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Latest DSE Odisha TGT Teacher Arts Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge & Current Affairs, Reasoning Ability, Computer Literacy, Child Development, Pedagogy, Educational Management, Policy & Evaluation, History + Political Science, Geography + Economics, English
Question Bank DSE Odisha TGT Teacher (Arts) Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
Who is the Cabinet Minister for public enterprises ?
A.Dr. Damodar Rout
B.Debi Prasad Mishra
C.Jogendra Behera
D.Pradip Kumar Amat
Q 7 :
Who is the minister of State of Commerce & Transport ?
A.Prafulla Kumar Mallick
B.Usha Devi
C.Ramesh Chandra Majhi
D.Arun Kumar Sahoo
E.Pradip Kumar Amat
Q 8 :
What is the total Area (in sq. km) of Odisha ?
A.1,55,707 sq. km
B.1,047,553 sq. km
C.2,033,124 sq. km
D.1,88,697 sq. km
Q 9 :
What is the literacy rate of Odisha (in %) ?
A.68.74 %
B.77.42 %
C.36.93 %
D.73.45 %
Q 10 :
How many Districts are there in Odisha ?
A.20
B.30
C.39
D.41
Q 11 :
What is the Capital of Odisha ?
A.Gajapati
B.Ganjam
C.Bhubaneshwar
D.Koraput
Q 12 :
Which is the largest river in Odisha ?
A.Mahanadi
B.The Brahmani
C.The Bahuda
D.Indravati
Q 13 :
During the ancient times, Odisha was known as _______ ?
A.Oriya
B.Kalinga
C.Kharavela
D.Kannauj
Q 14 :
_________ dam was constructed on the river Mahanadi.
A.Gopabandhu
B.Chandipur
C.Talcher
D.Hirakund
Q 15 :
What is the total area (in km) occupied by Mahanadi ?
A.852.8 kms
B.395 kms
C.165 kms
D.701 kms
Q 16 :
‘Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee – National Institute of Water and Sanitation (DSPM – NIWAS)’ has been inaugurated in which state ?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.West Bengal
C.Telangana
D.Karnataka
Q 17 :
Election Commission of India has developed a prototype of a remote electronic voting machine (RVM) for which category of people ?
A.Non Resident Indians
B.Domestic Migrant Workers
C.Elderly citizens above 80 years
D.Persons with Disabilities
Q 18 :
Which state commenced India’s first Nilgiri Tahr project ?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Odisha
D.Karnataka
Q 19 :
What is the name of the first Indian space mission to observe the Sun ?
A.Aditya-L1
B.Surya-L1
C.Rakshak-L1
D.Samyukth-L1
Q 20 :
Which state announced to give monthly allowance to unemployed youth from next financial year ?
A.Gujarat
B.Assam
C.Chhattisgarh
D.Rajasthan
Reasoning Ability
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 24 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 28 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 30 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 31 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 32 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 33 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 34 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 35 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 36 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 38 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 39 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 40 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Computer Literacy
Q 41 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 42 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 43 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 44 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 45 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 46 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 47 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 48 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 49 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 50 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Important Questions Package
DSE Odisha TGT Teacher Arts Exam Online Question Bank Package
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A common feature of Hinduism, Buddism and Jainism is belief about :
A.the unreality of the world
B.the existence of God
C.the soul
D.karma and rebirth
Q 52 :
'Epistemology' means :
A.stem cell research
B.study of the nature of knowledge
C.study of the nature of values
D.study of the nature of the world
Q 53 :
In Indian Philosophy 'pramana' means :
A.oath
B.measurement
C.assurance
D.source of knowledge
Q 54 :
Which of the following is the source material about the Jain way of life?
A.Dhammapada
B.Karma Kanda
C.Tripitaka
D.Tri-ratna
Q 55 :
The Schools of Vedanta are :
A.Dharma, Artha and Moksa
B.Advaita, Deaita and Visishtadvaita
C.Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism
D.the orthodox and the heterodox
Q 56 :
Epistemology is the branch of philosophy which deals with the theories of :
A.Realitty
B.Existence
C.Knowledge
D.Values
Q 57 :
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Philosophy helps in determining aims of education Reason (R) : Education depends mostly on Philosophy.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
A.Codes :
Both (A) and (R) are true.
B.Both (A) and (R) are false.
C.(A) is true but (R) is false.
D.(A) is false but (R) is true.
Q 58 :
"Things as they are and as they are likely to be encountered in life rather than words" was the slogan of the :
A.Pragmatists
B.Realists
C.Idealists
D.Existentialists
Q 59 :
An existentialistic teacher should emphasize on :
I. Freedom
II. Responsibility
III. Subjective feelings
IV. Cooperative living
In the above which combination is correct ?
A.Codes ;
I & II are correct.
B.I & III are correct.
C.I, II & III are correct.
D.II, III & IV are correct.
Q 60 :
Who advocated the creation of a classless society ?
A.Plato
B.Auguste Comte
C.M.K. Gandhi
D.Karl Marx
Q 61 :
Which of the following schools of philosophy integrates students' capacities, interests, habits with social participation ?
A.Pragmatism
B.Realism
C.Naturalism
D.Idealism
Q 62 :
Which of the following is the common belief held by Tagore, Gandhi and Aurobindo ?
A.Self-reliance
B.International harmony
C.Socialisation of children
D.National character
Q 63 :
Arrange the four noble truths given by Lord Buddha in proper sequence :
(i) Misery is the reality of life.
(ii) Every misery has a cause.
(iii) Freedom from misery is possible.
(iv) There is a remedy for every misery.
A.(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
B.(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
C.(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
D.(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
Q 64 :
Today there is a lot of emphasis on ICT in education - it is the implication of :
A.Realism
B.Logical analysis
C.Pragmatism
D.Marxism
Q 65 :
The statement : 'Education is the dynamic side of philosophy'. means:
A.No education can proceed without having an ideological basis.
B.The ultimate aim of education is to teach philosophical wisdom.
C.Education keeps philosophy moving.
D.Theoretical tenets are translated into practice by education.
Q 66 :
We can call Gandhi an idealist because :
A.He believed tht truth is the ultimate value.
B.He emphasised characterbuilding.
C.For him education means bringing out the best.
D.He saw education as a tool of social revolution.
Q 67 :
What is the educational implication of the Vedant Sutra :
A.Search for individual truth is the ultimate goal of education
B.Spirituality is the ultimate purpose of all educatioin.
C.The students should be instructed to renonunce worldly life.
D.The disciples should follow the Guru's example.
Q 68 :
Which of the following is an implication of Logical positivism ?
A.Students should know about the ultimate reality.
B.A teacher needs to be an example of positive attitudes.
C.Analysis of language should be the central part of education.
D.The metaphysical aspects must be converted into life-principles.
Q 69 :
Why is Aurobindo's educational thinking called 'integral-education' ?
A.Because it integrates Indian and western thinking.
B.Because it does not neglect any of phusical, psychic and spiritual dimension of a child.
C.Because it believes that truth is innate and therefore nothing can be taught.
D.It teaches us to live in harmony with nature as well as God.
Q 70 :
Match the items in List-I with those in List-II. List-I List-II
I. Idealism 1. Heuristic approach
II. Realism 2. Deductive method
III. Pragmatism 3. Experiential learning
IV. Naturalism 4. Inductive method
A.Code :
I II III IV
3 4 1 2
B.4 3 1 2
C.2 4 3 1
D.2 3 4 1
Q 71 :
Which of the following is not the aspects of child development?
A.Physical development
B.Social development
C.Cognitive development
D.Maturity
Q 72 :
Development can be described as growth in
A.cognitive state
B.physical state
C.social state
D.All of the above
Q 73 :
Which of the following is not correct about meaning of development?
A.It is a series of changes as a result of maturity
B.It is a series of changes as a result of experience
C.It is a mere progressive series of changes
D.None of the above
Q 74 :
Development sequence starts with ...... and ends with ......
A.ovum-sperm, zygote
B.ovum - sperm, blastocyst
C.blastocyst, zygote
D.ovum - sperm, fertilisation
Q 75 :
The feeling of shame and pride develops in ........ stage.
A.infancy
B.childhood
C.adolescence
D.adulthood
Q 76 :
The major difference about the concept of development between JE Anderson and E Hurlock is that Anderson considers it as ......... and Hurlock considers it as ...
A.growth and behavioural changes, processes for maturing an organism
B.growth and behavioural changes, growth and changes relating to maturity
C.growth and changes relating to maturity processes for maturing an organism
D.None of the above
Q 77 :
Which of the given statement is partially correct about the characteristics of development?
A.Each phase of development has its own variable
B.Development is a process that is continuous predictable and has individual differences
C.Each phase of development is with its own characteristic behaviour
D.Development is affected by cultural changes to a certain extent
Q 78 :
Consider the statement about development in human beings
I. Upto adolescence.
II. Upto adulthood.
III. Throughout life.
Which of the statement(s) given above is correct?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Only III
D.None of these
Q 79 :
Consider the given statement(s)
I. Mental development states that sensation is a gateway of knowledge.
II. Motor development accounts for the strength and speed.
III. Change in the individual behaviour due to maturation is learning.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A.Only I
B.Only Il
C.Only III
D.All of these
Q 80 :
Choose the incorrect matching with the help of given codes
I. Physical nervous system and development endocrine glands
II. Adolescence love for exploration.
III. Early childhood : sensitive language development period.
A.Codes
l is incorrect matching
B.Both I, II are incorrect matching
C.Both II, III are incorrect matching
D.None of the above
Q 81 :
Early childhood period is
A.sensitive to language development
B.crucial for maturity level
C.meant for learning through the forced behaviour
D.is complex in terms of growth and development cognitively
Q 82 :
The age group 6 to 11 years falls under
A.early childhood
B.pre-natal age
C.later childhood
D.None of these
Q 83 :
Consider the following statement(s)
I. Physical health and mental abilities are influencer of emotional development.
II. Fulfilling social expectations comes under social development.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A.Only I
B.Only II
C.Neither I nor II
D.Both I and II
Q 84 :
In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
A.Adolescence
B.Adulthood
C.Early childhood
D.Childhood
Q 85 :
Which of the following statements is not correct about development?
A.Each phase of the development has hazards
B.Development is not aided by stimulation
C.Development is affected by cultural changes
D.Each phase of the development has characteristic behavior
Q 86 :
Which of the following statements is not true about development?
A.Development is the product of interaction
B.Development follows an orderly sequence
C.Development is individualised process
D.Development proceeds from specific to general
Q 87 :
Which one of the following statements best sums up the relationship between development and learning?
A.Development is independent of learning
B.Learning trails behind development
C.Learning and development are synonymous terms
D.Learning and development are inter-related in a complex manner
Q 88 :
Which of the following development tasks is not appropriate to the late childhood?
A.Learning physical skills necessary for ordinary games
B.Achieving a masculine or feminine social role
C.Achieving personal independence
D.Learning to get along with age-mates
Q 89 :
The meaning of development is
A.progressive series of changes
B.progressive series of changes as a result of motivation
C.progressive series of changes as a result of motivation and experience
D.series of changes as a result of maturation and experience
Q 90 :
The best method to study growth and development of the child is
A.psychoanalytic method
B.comparative method
C.development method
D.statistical method
History + Political Science
Q 91 :
Which one of the below mentioned sites is not Harappan?
A.Padre
B.Kuntasi
C.Birrana
D.Jakhera
Q 92 :
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A.Vedas Their Brahmanas
Rigveda - Aitareya Brahmana
B.Samarveda - Taittiriy Brahmana
C.Yajurveda - Satapatha Brahmana
D.Atharvaveda - Gopatha Brahmana
Q 93 :
Asvapati of the Upanishadic age was the ruler of ?
A.Kekaya
B.Madra
C.Panchala
D.Usinara
Q 94 :
Flake tools of Levallois technique is the characteristic feature of which area of the following geological ages?
A.Lower Pleistocene
B.Holocene
C.Upper Pleistocene
D.Middle Pleistocene
Q 95 :
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(a)Sohagighat 1. Kashmir Neolith
(b)Balathal 2. V.S. Wakankar
(c)Bhimbetka 3. Ahar Culture Site
(d)Burzahom 4. A.C.L. Carlleyle
A.
Codes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 1 2
B.
4 3 2 1
C.
1 2 4 3
D.
2 1 3 4
Q 96 :
Which one of the following situated in the North-East Afghanistan is a Harappan trading port ?
A.Sutkagen Dor
B.Mundigak
C.Shoturgai
D.Nausharo
Q 97 :
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(a)Mesolithic site (i) Langharaj
(b)Microlith (ii) Bagor (Rajasthan)
(c)Beginning of Settled Agriculture (iii) Birbhanpur
(d)Chalcedony (iv) Chopni Mando
A.
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
B.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C.(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D.
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Q 98 :
In which one of the following places the centre of stone tool manufacture is found ?
A.Mehbubanagar
B.Malaprabha
C.Isampur
D.Palaghat
Q 99 :
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I List-II
(a)Rigaveda (i) Kanva
(b)Yajurveda (ii) Ranayaniya
(c)Samarveda (iii) Pippalada
(d)Atharveda (iv) Shakala
A.
Codes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B.
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
C.(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
D.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Q 100 :
Excavations at the sites of the places mentioned in the Mahabharata are related to which one of the following cultures ?
A.Northern Black polished ware
B.Red and Black polished ware
C.Painted grey ware
D.None of the above
Q 101 :
Who among the following defines political science as " the study of the act of human and social control" or the "study of control relationship of wills"?
A.Robson
B.Pollocks
C.Maitland
D.Catlin
Q 102 :
Is the parent science of all the social sciences.
A.Sociology
B.History
C.Philosophy
D.None of these
Q 103 :
Which of the following deals with morality and formulates rules which should influence the behaviour of man while living in society?
A.Philosophy
B.Ethics
C.Sociology
D.None of the above
Q 104 :
Ethics is concerned with man as a man and as such, it is prior to:
A.Society
B.Science
C.Political Science
D.History
Q 105 :
Who among the following prominent writers has given psychological explanations of almost all the political problems?
A.Le Bon
B.Baldwin
C.Graham Wallas
D.All of the above
Q 106 :
Political scientists have borrowed such, ideas as 'cultural relativism', 'social evolution', 'cultural diffusion' from:
A.Anthropology
B.Sociology
C.Philosophy
D.Economics
Q 107 :
Who among the following said that politics has its roots, psychologically, in the study of mental habits and vocational activities of mankind?
A.Barker
B.Plato
C.Bryce
D.Wallas
Q 108 :
Ivor Brown points out that economics deals mainly with and politics is concerned with
A.Wealth, government
B.Business, state
C.Commodities, human beings
D.Production, administration
Q 109 :
Which of the following theories of the origin of the state was accepted by liberalism?
A.Pluralist theory
B.Marxist theory
C.Historical theory
D.Institutional theory
Q 110 :
Which of the following views believes that the state originated with class division and class struggle in society?
A.Liberal view
B.Marxist view
C.Pluralist view
D.Traditional view
Geography + Economics
Q 111 :
Match List – I with List - II
List - I List - II
(Resource) (Region)
A. Iron ore 1. Panna district
B. Diamond 2. Jharia
C. Coal 3. Babubudan Hills
D. Geothermal energy 4. Puga Valley
Select the correct the answer from options given below :
A.A B C D
4 1 2 3
B.1 3 4 2
C.2 3 4 1
D.3 1 2 4
Q 112 :
Match the element of List – I with List - II
List - I List - II
(Local Winds) (Countries)
A. Norwester 1. Switzerland
B. Yamo 2. New Zealand
C. Foehn 3. USA
D. Chinhook 4. Japan
​Select the correct the answer from options given below :
A.A B C D
​3 2 4 1
B.2 4 1 3
C.1 3 2 4
D.4 1 3 2
Q 113 :
Who among the following Arab geographers is most widely travelled and wrote down his travel account for posterity ?
A.Ibn-Batuta
B.Ibn-Khaldun
C.Ibn-Hakul
D.Al-Masudi
Q 114 :
Which among the following is an example of Quaternaries activites ?
A.Construction
B.Sericulture
C.Retail and wholesale trade
D.Manufacturing
Q 115 :
Which of the following type of weathering is generally dominant in Greater Himalayas ?
A.Block disintegration
B.Scree formation
C.Exfoliation
D.Granular disintegration
Q 116 :
Consider the following statements regarding air mass characteristics :
(1) An extensive body of air
(2) Fairly homogeneous physical properties
(3) Associated with light divergent winds
(4) Associated with the convergence zones
​Select the correct the answer from codes given below :
A.1 and 2 are correct
B.3 and 4 are correct
C.2, 3 and 4 are correct
D.1, 2 and 3 are correct
Q 117 :
Which one of the following statements is true for a World city ?
A.A World city is absolutely devoid of any financial institution
B.A World city is culturally homogeneous in nature
C.A World city is the headquarters of several multinational corporations
D.A World city is rarely the centre of new ideas and innovations
Q 118 :
Ekman transport occurs in the :
A.Upper ocean
B.Meso-pelagic layer
C.Bathy – pelagic layer
D.Ocean bottom
Q 119 :
Which one of the following books was NOT written by Al-Masudi ?
A.Kitab-Muraj-al-Dhahab
B.Kitab-Akhbar-al-Zaman
C.Al-Qanun-al-Masudi
D.Kitab-al-Ausat
Q 120 :
Which one of the following surface produces maximum albedo ?
A.Fresh snow cover
B.Cloud cover
C.Forest cover
D.Desert cover
Q 121 :
In case of indifference curve of two goods X and Y, as consumption of X increases :
A.MRSXY increases
B.MRSXY decreases
C.MRSXY remains the same
D.MRSXY increases but later on MRSXY decreases
Q 122 :
General Economic equilibrium is NOT related to which one of the following problems ?
A.Uniqueness problem
B.Existence problem
C.Stability problem
D.Moral hazard problem
Q 123 :
In the shoft-run production function, which on eof the following is CORRECT ?
A.Technology is assumed to change as labour input changes
B.Technology is assumed to change as capital stock changes
C.Technology is assumed to change positively until diminishing returns set in
D.Technology is assumedto be constant for a given production function relationship
Q 124 :
As output expands, LAC curve falls. This is due to :
A.Law of variable proportions
B.Law of diminishing returns
C.Economies of scale
D.Diseconomies of scale
Q 125 :
In a situtation of decision under uncertainty, if a consumer faces equal expected income from two alternatives, then she will take decision on the basis of :
A.Expected utility of both the alternatives
B.Probability of risk attached with each alternatives
C.Variation of risk attached with each alternatives
D.Mean of risk of each alternatives
Q 126 :
What type of relationship the Phillips curve postulates between the rae of unemployment and the rate of increase of money wages ?
A.Inverse
B.Direct
C.Direct and proportional
D.Inverse and proportional
Q 127 :
The concept of 'money illusion' was first given by whom ?
A.Milton Friedman
B.Irving Fisher
C.Robertson
D.J. M. Keynes
Q 128 :
Which one of the following correctly describes the concept of 'Super Multiplier' ?
A.Investment multiplier
B.Money multiplier
C.Interaction between multiplier and accelerator
D.Employment multiplier
Q 129 :
Given
I = 50 + 0.2Y
S = –150 + 0.4Y
G = 50
Where, I = Investment, S = Savings
G = Government Expenditure
Y = National Income
What is the equilibrium level of national income
A.2500
B.1250
C.250
D.1500
Q 130 :
The independence of real variables from changes in money supply and nominal variables is called :
A.Keynesian dichotomy
B.Classical dichotomy
C.Money illusion
D.Money multiplier
English
Q 131 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 132 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 133 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 134 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 135 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 136 :
To sleep with the fishes
A.Always be in a dream world
B.To make absurd excuses
C.To sleep peacefully
D.To be dead
Q 137 :
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A.To exterminate
B.To expurgate
C.To intricate
D.To extricate
Q 138 :
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
