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Question for DSE Haryana PGT (Physics) - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English
Last Update on : October 13, 2026
Duration: 60 ยท Questions: 200 ยท Max Marks: 200
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Latest DSE Haryana PGT (Physics) Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, Reasoning, Hindi, Physics, General Awareness
Question Bank DSE Haryana PGT (Physics) Exam - English
English
Q 1 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
- A.a
- B.an
- C.some
- D.the
Q 2 :
Have the car stolen!
- A.Steal the car
- B.You should have the stolen car
- C.Get someone to steal the car
- D.They have stolen the car
Q 3 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
- A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
- B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
- C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
- D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 4 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
- A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
- B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
- C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
- D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 5 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
- A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
- B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
- C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
- D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 6 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
- A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
- B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
- C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
- D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 7 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
- A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
- B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
- C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
- D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 8 :
We shall invite Suresh.
- A.Suresh would be invited by us
- B.Suresh would have been invited by us
- C.Suresh will be invited by us
- D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 9 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
- A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
- B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
- C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
- D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 10 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
- A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
- B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
- C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
- D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 11 :
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
- A. presented , stay
- B.introduced , keep
- C.announce , make
- D.created , let
- E.proclaimed , hold
Q 12 :
Assets
- A.liabilities
- B.responsibilities
- C.estates
- D.profits
Q 13 :
Affidavit
- A. Affirmation
- B.Slander
- C.Oath
- D.Testimony
Q 14 :
Hollow
- A.Alveolate
- B.Cleft
- C. Cavernous
- D.Solid
Q 15 :
Cosset
- A.Ignoreb
- B.Close
- C.Caress
- D.Fondle
Q 16 :
Ogle
- A.Leer
- B.Gaze
- C.Ignore
- D.Gawk
Q 17 :
Intrinsic
- A.Elemental
- B.Innate
- C.Connate
- D.Acquired
Q 18 :
Coalesce
- A.Separate
- B.Adhere
- C.Cleave
- D.Amalgamate
Q 19 :
Loiter
- A.lag
- B.Hasten
- C.Amble
- D.Loii
Q 20 :
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
- A.held, generating
- B.aimed, creating
- C.targeted, awakening
- D.focused, building
- E.concentrated, producing
Reasoning
Q 21 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
- A.Area
- B.Volume
- C.Length
- D.Sound
- E.Energy
Q 22 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
- A.Fruit
- B.Stem
- C.Flower
- D.Root
- E.None of these
Q 23 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
- A.Water : Drink
- B.Light : Night
- C.Teach : Student
- D.Air : Breathe
- E.Food : Hunger
Q 24 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
- A.Fruit
- B.Stem
- C.Flower
- D.Root
- E.None of these
Q 25 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
- A.Omnivorous
- B.Carnivorous
- C.Herbivorous
- D.Multivorous
- E.None of these
Q 26 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
- A.Party : Dance
- B.Study : Book
- C.Lecture : Study
- D.Enjoy : Journey
- E.None of these
Q 27 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
- A.Pity : Kindness
- B.Cruel : Anger
- C.Wise : Education
- D.Pride : Humility
- E.None of these
Q 28 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
- A.Memory
- B.Highness
- C.Tongue
- D.Speak
- E.Voice
Q 29 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
- A.Integrity
- B.Honesty
- C.Guide
- D.Competition
- E.None of these
Q 30 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
- A.20
- B.14
- C.56
- D.26
- E.None of these
Q 31 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
- A.GIJK
- B.DFGH
- C.CEFG
- D.ABCD
- E.None of these
Q 32 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
- A.71
- B.73
- C.77
- D.67
- E.None of these
Q 33 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
- A.UMRSME
- B.EIWNTR
- C.PIGRSN
- D.LCUOD
- E.None of these
Q 34 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
- A.4
- B.2
- C.6
- D.8
- E.5
Q 35 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
- A.UW483
- B.ZA26
- C.TU420
- D.ST380
- E.None of these
Q 36 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
- A.U
- B.T
- C.A
- D.G
- E.None of these
Q 37 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
- A.E
- B.G
- C.F
- D.B
- E.None of these
Q 38 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
- A.M
- B.K
- C.H
- D.J
- E.None of these
Q 39 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
- A.2
- B.3
- C.4
- D.5
- E.None of these
Q 40 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
- A.P
- B.K
- C.J
- D.I
- E.None of these
Q 41 :
Given Set : (6, 15, 28)
- A.(50,59,71)
- B.(46, 56, 66)
- C.(60, 69, 72)
- D.(60, 69, 82)
- E.None of these
Q 42 :
Given Set : (81, 77, 69)
- A.(56, 52, 44)
- B.(64, 61, 53)
- C.(92, 88, 79)
- D.(75, 71, 60)
- E.None of these
Q 43 :
Kick : Football
- A.Mop : Sweep
- B.Dust : Rage
- C.Wash : Dishes
- D.Throw : Ring
- E.None of these
Q 44 :
Rectangle : Pentagon
- A.Triangle : Rectangle
- B.Diagonal : Perimeter
- C.Side : Angle
- D.Circle : Square
- E.None of the above
Q 45 :
Inherit : Acquire
- A.Instinct : Habbit
- B.Learn : Discover
- C.Loss : Gain
- D.Hierarchical : Succession
- E.None of the above
Q 46 :
Court : Justic
- A.Police : Crime
- B.Teacher : Study
- C.Doctor : Sickness
- D.Auditor : Accuracy
- E.None of these
Q 47 :
Coal : Thermal
- A.Power : Energy
- B.Bulb : Light
- C.Air : Atmosphere
- D.Water : Hydel
- E.None of the above
Q 48 :
Statements I=H>C> N < E=S
Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
Conclusions
I. I > H
II. C > S
- A.Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- B.Either conclusion I or II is true
- C.Only conclusion II is true
- D.Only conclusion I is true
- E.Both conclusions I and II are true
Q 49 :
Statements G> R>E=A<T<S:D<A<J
Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
Conclusions
I. T D
II. R > S
- A.Only conclusion II is true
- B.Only conclusion I is true
- C.Both conclusions I and II are true
- D.Either conclusion I or II is true
- E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Q 50 :
Statements G>R> E=A<T<S:D<A<J
Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
Conclusions
I J > G
II. J = G
- A.Only conclusion II is true
- B.Only conclusion I is true
- C.Both conclusions I and II are true
- D.Either conclusion I or II is true
- E.Neither conclusion I nor II is true
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Hindi
Q 51 :
'เค' เค
เคฐเฅ เคฎเฅเค เคฌเคฆเคฒเคคเคพ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคเฅเคฃ เคธเคเคงเคฟ เคเฅ เค เคจเฅเคธเคพเคฐ
- B. เคฏเคฃ เคธเคเคงเคฟ เคเฅ เค เคจเฅเคธเคพเคฐ
- C. เคตเฅเคฆเฅเคงเคฟ เคธเคเคงเคฟ เคเฅ เค เคจเฅเคธเคพเคฐ
- D. เค เคฏเคพเคฆเคฟ เคธเคเคงเคฟ เคเฅ เค เคจเฅเคธเคพเคฐ
Q 52 :
เคจเคฟเคฎเฅเคจ เคฎเฅเค เคเฅเคจเคธเคพ เคจเคพเคธเคฟเคเฅเคฏ เคตเฅเคฏเคเคเคจ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคคเฅ
- B. เคจเฅ
- C. เคฆเฅ
- D. เคญเฅ
Q 53 :
เคจเคฟเคฎเฅเคจ เคฎเฅเค เคธเฅ เคเคคเฅเคเฅเคทเคฟเคชเฅเคค เคตเฅเคฏเคเคเคจ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคฒ
- B. เคท
- C. เคกเคผ
- D. เคจ
Q 54 :
เคจเคฟเคฎเฅเคจ เคฎเฅเค เคธเฅ เค
เคฒเฅเคช เคชเฅเคฐเคพเคฃ เคจเคนเฅเค เคนเฅ -
- A. เค
- B. เค
- C. เค
- D. เคฆ
Q 55 :
เคคเคพเคฒเคตเฅเคฏ เคตเฅเคฏเคเคเคจ เคนเฅ-
- A. เค เคก เคฆ เคข
- B. เค เค เค เค
- C. เคค เคฅ เคฆ เคง
- D. เคช เคซ เคฌ เคญ
Q 56 :
'เค
' เคธเฅเคตเคฐ เคเคพ เคเคเฅเคเคพเคฐเคฃ เคธเฅเคฅเคพเคจ เคเฅเคฏเคพ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคฎเฅเคฐเฅเคงเคพ
- B. เคเคฃเฅเค
- C. เคคเคพเคฒเฅ
- D. เคเคทเฅเค
Q 57 :
เคจเคฟเคฎเฅเคฒเคเคฟเคค เคฎเฅ เคเคเค- เคคเคพเคฒเคตเฅเคฏ เคธเฅเคตเคฐ เคเฅเคจเคธเฅ เคนเฅ ?
- A. เค - เค
- B. เค - เค
- C. เค - เค
- D. เคค - เคฆ
Q 58 :
เคเฅ เคงเคพเคคเฅ เคฏเคพ เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคเฅ เค
เคเคค เคฎเฅเค เคเฅเฅเคพ เคเคพเคคเคพ เคนเฅ เคเคธเฅ เคเคนเคคเฅ เคนเฅ ?
- A. เคธเคฎเคพเคธ
- B. เค เคตเฅเคฏเคฏ
- C. เคเคชเคธเคฐเฅเค
- D. เคชเฅเคฐเคคเฅเคฏเคฏ
Q 59 :
เคชเฅเคฐเคเฅเคฏเคพเคค เคฎเฅเค เคชเฅเคฐเคฏเฅเคเฅเคค เคเคชเคธเคฐเฅเค เคนเฅ -
- A. เคชเฅเคฐ
- B. เคค
- C. เคชเฅเคฐเค
- D. เคเคค
Q 60 :
'เคธเคพเคเฅ' เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคเคพ เคคเคคเฅเคธเคฎ เคฐเฅเคช เคนเฅ -
- A. เคธเคเฅ
- B. เคถเคพเคเคพ
- C. เคฐเคพเคเฅ
- D. เคธเคพเคเฅเคทเฅ
Q 61 :
เคเคฟเคธ เคเฅเคฐเคฎ เคฎเฅเค เคตเฅเคคเฅเคคเคฎเฅเคเฅ เคธเฅเคตเคฐ เคจเคนเฅเค เคนเฅ -
- A. เค
- B. เคเค
- C. เค
- D. เค
Q 62 :
เคเคชเคธเคฐเฅเค เคเคพ เคชเฅเคฐเคฏเฅเค เคนเฅเคคเคพ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคเฅ เคเคฆเคฟ เคฎเฅเค
- B. เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคเฅ เคฎเคงเฅเคฏ เคฎเฅเค
- C. เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคเฅ เค เคเคค เคฎเฅเค
- D. เคเคจเคฎเฅ เคธเฅ เคเฅเค เคจเคนเฅเค
Q 63 :
'เคชเคเคกเคฟเคค เคฆเฅเคง เคชเฅเคคเคพ เคนเฅ' เคเคธ เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ เคฎเฅเค เคเคพเคฐเค เคนเฅ -
- A. เคเคฐเฅเคฎ, เคเคฐเคฃ
- B. เคธเคฎเฅเคชเฅเคฐเคฆเคพเคจ, เคธเคฎเฅเคฌเคจเฅเคง
- C. เคเคฐเฅเคคเคพ, เคเคฐเฅเคฎ
- D. เคเคจเคฎเฅเค เคธเฅ เคเฅเค เคจเคนเฅเค
Q 64 :
'เคจเฅ' เคเคฟเคธ เคเคพเคฐเค เคเคพ เคเคฟเคนเฅเคจ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคเคฐเฅเคคเคพ
- B. เคเคฐเคฃ
- C. เคธเคฎเฅเคชเฅเคฐเคฆเคพเคจ
- D. เคเคฐเฅเคฎ
Q 65 :
'เคตเคน เคเคนเคพเค เคเคพเคนเฅ, เคเคพเคฏเฅ; เคฎเฅเคเฅ เคเฅเคฏเคพ เคฒเฅเคจเคพ-เคฆเฅเคจเคพเฅค' เคฏเคน เคเฅเคธเคพ เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคธเคเคฏเฅเคเฅเคค เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ
- B. เคธเคฐเคฒ เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ
- C. เคฎเคฟเคถเฅเคฐเคฟเคค เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ
- D. เคธเคเคฏเฅเคเฅเคค-เคฎเคฟเคถเฅเคฐเคฟเคค เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ
Q 66 :
เคตเฅเคฏเคพเคเคฐเคฃ เคเฅ เคจเคฟเคฏเคฎเคพเคจเฅเคธเคพเคฐ เคเคฟเคธ เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏ เคฎเฅเค เคชเคฆเคเฅเคฐเคฎ เคธเคนเฅ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคฐเคพเคตเคฃ เคเฅ เคฐเคพเคฎ เคจเฅ เคฎเคพเคฐเคพเฅค
- B. เคฐเคพเคฎ เคจเฅ เคฐเคพเคตเคฃ เคเฅ เคฎเคพเคฐเคพเฅค
- C. เคฎเคพเคฐเคพ เคฐเคพเคฎ เคจเฅ เคฐเคพเคตเคฃ เคเฅเฅค
- D. เคธเคเคฏเฅเคเฅเคค-เคฎเคฟเคถเฅเคฐเคฟเคค เคตเคพเคเฅเคฏเฅค
Q 67 :
'เค
เคงเคฟเคเคฐเคฃ' เคเคพเคฐเค เคเคพ เคเคฟเคนเฅเคจ เคนเฅ -
- A. เค เคฐเฅ
- B. เคฎเฅเค
- C. เคธเฅ
- D. เคเฅ
Q 68 :
เคธเฅเคตเคฐ เคนเฅเคคเฅ เคนเฅเค -
- A. เคเฅเคท
- B. เค เคเฅเคท
- C. เค เคฒเฅเคชเคชเฅเคฐเคพเคฃ
- D. เคฎเคนเคพเคชเฅเคฐเคพเคฃ
Q 69 :
เคจเคฟเคฎเฅเคจเคฒเคฟเคเคฟเคค เคฎเฅเค เคธเฅ เคตเคฐเฅเคคเฅเคธเฅเคฏ เคนเฅ -
- A. เคฒเฅ
- B. เคก
- C. เคขเคผ
- D. เคธเฅ
Q 70 :
'เคฆเคฟเคคเฅเคต' เคเคพ เคชเฅเคฐเคฏเฅเค เคเคฟเคธ เคถเคฌเฅเคฆ เคฎเฅเค เคจเคนเฅเค เคนเฅเค เคนเฅ ?
- A. เคธเคเฅเคเคพ
- B. เคเฅเคคเฅเคคเคพ
- C. เคฌเคฒเฅเคเคพ
- D. เคฌเคเฅเคเคพ
Physics
Q 71 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
- A.metastable state to any lower state
- B.any higher state of lower state
- C.metastable state to ground state
- D.any higher state to ground state
Q 72 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
- A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
- B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
- C.zero at any point inside the pipe
- D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 73 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
- A.0.45 m
- B.0.15 m
- C.0.30 m
- D.0.6 m
Q 74 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
- A.having a constant phase difference
- B.of equal wavelength
- C.of equal speed
- D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 75 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
- A.0.75 A
- B.1 A
- C.2 A
- D.1.5 A
Q 76 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
- A.anywhere
- B.emitter-collector
- C.collector-base
- D.base-emitter
Q 77 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
- A.2 and 4
- B.1 only
- C.3 and 4
- D.4 only
Q 78 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
- A.S1,S2 and S4
- B.S2 and S4
- C.S4 only
- D.S3 only
Q 79 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
- A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
- B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
- C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
- D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 80 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
- A.same in all the medium
- B.lesser in rarer medium
- C.lesser in denser medium
- D.independent of the medium
Q 81 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
- A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
- B.2nรฐยลโน
- C.nλ
- D.n
Q 82 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
- A.multimeter
- B.voltmeter
- C.voltameter
- D.potentiometer
Q 83 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
- A.Both K and L increase
- B.Both K and L remain unchanged
- C.K remains constant, L increases
- D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 84 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
- A.Gas constant (R)
- B.Pressure (p)
- C.Volume (V)
- D.Temperature (T)
Q 85 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
- A.300 m
- B.3 km
- C.15 m
- D.15 km
Q 86 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
- A.25 kWh
- B.9 x 1010 kWh
- C.3 x 1010 kWh
- D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 87 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
- A.5 and 6
- B.5 and 7
- C.2 and 7
- D.2 and 6
Q 88 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
- A.innermost electron orbit
- B.a stable nucleus
- C.outermost electron orbit
- D.radioactive nucleus
Q 89 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
- A.0.8 A
- B.2.5 A
- C.0.4 A
- D.1.25 A
Q 90 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
- A.50 s-2
- B.25 s-2
- C.12.5 s-2
- D.6.25 s-2
Q 91 :
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
- A.35o
- B.50o
- C.55o
- D.60o
Q 92 :
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
- A.0.015 N
- B.0.15 N
- C.0.030 N
- D.zero
Q 93 :
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
- A.emulsions
- B.gels
- C.foams
- D.liquid crystals
Q 94 :
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
- A.I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
- B.scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
- C.the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
- D.scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Q 95 :
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
- A.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
- B.can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
- C.cannot keep the body in equilibrium
- D.can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Q 96 :
Sound waves transfer
- A.only energy not momentum
- B.energy
- C.momentum
- D.both (a) and (b)
Q 97 :
G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the phenomena
- A.diffraction
- B.refraction
- C.polarisation
- D.scattering
Q 98 :
The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 รขโยฆ. If the temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the resistance becomes 0.6 รขโยฆ is
- A.720 K
- B.345 K
- C.993 K
- D.690 K
Q 99 :
Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the point sources just seen to be resolved is
- A.12.2 m
- B.24.2 m
- C.2.44 m
- D.1.22 m
Q 100 :
A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
- A.1.2 N
- B.3.6 N
- C.2.4 N
- D.4 N
Q 101 :
0.1 m3 of water at 80o C. The final temperature of the mixture is
- A.65oC
- B.70oC
- C.60oC
- D.75oC
Q 102 :
The spectral series of the hydrogen atom that lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum
- A.Paschen
- B.Balmer
- C.Lyman
- D.Brackett
Q 103 :
A resistor and a capacitor are connected inseries with an AC source. If the potential drop across the capacitor is 5 V and that across resistor is 12 V, then applied voltage is
- A.13 V
- B.17 V
- C.5 V
- D.12 V
Q 104 :
The amount of heat energy radiated by a metal at temperature T is E. When the temperature is increased to 3T, energy radiated is
- A.8 1E
- B.9 E
- C.3 E
- D.27 E
Q 105 :
A man, of mass 60 kg, is riding in a lift. The weights of the man, when the lift is accelerating upwards and down wards at 2m/s2 are respectively (Taking g=2m/s2)
- A.720 N and 480 N
- B.480 N and 720 N
- C.600 N and 800 N
- D.None of these
Q 106 :
A galvanometer of resistance 240 รขโยฆ allows only 4% of the main current after connecting a shunt resistance. The value of the shunt resistance is
- A.10 รขโยฆ
- B.20 รขโยฆ
- C.8 รขโยฆ
- D.5 รขโยฆ
Q 107 :
The phenomena in which proton flips is
- A.nuclear magnetic resonance
- B.lasers
- C.radioactivity
- D.nuclear fusion
Q 108 :
According to the quark model, it is possible to build all the hadrons using
- A.2 quarks and 3 antiquarks
- B.1 quarks and 2 antiquarks
- C.3 quarks and 3 antiquarks
- D.2 quarks and 2 antiquarks
Q 109 :
The surface temperature of the stars is determined using
- A.Planck’s law
- B.Wien’s displacement law
- C.Rayleigh-Jeans law
- D.Kirchhoff’s law
Q 110 :
A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the lens on the other side of the principal axis, the intensity of light
- A.first decreases and then increases
- B.continuously increases
- C.continuously decreases
- D.first increases and then decreases
Q 111 :
Continuous emission spectrum is produced by
- A.incandescent electric lamp
- B.mercury vapour lamp
- C.sodium vapour lamp
- D.polyatomic substances
Q 112 :
A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 600. The angle of deviation produced by the mirror is
- A.1200
- B.300
- C.600
- D.900
Q 113 :
The electric potential at any point x,y,z in metres is given by V = 3x2. The electric field at point (2,0,1) is
- A.12 Vm-1
- B.-6 Vm-1
- C.6 Vm-1
- D.-12 Vm-1
Q 114 :
Young’s double. Slit experiment gives interference fringes of width 0.3 mm. A thin glass plate made of material of refractive index 1.5 is kept in the path of light from one of the slits, then the fringe width becomes
- A.zero
- B.0.3 mm
- C.0.45 mm
- D.0.15 mm
Q 115 :
The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is independent of
- A.magnetic field in which it is lying
- B.number of turns
- C.area of the loop
- D.current in the loop
Q 116 :
2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount (including both the days) is
- A.0 g
- B.0.125 g
- C.1 g
- D.0.5 g
Q 117 :
The ratios of the distance traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body, falling from rest, are
- A.1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 …………
- B.2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 ……………….
- C.1 : 4 : 7 :10 : 13 …………
- D.None of the above
Q 118 :
A source having frequency of 240 Hz is moving towards on observer with a speed of 20 m/s. when the observer is moving towards the source with a velocity of 20m/s. then apparent frequency heard by the observer, if velocity of sound is 330m/s, will be:
- A.268 Hz
- B.271 Hz
- C.368 Hz
- D.250 Hz
Q 119 :
Choose the incorrect statement out of the following.
- A.Every measurement by any measuring
- B.Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some error
- C.A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice-versa
- D.The percentage error is different from relative error
Q 120 :
If E,M,L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively then the quantity ( E2L2/M5G2) has the dimensions of
- A.angle
- B.length
- C.mass
- D.None of these
Q 121 :
Which of the following does not depict the correct link between technology and physics?
- A.Optical fibres ↔ total internal reflection of light
- B.Nuclear reactor ↔ nuclear fusion
- C.Electron microscope ↔ wave nature of electrons
- D.Electric generator ↔ laws of electromagnetic induction
Q 122 :
If the velocity of sound in air is 336 m/s. The maximum length of a closed pipe that would produce a just audible sound will be
- A.3.2 cm
- B.4.2 m
- C.4.2 cm
- D.3.2 m
Q 123 :
Which of the following statements is true, when spherical waves fall on a plane refracting surface, separation two media?
- A.The reflected waves form spherical wave fronts
- B.The reflected waves form plane wave fronts
- C.The refracted waves form No plane wave fronts
- D.There are no refracted waves form plane wave fronts
Q 124 :
The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum depends upon the source of radiation
- A.increases as we move from y–rays to radio waves
- B.decreases as we move from y-rays to radio waves
- C.is same for all of them x
- D.None of the above
Q 125 :
Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible resulting intensities are
- A.5I and 0
- B.5I and 3I
- C.9I and I
- D.9I and 3I
Q 126 :
If the radius of earth is reduced by 2% keeping its mass constant. Then the weight of the body on its surface will
- A.Increases
- B.Decreases
- C.Remain same
- D.Either b or c
Q 127 :
A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
- A.2.4 mm
- B.1.2 mm
- C.2.4 cm
- D.1.2 cm
Q 128 :
In an astronomial telescope, the focal length of objective lens and eye piece are 150 cm and 6 cm respectively. In normal adjustment the magnifying power is
- A.20
- B.30
- C.60
- D.15
Q 129 :
In an experiment with Kund’s tube, the distance between consecutive nodes is 5 cm, when air is inside and it is 13.4 cm, when hydrogen is inside then the velocity of sound in hydrogen will be (velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) :
- A.884.4 m/s
- B.984.4 m/s
- C.1084.4 m/s
- D.None of these
Q 130 :
An element A decays into an element C by a two step process.
A → B + 2He4
B → C + 2e-
Then
A → B + 2He4
B → C + 2e-
Then
- A.A and C are isobars
- B.A and C are isotopes
- C.A and B are isotopes
- D.A and B are isobars
Q 131 :
Which of the following is the infrared wavelength?
- A.10–4 cm
- B.10–5 cm
- C.10–6 cm
- D.10–7 cm
Q 132 :
Chromatic aberration of lens can be corrected by
- A.providing different suitable curvature to its two surfaces
- B.proper polishing of its two surfacesx
- C.suitably toffihining it with another lens
- D.reducing its aperture
Q 133 :
The forward voltage in a diode increased the width of the depletion region:
- A.Does not change
- B.Decreases
- C.Increases
- D.None of these
Q 134 :
Time-period of a pendulum on a satellite, orbiting around the earth, is
- A.Zero
Q 135 :
The current in a coil of inductance 0.2 H changes from 5 A to 2 A in 0.5 sec . The magnitude of the average induced emf in the coil is
- A.0.3 V
- B.0.6 V
- C.1.2 V
- D.30 V
Q 136 :
A charged hollow sphere does not produce an electric field at any
- A.inner point
- B.outer point
- C.beyond 2 metres
- D.beyond 10 metres
Q 137 :
An astronaut on a strange planet finds that acceleration due to gravity is twice as that on the surface of earth. Which of the following could explain this?
- A.Both the mass and radius of the planet are half as that of earth
- B.Radius of the planet is half as that of earth, but the mass is the same as that of earth
- C.Both the mass and radius of the planet are twice as that of earth
- D.Mass of the planet is half as that of earth, but radius is same as that of earth
Q 138 :
A small object is placed 10 cm in front of a plane mirror. If you stand behind the object 30 cm from the mirror and look at its image, the distance foccused for your eye will be:
- A.60 cm
- B.20 cm
- C.40 cm
- D.80 cm
Q 139 :
Three polaroid sheets P1, P2 and P3 are kept parallel to each other such that the angle between pass axes of P1and P2 is 450 and that between P2 and P3 is 450 . If unpolarised beam of light of intensity 128 Wm-2 is incident on P1 . What is the intensity of light coming out of P3 ?
- A.64Wm-2
- B.128 Wm-2
- C.0
- D.16 Wm-2
Q 140 :
While a capacitor remains connected to a battery and dielectric slab is applied between the plates, then:
- A.Potential difference between the plates is changed
- B.Charge flows from the battery to the capacitor
- C.Electric field between the plates increases
- D.Energy store in the capacitor decreases
Q 141 :
There are two electric bulbs of 40 volt and 60 volt. The ratio of their resistance will be:
- A.5 : 4
- B.4 : 3
- C.3 : 2
- D.2 : 3
Q 142 :
A beam of light in air enters into the water. Which of the following characteristics of light will not change?
- A.colour
- B.velocity
- C.amplitude
- D.frequency
Q 143 :
If a ball is thrown vertically upwards, assuming the air resistance to be constant and considerable, then :
- A.Time of ascent > time of descent
- B.Time of ascent = time of descent
- C.Time of ascent < time of descent
- D.Time of ascent > time of descent
Q 144 :
The work function for aluminium is 4.125 eV. The cutoff wavelength for photoelectric effect for aluminium will be:
- A.420 nm
- B.350 nm
- C.300 nm
- D.200 nm
Q 145 :
A bus is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s towards a huge well. The driver sounds a horn of frequency 165 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 355 m/s, the number of beats heard per second by a passenger on the bus will be:
- A.6
- B.5
- C.3
- D.4
Q 146 :
If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuume is 300 then velocity of light in the medium is:
- A.1.5 × 108 m/s
- B.3 × 108 m/s
- C.0.75 m/s
- D.6 × 108 m/s
Q 147 :
In a stationary wave all particles of the medium cross the mean position with:
- A.Different velocities at different instants
- B.Different velocities at same instants
- C.Same speed at all instants
- D.Different speed al all instants
Q 148 :
A cylinder of 5 litre capacity, filled with air at N.T.P. is connected with another evacuated cylinder of 30 litres of capacity the resultant air pressure in both the cylinders will be :
- A.38.85 cm of Hg
- B.21.85 cm of Hg
- C.10.85 cm of Hg
- D.14.85 cm of Hg
Q 149 :
As the intensity of incident light increases then:
- A.K.E. of photoelectron decreases
- B.K.E. of photoelectron increases
- C.Photoelectric current increases
- D.Photoelectric current decreases
Q 150 :
When one of the slits of Young’s experiment is covered with a transparent sheet of thickness 4.8 mm, the central shifts to a position originally occupies by the 30th bright fringe. What should be the thickness of the sheet if the central fringe has to shift to the position occupied by 20th bright fringe?
- A.1.6 mm
- B.3.8 mm
- C.
3.2 mm
- D.7.6 mm
Q 151 :
Pick out the statement which is not true:
- A.Shortest wavelength UV radiation are beneficial to living tissue while longer wavelength are harmful
- B.UV radiation have wavelength extending from 200 nm to 400 nm
- C.UV radiation are used for sterlisation of water
- D.Sun is natural source of UV radiation
Q 152 :
Which of the following substances has the highest elasticity?
- A.Sponge
- B.Steel
- C.Rubber
- D.Copper
Q 153 :
What happens, when we multiply a vector by –2 ?
- A.direction reverses and unit changes
- B.direction reverses and magnitude is doubled
- C.direction remains unchanged but unit changes
- D.neither direction reverses nor unit changes but the magnitude is doubled
Q 154 :
A train is moving towards north with a speed of 180 km/hr. If the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10-4 T, e.m.f. induced, in the axle 1.5 m long, is:
- A.1.5 m V
- B.15 m V
- C.5.4 m V
- D.54 m V
Q 155 :
When a ceiling fan is switched off its angular velocity radius 50% while its makes 36 rotations. How many more rotation will it make before coming to rest (assume uniform angular retardation ) :
- A.18
- B.12
- C.36
- D.48
Q 156 :
At sea level, the value of g is minimum at
- A.the poles
- B.the equator
- C.45° south latitude
- D.45° north longitude
Q 157 :
When there are no external forces, the shape of a small liquid drop is determined by
- A.surface tension of the liquid
- B.density of the liquid
- C.viscosity of air
- D.temperature of air
Q 158 :
A gas at the temperature 250 K is contained in a closed vessel. If the gas is heated through 1 K, then the percentage increase in its pressure will be:
- A.0.4%
- B.0.2%
- C.0.1%
- D.0.8%
Q 159 :
Whenever stationary waves are set up, in any medium, then
- A.condensations occur at nodes
- B.refractions occur at antinodes
- C.maximum strain is experienced at the nodes
- D.no strain is experienced at the antinodes
Q 160 :
A block of mass 1kg slides down a rough inclined plane of inclination 600 starting from its top. If coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.5 and length of the plane d=1 m then work done against friction is:
- A.2.45 J
- B.4.9 J
- C.9.8 J
- D.19.6 J
Q 161 :
A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two parts of equal length. The magnetic moment of each part will be
- A.12 M
- B.M
- C.0.5 M
- D.Zero
Q 162 :
A body thrown upwards with some velocity, reaches the maximum height of 20 m. Another body with double the mass thrown up, with double initial velocity will reach a maximum height of:
- A.200 m
- B.16 am
- C.80 m
- D.40 m
Q 163 :
A particle having charge 100 times that of an electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 0.8 m with one rotation per second. Magnetic field produced at the centre of particle will be:
- A.10–17 µ0
- B.10–11 µ0
- C.10–7 µ0
- D.10–3 µ0
Q 164 :
If the linear momentum of a body is increased by 50%, then the kinetic energy of that body increases by รขโฌโน
- A.100%
- B.125%
- C.225%
- D.25%
Q 165 :
There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then
- A.current is induced in the loop in the anticlockwise direction
- B.current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
- C.AC is induced in the loop
- D.no current is induced in the loop
Q 166 :
The energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is -13.6 eV. The energy of the level corresponding to the quantum number n is equal 5 is:
- A.-5.40 eV
- B.-2.72 eV
- C.-0.85 eV
- D.-0.54 eV
Q 167 :
Water is in streamline flows along a horizontal pipe with non-uniform cross-section. At a point in the pipe where the area of cross-section is 10 cm2, the velocity of water is 1 ms-1 and the pressure is
2000 Pa. The pressure at another point where the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is
2000 Pa. The pressure at another point where the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2 is
- A.4000 Pa
- B.2000 Pa
- C.1000 Pa
- D.500 Pa
Q 168 :
Magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a circular coil at a distance of 0.05 m and 0.2 m from the centre are in the ratio 8 : 1 The radius of the coil is:
- A.1.0 m
- B.0.1 m
- C.0.15 m
- D.0.2 m
Q 169 :
A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration of 1.25 m/s2 after 8s, a stone is released from the balloon. The store will (g = 10 m/s2):
- A.Reach the ground in 4 second
- B.Begin to move down after being released
- C.Have a displacements of 50 m
- D.Cover a distance of 40 m in reaching the ground
Q 170 :
If a while light is used in Young’s double slit experiments then a very large number of coloured fringes can be seen:
- A.With first order violet fringes being closer to the central white fringes
- B.First order red fringes being closer to the central white fringes
- C.With a central white fringe
- D.With a central black fringe
General Awareness
Q 171 :
With reference to Medical College Admission, “All India Quota” scheme was introduced in which year?
- A.1975
- B.1980
- C.1986
- D.1990
Q 172 :
How many Tiger reserves of India have received accreditation of the Global Conservation Assured Tiger Standards (CA|TS)?
- A.5
- B.3
- C.11
- D.14
Q 173 :
AS per ICMR’s 4th Serology Survey released in July 2021, which state has the highest Covid-19 Sero-prevalence?
- A.Bihar
- B.Madhya Pradesh
- C.Uttar Pradesh
- D.Kerala
Q 174 :
Who won the Maharashtra Bhushan Awards 2021?
- A.Asha Bhosle
- B.Sachin Tendulkar
- C.Lata Mangeshkar
- D.Ratan Tata
Q 175 :
Which Company collaborated with CBSE and Ministry of Education for “AI For All” initiative?
- A.Intel
- B.Microsoft
- C.Wipro
- D.Dell
Q 176 :
In July 2021, NABARD sanctioned Rs 445 crore loan under its Rural Infrastructure Development Fund to support drinking water projects in which state?
- A.Karnataka
- B.Madhya Pradesh
- C.Odisha
- D.Punjab
Q 177 :
Which bank partnered with LIC Cards Services to launch 2 Credit Cards – ‘Lumine’ Platinum Credit Card & ‘Eclat’ Select Credit Card?
- A.IDBI Bank
- B.ICICI Bank
- C.Canara Bank
- D.Axis Bank
Q 178 :
In July 2021, NASSCOM partnered with the Department for International Trade (DIT) of _____ to address its Digital Skill Gap
- A.Afghanistan
- B.United Kingdom
- C.Bangladesh
- D.Brazil
Q 179 :
Which Indian state partnered (in July’21) with Afghanistan Chamber of Commerce and Investment (ACCI) to boost trade with the country?
- A.West Bengal
- B.Karnataka
- C.Telangana
- D.Gujarat
Q 180 :
As per the Banking Regulation Act – 1949, All Banks in India shall maintain a Reserve Fund/Statutory Reserve equivalent to _______ of their annual net profit.
- A.5%
- B.25%
- C.10%
- D.20%
Q 181 :
As a boost to the disinvestment of _______, Central government (in July’21) allowed 100% FDI under automatic route in _______ PSUs.
- A.Cement Corporation of India; Construction Sector
- B.Indian Oil Corporation; Oil Refinery Sector
- C.General Insurance Corporation of India; Insurance Sector
- D.Bharat Petroleum; Oil Refinery Sector
Q 182 :
In July 2021, Union Cabinet approved the amendment of General Insurance Business Nationalisation Act (GIBNA), 1972, to facilitate privatization of ____ General Insurance Company from the total _____ in public sector.
- A.2;4
- B.1;4
- C.2;6
- D.1;5
Q 183 :
In July 2021, India & Russia conducted the 12th edition of Naval exercise ‘INDRA’ in _____, where Indian side was represented by ______.
- A.Baltic Sea; INS Tabar
- B.Baltic Sea; INS Trishul
- C.Andaman Sea; INS Tabar
- D.Andaman Sea; INS Trishul
Q 184 :
AS per the “Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)” report released by ________ unemployment rate among Indian Women is at ____ in 2019-20
- A.NITI Aayog; 5.1%
- B.National Statistical Office; 5.1%
- C.NITI Aayog; 4.2%
- D.National Statistical Office; 4.2%
Q 185 :
In July 2021, Ministry of Ports set-up a committee to plan on the proposed ferry service between India’s _____ and Kankesanthurai Port in _______.
- A.Karaikal; Sri Lanka
- B.Kolkata; Bangladesh
- C.Visakhapatnam; Bangladesh
- D.Karaikal; Myanmar
Q 186 :
Mike Hendrick passed away in July 2021. He was related to which of the following fields?
- A.Acting
- B.Medicine
- C.Cricket
- D.Politics
Q 187 :
When is World Ranger Day celebrated every year?
- A.28 July
- B.29 July
- C.30 July
- D.31 July
Q 188 :
Which of the following will set up 10 mobile refueling units (MRUs) in 2022?
- A.Adani Gas Ltd
- B.Mahanagar Gas Ltd
- C.Sabarmati Gas Limited
- D.Gail Gas Limited
Q 189 :
In July 2021, which of the following has entered into an agreement with the Serum Institute of India?
- A.NASSCOM
- B.ASSOCHAM
- C.CII
- D.FICCI
Q 190 :
Who chaired a review meeting with the National Medical Commission, NMC, in July 2021?
- A.Narendra Modi
- B.Amit Shah
- C.Mansukh Mandaviya
- D.Kiren Rijiju
Q 191 :
Who is the national record holder in the men’s 3000m steeplechase?
- A.Gulzara Singh Mann
- B.Avinash Sable
- C.Gopak Saini
- D.Madan Singh
Q 192 :
On which date, “International Friendship Day” is celebrated by the United Nations?
- A.August 8
- B.August 1
- C.July 30
- D.July 28
Q 193 :
What was the theme of the “World Day against Trafficking 2021”?
- A.Save lives
- B.The future we want, the UN we need
- C.Human Trafficking: Call Your Government to Action
- D.Victims voices lead the way
Q 194 :
Which two space agencies collaborated to launch the mission called “NISAR”?
- A.ISRO and NASA
- B.ISRO and ROSCOSMOS
- C.NASA and CNSA
- D.ROSCOSMOS and NASA
Q 195 :
What is the venue of INDRA-21, the Joint Military Exercise of Indian Army and Russian Army?
- A.New Delhi
- B.Moscow
- C.Volgograd
- D.Ghaziabad
Q 196 :
In August 2021, Prevail Electric Mobility, an arm of French lubricants major FRVelion, will set up an additional manufacturing unit in which of the following states?
- A.Maharashtra
- B.Haryana
- C.Telangana
- D.Uttar Pradesh
Q 197 :
The Central government fiscal deficit stood at how much per cent of the full year’s budget estimate at the end of June 2021?
- A.14.4%
- B.15.6%
- C.16.8%
- D.18.2%
Q 198 :
In August 2021, which of the following states has announced a reduction in power tariff by 37 paise per unit for consumers in the state?
- A.Haryana
- B.Telangana
- C.Uttar Pradesh
- D.Madhya Pradesh
Q 199 :
In August 2021, which state has bagged the top position in the country in terms of vaccinations per million people?
- A.Rajasthan
- B.Karnataka
- C.Gujarat
- D.Tamil Nadu
Q 200 :
The first orchid conservation centre of which state was inaugurated on 30 July 2021?
- A.Uttar Pradesh
- B.Bihar
- C.Uttarakhand
- D.Gujarat