU
- D.OMA
Q 54 :
The Reserve Bank of India released guidelines for outsourcing, targeted at which category of banks?
- A.Cooperative Banks
- B.Regional Rural Banks
- C.Foreign Banks
- D.Local Area Banks
Q 55 :
Which institution published a global report on Racial Justice and Inequality?
- A.World Bank
- B.IMF
- C.UNHRC
- D.UNICEF
Q 56 :
In June 2021, the Union government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Kalyan Anna Yojana from July to to which month?
- A.September 2021
- B.October 2021
- C.November 2021
- D.December 2021
Q 57 :
Centre has allocated how many rupees grant to Jharkhand under Jal Jeevan Mission?
- A.2149 cr
- B.2259 cr
- C.2369 cr
- D.2479 cr
Q 58 :
In June 2021, who inaugurated Asia’s longest high-speed test track located in Pithampur Indore?
- A.Nirmala Sitharaman
- B.Prakash Javdekar
- C.Piyush Goyal
- D.Smriti Irani
Q 59 :
In June 2021, Shambhu Nath Srivastava has been appointed Chairman of the Indian Federation of United Nations Associations. Whom has he succeeded?
- A.Mukul Sangma
- B.Conrad Sangma
- C.N. Biren Singh
- D.Ram Naik
Q 60 :
An Indian Navy warship carried out a military exercise with which of the following South Korean vessels in the East China Sea in June 2021?
- A.ROKS Daegu
- B.ROKS Jeonbuk
- C.ROKS Gyeongnam
- D.ROKS Chungbuk
Q 61 :
Which is the biggest air carrier in Saudi Arabia?
- A.Emirates Airlines
- B.Etihad Airways
- C.Saudi Arabian Airlines
- D.Qantas Airlines
Q 62 :
Which Asian country was declared Malaria-Free by the World Health Organization recently?
- A.Bangladesh
- B.China
- C.Thailand
- D.Nepal
Q 63 :
Which is the first mRNA vaccine, to get Emergency Use License in India?
- A.Sputnik
- B.Sinovac
- C.Moderna mRNA 1273
- D.Pfizer vaccine
Q 64 :
Which organization conducts the TOEFL and GRE tests?
- A.ETS
- B.NTA
- C.IIT Bombay
- D.Cambridge University
Q 65 :
Which tax on crude Palm oil was recently reduced to 10 per cent?
- A.Excise Duty
- B.Customs Duty
- C.Goods and Service Tax
- D.None of the above
Q 66 :
India has made it to the top 10 in Global Cyber security Index (GCI) 2020 by ITU. Which country topped the chart?
- A.United Kingdom
- B.France
- C.Germany
- D.United States
Q 67 :
Bharti Group would invest how many million dollars to become the largest shareholder in the satellite communications company OneWeb?
- A.$300 million
- B.$400 million
- C.$500 million
- D.$600 million
Q 68 :
The US has appointed whom as the country’s Charge d’Affaires in Delhi, in June 2021?
- A.Atul Keshap
- B.Vivek Murthy
- C.Vedant Patel
- D.Bharat Ramamurti
Q 69 :
Aditi Ashok is related to which game?
- A.Chess
- B.Tennis
- C.Basketball
- D.Golf
Q 70 :
NXP Semiconductors N.V. and which of the following have announced a collaboration to implement a 5G NR O-RAN small cell solution?
- A.Microsoft
- B.Jio Platforms Ltd
- C.LTI
- D.IBM
Reasoning
Q 71 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
- A.Two
- B.Three
- C.Five
- D.Four
- E.None of these
Q 72 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.True
- B.False
- C.Uncertain
- D.None
Q 73 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
- A.A
- B.E
- C.T
- D.X
- E.Y
Q 74 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 77 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
- A.T
- B.L
- C.E
- D.Y
- E.X
Q 78 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 79 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 80 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
- A.V
- B.T
- C.E
- D.A
- E.B
Q 81 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
- A.N
- B.Q
- C.J
- D.M
- E.None of these
Q 82 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 83 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
- A.The only argument I is strong
- B.Only argument II is strong
- C.Either I or II is strong
- D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 84 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
- A.P
- B.L
- C.T
- D.X
- E.Y
Q 85 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 86 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.One
- B.Two
- C.Three
- D.Four
- E.More than four
Q 87 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
- A.I
- B.A
- C.L
- D.M
- E.N
Q 88 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 89 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
- A.26
- B.28
- C.30
- D.32
- E.None of these
Q 90 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 91 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
- A.X
- B.W
- C.I
- D.H
Q 92 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 93 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 94 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
- A.P
- B.Q
- C.B
- D.K
- E.None of these
Q 95 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Three
- D.Four
- E.More than Four
Q 96 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 97 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.More than three
Q 98 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 99 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Q 100 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
- A.None
- B.One
- C.Two
- D.Three
- E.None of these
Geography
Q 101 :
‘Mohorovicic discontinuity’ marks the boundary between:
- A.Continental shelf and ocean crust
- B.Asthenosphere and lithosphere
- C.Crust and the upper mantle
- D.Core and the mantle
Q 102 :
The process in which one slides beneath another is known as:
- A.Advection
- B.Subduction
- C.Convergence
- D.Convection
Q 103 :
San Andrean fault is a
- A.Transform fault
- B.Converging fault
- C.Spreading fault
- D.Submergent fault
Q 104 :
Which one of the following is a fluvioglacial deposit?
- A.Pediplain
- B.Kame terrace
- C.Floodplain
- D.Loess plain
Q 105 :
Who among the following scholars has given the subsidence Theory relating to coral-reefs?
- A.Dally
- B.Davis
- C.Dutton
- D.Darwin
Q 106 :
Which one of the following range of percentage of increase of CO2 in the atmosphere since 1750 is correct?
- A.5 – 10%
- B.10 -15%
- C.15 – 30%
- D.More than 30%
Q 107 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): the shift of ITCZ is greater over sea than over land.
Reason (R): The land surface gets more heated than water bodies.
Codes:
Reason (R): The land surface gets more heated than water bodies.
Codes:
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 108 :
The UVI(Ultra Violet Index) was developed in:
- A.1950s
- B.1990s
- C.2000s
- D.2010s
Q 109 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
N2 1. 0.934%
Ar 2. 0.039%
O2 3. 78%
CO2 4. 21%
Codes:
List –I List –II
N2 1. 0.934%
Ar 2. 0.039%
O2 3. 78%
CO2 4. 21%
Codes:
- A.(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3 1 2 4 - B.1 3 2 4
- C.3 1 4 2
- D.2 4 1 3
Q 110 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The subpolar low of the southern Hemisphere is nearly continuous.
Reason (R): The land mass is less in the southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.
Codes:
Reason (R): The land mass is less in the southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere.
Codes:
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 111 :
Which one the following regions is with high ocean water salinity?
- A.Equatorial
- B.Polar
- C.Subtrophical
- D.Subpolar
Q 112 :
Which one of the following is responsible for the greatest movements of the tides?
- A.Size of the ocean
- B.Shape of the continents
- C.Gravitational attraction
- D.Salinity of the ocean
Q 113 :
Which one of the following percentages of distance from earth surface is correct for ‘perigee’ of Moon than ‘apogee’?
- A.2%
- B.5%
- C.8%
- D.12%
Q 114 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The western sides of oceans are always warner than the eastern margins.
Reason (R): The movement of major ocean currents is in the western sides.
Codes:
Reason (R): The movement of major ocean currents is in the western sides.
Codes:
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 115 :
Which one of the following terms is appropriate for the mixing zone of two biomes?
- A.Environment
- B.Ecology
- C.Ecosound
- D.Ecotones
Q 116 :
Which among the following defined geography as human ecology?
- A.Hartshorne
- B.Schaefer
- C.Barrows
- D.Richthofen
Q 117 :
Who among the following defined Geography as discovery of predictive pattern during quantitative revolution period?
- A.P. Hagget
- B.W. Bunge
- C.D. Harvey
- D.R. J. Chorley
Q 118 :
Who among the following correlated the colour of ocean water and its salinity?
- A.Al Masudi
- B.Al Maqdisi
- C.Ibn- Khaldun
- D.Ibn- Sina
Q 119 :
Which one of the following pairs does not match correctly?
- A.P. Hagget – Geography a modern synthesisi
- B.G. P. Marsh – Explaination in Geography
- C.P. E. James – All possible worlds
- D.Abler, Adams and Gould – Spatial organizations
Q 120 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
Probabilism 1. Humboldt
Stop-and go determinism 2. Ritter
Systematic geography 3.Griffith Taylor
Modern geography 4. O. H. K. SpateAns. 3
Codes:
List –I List –II
Probabilism 1. Humboldt
Stop-and go determinism 2. Ritter
Systematic geography 3.Griffith Taylor
Modern geography 4. O. H. K. SpateAns. 3
Codes:
- A.A B C D
1 2 3 4 - B.3 4 1 2
- C.4 3 1 2
- D.2 3 4 1
Q 121 :
Which one of the following Total Fertility Rate is required to maintain the word’s existing population?
- A.3.4
- B.2.1
- C.1.2
- D.4.2
Q 122 :
Which of the following characteristic are required for any area to be called an urban area according to census of India?
1.Any place with municipality, corporation, cantonment or noticed town area
2.At least 70% of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities
3.Minimum population of 5000 persons
4.Density of population of 100 persons per square kilometer
1.Any place with municipality, corporation, cantonment or noticed town area
2.At least 70% of male working population engaged in non-agricultural activities
3.Minimum population of 5000 persons
4.Density of population of 100 persons per square kilometer
- A.(a) and (b)
- B.(a), (b) and (c)
- C.(a) and (c)
- D.(a), (b),(c), (d)
Q 123 :
Which one of the following is not included in the Ravenstein’s Laws of Migration?
- A.Most migrants proceeds step by step
- B.Most migrants go for short distance
- C.Most migrants move from urban to Rural areas
- D.Most migrants are adults
Q 124 :
Which one of the following is correct statement for Patna city in Bihar and Kolkata city in West Bengal?
- A.Edge City
- B.World City
- C.Post industrial City
- D.Primate City
Q 125 :
Which one of the following principles denotes K-4 of Christaller’s Model of central places?
- A.Market
- B.Administrative
- C.Transport
- D.Economy
Q 126 :
Among the following, who developed the formula 
for calculating crop combination?
for calculating crop combination? - A.Doi
- B.J. C. Weaver
- C.Pownall
- D.Rafiullah
Q 127 :
Transportation Cost does not play a major role in the location of textile industry because:
- A.Cotton is a weight loosing material
- B.Cotton is a weight gaining material
- C.Cotton is a pure material more or less equal to the finished material
- D.Weight loss in cotton during manufacturing is high
Q 128 :
Which of the following occupation is classified as a secondary activity?
- A.Carpenter
- B.Coal mixer
- C.School teacher
- D.Farmer
Q 129 :
Which of the following does not fall under intensive subsistence rice cultivation?
- A.South East Asia
- B.Southern China and Japan
- C.Nile valley and delta
- D.Coastal and delta areas of India
Q 130 :
Which one of the following group of activities are appropriately labeled for Gold-collar worker?
- A.Increasing the value of commodities by changing their form
- B.Financial, health, entertainment, processing services; middle management administrative services; government bureaucrats
- C.Chief executive officers and others top management executives in both government and private service
- D.Exchanging service and ideas by telecommunication and satisfying the needs of people by changing their location
Q 131 :
Which of the following state produces largest fraction of rubber produced in India ?
- A.Tamil Nadu
- B.Kerala
- C.Karnataka
- D.Orissa
Q 132 :
Who propounded the ‘Theory of Heartland’ in Political Geography?
- A.Smith
- B.Spykman
- C.Mackinder
- D.Haushoffer
Q 133 :
Cephalic index , used to classify human races is calculated as
- A.Ratio between the length and breadth of the race
- B.Ratio between the flatness and length of the head
- C.Ratio between breadth and length of head
- D.Ratio between the length of the head and weight of the human body
Q 134 :
Which of the following statements is not true about a state?
- A.It always has a social or cultural base
- B.It has a territorial base
- C.It claims internal sovereignty
- D.It claims sovereignty in external relations
Q 135 :
Who coined the term Geopolitics?
- A.Mackinder
- B.Haushoffer
- C.Kjellen
- D.Spykman
Q 136 :
Which one of the following writters quoted “merely packing together of existing sectoral or departmental plans does not automatically make an integrated plan. A plan becomes integrated only when backward and forward linkages are thoroughly analysed and interlinkedin the area of planning are clearly specified”?
- A.S. N. Bhattacharya
- B.R. P. Mishra
- C.L. K. Sen
- D.M. L. Dantwala
Q 137 :
Which of the following regions does not constitute the damodar Valley Region?
- A.Deltaic Plain of West Bengal
- B.Deltaic Plain of Padma RIvar
- C.Chotanagpur Plateau
- D.Palamau Plateau
Q 138 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
(Level of planning)(Scale of Map Desired)
1.State 1. Large
2.District 2. Cadastral
3.Block 3. Medium
4.Panchayat 4. Small
Codes:
List –I List –II
(Level of planning)(Scale of Map Desired)
1.State 1. Large
2.District 2. Cadastral
3.Block 3. Medium
4.Panchayat 4. Small
Codes:
- A.A B C D
4 1 3 2 - B.4 3 2 1
- C.1 2 4 3
- D.4 3 1 2
Q 139 :
Which one of the following proposed the definition of regional planning: “Regional planning is the process of formulating and classifying social activities in supra-urban space”?
- A.Charles L. Leven
- B.AntoniKuklinski
- C.H.W. Richardson
- D.John Friedman
Q 140 :
Which one of the following does not belong to the Exploitive Model of urban Structure propounded by William Bunge?
- A.City of Superfluity
- B.City of death
- C.Central Business District
- D.City of need
Q 141 :
National Highway No. 48 in India passes though which of the places?
- A.Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai
- B.Pune, Goa, Coimbatore
- C.Agra, Bhopal, Mumba
- D.Pune, Surat, Ahmadabad
Q 142 :
In which one of the following states of India the maximum teak forest is found?
- A.Madya Pradesh
- B.Bihar
- C.Uttar Pradesh
- D.Karnataka
Q 143 :
Which one of the following passes connect Arunachal Pradesh with Tibet?
- A.Banihal Pass
- B.Chang La Pass
- C.BomDila Pass
- D.Aghil Pass
Q 144 :
The decadal growth rate of Indian population between 2001 and 201 census was:
- A.16.64%
- B.17.64%
- C.18.64%
- D.19.64%
Q 145 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): Population growth rate (2001-2011) was high for Bihar as compared to Uttar Pradesh.
Reason (R): Growth rate of population is the outcome of births minus deaths of a place.
Reason (R): Growth rate of population is the outcome of births minus deaths of a place.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.Green –Red –Blue –Ultra Viole
Q 146 :
“The present is the key to the past.” This statement was made by
- A.W.M. Davis
- B.James Hutton
- C.Van Ritchthofen
- D.A. Penck
Q 147 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
(Maps and Diagrams)(Aspect)
Isopleth maps 1. Natural Grouping
Dot maps 2. Population distribution
Scatter diagram 3. Wind direction
Star diagram 4. Changes over space which are relatively gradual
Codes:
List –I List –II
(Maps and Diagrams)(Aspect)
Isopleth maps 1. Natural Grouping
Dot maps 2. Population distribution
Scatter diagram 3. Wind direction
Star diagram 4. Changes over space which are relatively gradual
Codes:
- A.A B C D
4 2 1 3 - B.4 1 3 2
- C.1 2 3 4
- D.2 3 4 1
Q 148 :
Which one of the following group of colour is called primary colour?
- A.White, red and green
- B.Blue, green and red
- C.Yellow, violet and indigo
- D.Green, blue and black
Q 149 :
Consider the following line symbols:
Isobars
Contours
Hachures
IsochronesWhich of the above depicts relief?
Select the4 correct answer using the code given below:
Isobars
Contours
Hachures
IsochronesWhich of the above depicts relief?
Select the4 correct answer using the code given below:
- A.(a) and (d)
- B.(a) and (b)
- C.(b) and (c)
- D.(b) and (d)
Q 150 :
Which one of the following terms is used to me3asure the extreme peak in a normal distribution?
- A.Skewed
- B.Mesokurtic
- C.Leptokurtic
- D.Platykurtic
Q 151 :
The concept of Padiplain is associated with:
- A.W. M. Davis
- B.L. C. King
- C.W. Penk
- D.C. A. Cotton
Q 152 :
Who stated that the slope profiles are convex, plane concave according to the circumstances of the uplifting action?
- A.Davis
- B.Johnson
- C.Wood
- D.Wood
Q 153 :
The premise that the present-day processes have been operating throughout geological time is the principle of:
- A.Isostasy
- B.Diastrophism
- C.uniformitarianism
- D.Catastrophism
Q 154 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
1.Hall and Dana 1. Sea floor spreading
2.Hutton 2. Thermal contraction Theory
3.Harry Hess 3. Theory of Geosyncline
4.Jeffrey 4. Doctrine of Uniformit- arianism
Codes:
List –I List –II
1.Hall and Dana 1. Sea floor spreading
2.Hutton 2. Thermal contraction Theory
3.Harry Hess 3. Theory of Geosyncline
4.Jeffrey 4. Doctrine of Uniformit- arianism
Codes:
- A.(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 2 4 3 - B.2 1 3 4
- C.4 2 1 3
- D.3 4 1 2
Q 155 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): There is close relationship between volcanic activities and plate margins.
Reason (R): A vast majority of the word’s volcanoes are associated with the convergent plate margins.
Reason (R): A vast majority of the word’s volcanoes are associated with the convergent plate margins.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 156 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
1.Glacial 1. Alluvian fan
2.Marine 2. Yrdangs
3.Fluvial 3. Arate
4.Aeolian 4. Tombolo
Codes:
List –I List –II
1.Glacial 1. Alluvian fan
2.Marine 2. Yrdangs
3.Fluvial 3. Arate
4.Aeolian 4. Tombolo
Codes:
- A.A B C D
2 1 3 4 - B.4 2 1 3
- C.3 4 2 1
- D.3 4 1 2
Q 157 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
1.J. A. Steers 1. Morphological analysis of Landforms
2.S. W. Wooldridge 2. Principles of Geomorphology
3.Walther 3. Unstable earth
4.Thornbury 4. Spirit and purpose of geography
Codes:
List –I List –II
1.J. A. Steers 1. Morphological analysis of Landforms
2.S. W. Wooldridge 2. Principles of Geomorphology
3.Walther 3. Unstable earth
4.Thornbury 4. Spirit and purpose of geography
Codes:
- A.A B C D
2 3 4 1 - B.1 4 2 3
- C.4 2 1 3
- D.3 4 1 2
Q 158 :
Which one of the following is the correct average slope of a typical ‘front in weather phenomena?
- A.1 : 150
- B.1 : 100
- C.1 : 50
- D.1 :5
Q 159 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below
:List –I List –II
(Conferences Report) (Theory)
Global climate change impacts in the United States 1. 2007
Stokholm Conference 2. 1992
Fourth Assessment Report of the IPCC 3. 1972
Rio Conference 4. 2009
Codes:
:List –I List –II
(Conferences Report) (Theory)
Global climate change impacts in the United States 1. 2007
Stokholm Conference 2. 1992
Fourth Assessment Report of the IPCC 3. 1972
Rio Conference 4. 2009
Codes:
- A.A B C D
1 2 3 4 - B.2 1 3 4
- C.4 3 2 1
- D.4 3 1 2
Q 160 :
In which one of the following atmospheric layers temperature remains constant?
- A.Stratosphere
- B.Tropopause
- C.Mesosphere
- D.Troposphere
Q 161 :
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of surface components of pressure and wind from the equator to the poles?
- A.Polar eaterlies, Westerlies, Subtropical highs, Trade wind
- B.Subtropical highs, Westerlies, Trade winds, Polar easterlies
- C.Trade winds, Polar easterlies, Westerlies, Subtropical highs,
- D.Trade winds, Subtropical highs, Westerlies, Polar easterlies
Q 162 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): Above 1000 meter altitudes most winds follow a geostrophic or neargeostrophic course.
Reason (R): The friction layer of the atmosphere extends to only about 1000 meters above the ground.
Reason (R): The friction layer of the atmosphere extends to only about 1000 meters above the ground.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 163 :
Which one of the following isotherms for the average temperature of the warmest month is generally accepted as equator ward edge of the Tundra climate?
- A.2o C
- B.10o C
- C.5o C
- D.15o C
Q 164 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The trade winds are predominantly easterly.
Reason (R): An easterly wind blows from west to east.
Reason (R): An easterly wind blows from west to east.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 165 :
Which one of the following types of climate is appropriate for BWh in Koppen’s Word Climate classification?
- A.Subtropical Desert Climate
- B.Subtropical Steppe Climate
- C.Midlatitude Desert Climate
- D.MidlatitudeSteppe Climate
Q 166 :
Which one of the following values of temperature is corrct for the average freezing point for seawater in Arctic and Antarctic seas
- A.2oC
- B.0oC
- C.-2oC
- D.-10oC
Q 167 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below
:List –I List –II
(Plate name) (Direction of movement)
Indo-Australian plate 1. East
Cocos plate 2. West
Pacific plate 3. North
Nazca plate 4. North-West
Codes:
:List –I List –II
(Plate name) (Direction of movement)
Indo-Australian plate 1. East
Cocos plate 2. West
Pacific plate 3. North
Nazca plate 4. North-West
Codes:
- A.A B C D
3 4 1 3 - B.3 4 1 2
- C.3 2 1 4
- D.1 2 3 4
Q 168 :
Which one of the following periods when the sea level around the world, was as much as 130 meters lower than today?
- A.Holocene
- B.Pleistocene
- C.Miocene
- D.Cambrian
Q 169 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The moon produces greater percentage of Earth fs tides than the sun.
Reason (R): The Sun is closer to the Earth than the Moon.
Reason (R): The Sun is closer to the Earth than the Moon.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 170 :
Which one of the following terms is appropriate for plants that endure seasonal climate fluctuations from years to year?
- A.Perennials
- B.Annual
- C.Seasonal
- D.Bi-annuals
Q 171 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): the regional boundaries of biomes are some-what arbitrary.
Reason (R): All kinds of major biomes are existing both in ocean and land.
Reason (R): All kinds of major biomes are existing both in ocean and land.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 172 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
(Zoogeographic regions) (Country)
Oriented 1. Brazil
Nearctic 2. Sumatra
Neotropical 3. Netherland
Palaearctic 4. USA
Codes:
List –I List –II
(Zoogeographic regions) (Country)
Oriented 1. Brazil
Nearctic 2. Sumatra
Neotropical 3. Netherland
Palaearctic 4. USA
Codes:
- A.A B C D
3 1 4 2 - B.3 4 2 1
- C.2 4 1 3
- D.4 2 1 3
Q 173 :
The term ‘cultural landscape’ was developed by:
- A.C. Darwin
- B.C. O. Sauer
- C.A. Humboldt
- D.C. Ritter
Q 174 :
Who among the following emphasized on the behavioural environment in Geography?
- A.Johnston
- B.Kirk
- C.Gregory
- D.Burton
Q 175 :
Who among the following developed the concept of mental map?
- A.Gould and white
- B.Boulding and Haggerstrand
- C.Downs and Stea
- D.Saarinen
Q 176 :
Who among the following geographers focused on man-centered geography?
- A.Huntington
- B.Semple
- C.Jefferson
- D.Ratzel
Q 177 :
Who was the first Greek Scholar to calculate the circumference of the earth?
- A.Aristotle
- B.Herodotus
- C.Anaximender
- D.Eratosthenes
Q 178 :
‘Space is Socially or culturally constructed’ is the view under:
- A.Behaviouralism
- B.Logical Positive
- C.Structuralism
- D.Post Modernism
Q 179 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below
List –I List –II
Albert Damangeon 1. German school of geography
FriedrickRatzel 2. French school of geography
Halford J. Mackinder 3. British school of geography
Isaiah Bowman 4. American school of geography
Codes:
List –I List –II
Albert Damangeon 1. German school of geography
FriedrickRatzel 2. French school of geography
Halford J. Mackinder 3. British school of geography
Isaiah Bowman 4. American school of geography
Codes:
- A.A B C D
1 2 4 3 - B.2 1 4 3
- C.2 1 3 4
- D.4 2 3 1
Q 180 :
Who wrote the book’Meteorologica’?
- A.Aristole
- B.Posidonius
- C.Plato
- D.Erastosthenes
Q 181 :
Which one of the following continents recorded highest density of population as per United Nations Population Fund 2015 data
- A.Europe
- B.Asi
- C.North America
- D.Australia
Q 182 :
Japa’s population pyramid would most likely resemble to that of:
- A.USA
- B.Brazil
- C.Denmark
- D.India
Q 183 :
Consider the following statements:Developing countries have registered increase in population despite significant decline infertility rates because of:
Increase in life Expectancy rate
Increase in infant Mortality rate
Falling Death rate
Better living conditionsTick one of the following code which reflects the above statements?
Increase in life Expectancy rate
Increase in infant Mortality rate
Falling Death rate
Better living conditionsTick one of the following code which reflects the above statements?
- A.(a), (b) and (d) are correct
- B.(a), (c) and (d) are correct
- C.(a), (b), (c) are correct
- D.(b), (c) and (d) are correct
Q 184 :
Which one of the following statements represents Population Pyramid with wide base:
- A.Declining Fertility Rates
- B.High Fertility Rates
- C.Declining Death Rates
- D.High Death Rates
Q 185 :
Which one of the following depicts correct statement of population threshold for any service?
- A.Maximum distance that people can travel to use a service
- B.Minimum distance required for opening a service
- C.Minimum population size required for a service
- D.Maximum population size required for a service
Q 186 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –I List –II
Site of human settlements 1. Movement due to opportunities of employment
Situation of human settlements 2. The physical and cultural characteristicsand attributes of a place
Pull factor in Migration 3. The relative location with particular tothe significance to a place
Migration field 4. Area that dominates a locale in and out migration pattern
Codes:
List –I List –II
Site of human settlements 1. Movement due to opportunities of employment
Situation of human settlements 2. The physical and cultural characteristicsand attributes of a place
Pull factor in Migration 3. The relative location with particular tothe significance to a place
Migration field 4. Area that dominates a locale in and out migration pattern
Codes:
- A.A B C D
1 4 2 3 - B.2 3 1 4
- C.3 2 4 1
- D.4 2 3 1
Q 187 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List –IList –II
Central City 1. Continuous built-up landscape with high densityof building with no reference to political boundary
Network City 2. Areas outside city with urban characteristics
Urban influence Zone 3. Urban area contained within the official boundariesOf the main city around which suburb
Urbanized Area 4. Two or more independent but complementarycities having high speed transport corridors
Codes:
List –IList –II
Central City 1. Continuous built-up landscape with high densityof building with no reference to political boundary
Network City 2. Areas outside city with urban characteristics
Urban influence Zone 3. Urban area contained within the official boundariesOf the main city around which suburb
Urbanized Area 4. Two or more independent but complementarycities having high speed transport corridors
Codes:
- A.A B C D
1 2 4 3 - B.3 4 2 1
- C.2 4 3 1
- D.4 2 1 3
Q 188 :
Locate the following places in multiple Nuclei theory of urban structure in the figure and match it with the list given below:
1. Wholesale and Light Manufacturing
2. High class residential
3. Medium class residential
4. Industrial Suburb
cODES:
1. Wholesale and Light Manufacturing
2. High class residential
3. Medium class residential
4. Industrial Suburb
cODES:
- A.i ii iii iv
b c a d - B.a b c d
- C.a c b d
- D.c b a d
Q 189 :
Which one of the following does not have role in push factors that seem to be operative in rural India?
- A.Rapid increase in the population growth
- B.High pressure of population on arable land
- C.Low per capita income and glaring disparity between levels of income of urban and rural areas
- D.Slow but consistent increase in amenities in rural area and increase
Q 190 :
Which one of the following defined regional growth pole as a ‘set of expanding industries located in an urban area and including further development of economic activity throughout its zone of influence’.
- A.A.O. Hirchman
- B.F. Perroux
- C.Boudeville
- D.B. J. L. Berry
Q 191 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below
List –I List –II
(Number of likely settlements of different of different orders)(K Values)
1.8, 32, 128 1. K7
2.4, 13, 40 2 K13
3.3, 20, 141 3. K3
4. 2, 27, 351 4. K4
Codes:
List –I List –II
(Number of likely settlements of different of different orders)(K Values)
1.8, 32, 128 1. K7
2.4, 13, 40 2 K13
3.3, 20, 141 3. K3
4. 2, 27, 351 4. K4
Codes:
- A.A B C D
4 3 2 1 - B.4 2 3 1
- C.1 3 2 4
- D.4 3 2 1
Q 192 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The Green Revolution contributed to aggravation of poverty rather than its solution.
Reason (R): Wealthy and landed farmers realized that Green Resolution together with agricultural mechanization provided great potential for self cultivation. They began to withdraw land from share cropping and rental market. As a consequence, a large number of tenants and peasants lost their jobs.
Reason (R): Wealthy and landed farmers realized that Green Resolution together with agricultural mechanization provided great potential for self cultivation. They began to withdraw land from share cropping and rental market. As a consequence, a large number of tenants and peasants lost their jobs.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 193 :
Whichactivity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout the ward?
- A.Agriculture
- B.Hydro-electricity power generation
- C.Manufacturing industries
- D.Urbanization
Q 194 :
Which of the following Ocean routes is the most important and route in the world?
- A.The Cape Route
- B.North Pacific Route
- C.South Atlantic Route
- D.North Atlantic Route
Q 195 :
Which one of the following was not assured by Weberin his least-cost theory?
- A.Agglomeration economies lead to high transport and labour available
- B.Labour is infinitely available
- C.Location with high transport costs may be attractive because of a cheap labour supply
- D.Transport costs were uniform by distance and weight in any direction
Q 196 :
From the transport network graph given below, select one one of the following code to depict ‘Diameter Index’ Correctly.
- A.2
- B.4
- C.3
- D.1
Q 197 :
Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). select your answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): Between Durgapur Asansol-Chittaranjan and numerous collieries and connected activities and Asansol sub-division represents one of largerindustrial complexes in the world.
Reason (R): The substantial coal reserve and output, iron and steel output and engineering industry in the Asansol sub-division outside the Calcutta Metropolitan district are found.
Reason (R): The substantial coal reserve and output, iron and steel output and engineering industry in the Asansol sub-division outside the Calcutta Metropolitan district are found.
- A.Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- C.(A) is true, but (R) is false
- D.(A) is false, but (R) is true
Q 198 :
Who among the following political scholars appealed in 1949 for “a more geography”?
- A.Hartshorne
- B.G. E. Pearcy
- C.R. H. Fifield
- D.George t. Renner
Q 199 :
Who wrote book known as the ‘World political Geography’?
- A.G. E. Pearcy
- B.Stephen B. Jones
- C.J. K. Wright
- D.Hartshorne
Q 200 :
Match List-I with the List –II and select the correct answer from the code given below
:List –I List –II
A.Bhils 1. Shilling plateau
B.Gonds 2. Eastern Jharkhand
C.Santhals 3. Chattisgarh
D.Garo 4. Aravalli
Codes:
:List –I List –II
A.Bhils 1. Shilling plateau
B.Gonds 2. Eastern Jharkhand
C.Santhals 3. Chattisgarh
D.Garo 4. Aravalli
Codes:
- A.A B C D
4 3 2 1 - B.1 2 3 4
- C.3 1 4 2
- D.2 3 4 1