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Question for DSSSB Assistant Grade I - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 12, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200

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To boost your performance in DSSSB Assistant Grade I exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in DSSSB Assistant Grade I exams.

Latest DSSSB Assistant Grade I Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Awareness, Mental Ability, Hind Language, English Language, Numerical Ability, Computer Basics

Question Bank DSSSB Assistant Grade I Exam - English

General Awareness

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A.metastable state to any lower state
  2. B.any higher state of lower state
  3. C.metastable state to ground state
  4. D.any higher state to ground state
Q 7 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
  1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
  2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
  3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
  4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 8 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
  1. A.0.45 m    
  2. B.0.15 m
  3. C.0.30 m       
  4. D.0.6 m
Q 9 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
  1. A.having a constant phase difference
  2. B.of equal wavelength
  3. C.of equal speed
  4. D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 10 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
  1. A.0.75 A     
  2. B.1 A
  3. C.2 A         
  4. D.1.5 A
Q 11 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A.between 7 and 8
  2. B.between 5 and 6
  3. C.between 6 and 7
  4. D.between 10 and 11
Q 12 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
  1. A.1.93 A         
  2. B.9.65 A
  3. C.19.3 A        
  4. D.0.965 A
Q 13 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
  1. A.molar conductance
  2. B.conductance
  3. C.specific conductance
  4. D.equivalent conductance
Q 14 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B.the nature of the substrate
  3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 15 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
  1. A.Water vapour
  2. B.Carbon monoxide
  3. C.Methane
  4. D.Oxygen
Q 16 :
Which ministry launched the Krishi Nivesh Portal to boost agricultural investments?
  1. A.Ministry of Rural Development
  2. B.Ministry of Finance
  3. C.Ministry of Jal Shakti
  4. D.Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Q 17 :
Which Indian ministry launched the 'Sanchaar Mitra' initiative to enhance communication services?
  1. A.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  2. B.Ministry of Communications
  3. C.Ministry of Electronics and IT
  4. D.Ministry of Home Affairs
Q 18 :
Which Indian state hosted the third Lavender Festival in Bhaderwah, Doda district?
  1. A.Himachal Pradesh
  2. B.Uttarakhand
  3. C.Jammu & Kashmir
  4. D.Sikkim
Q 19 :
Which day is observed globally on June 5 to promote environmental awareness?
  1. A.World Earth Day
  2. B.World Environment Day
  3. C.International Biodiversity Day
  4. D.Global Recycling Day
Q 20 :
Which economic data is scheduled for release by the Eurozone on June 3, 2025?
  1. A.Unemployment rate
  2. B.GDP growth rate
  3. C.Inflation estimate for May
  4. D.Trade balance
Q 21 :
Which two teams are competing in the final group-stage match of the Women's Nations League in Barcelona on June 3, 2025?
  1. A.France vs Germany
  2. B.Spain vs England
  3. C.Italy vs Netherlands
  4. D.Sweden vs Norway
Q 22 :
Which two cricket teams are playing their third One Day International (ODI) match at The Oval, London, on June 3, 2025?
  1. A.India vs Australia
  2. B.England vs West Indies
  3. C.South Africa vs Pakistan
  4. D.New Zealand vs Sri Lanka
Q 23 :
Which country is holding its presidential election on June 3, 2025, following the impeachment of its former president?
  1. A.Japan
  2. B.South Korea
  3. C.Poland
  4. D.Germany
Q 24 :
Bayraktar TB2, an unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV), is developed by which country?
  1. A.Israel
  2. B.Turkey
  3. C.USA
  4. D.Russia
Q 25 :
Nalsarovar Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in news for the sighting of Sabine’s Gull, is located in which state?
  1. A.Rajasthan
  2. B.Madhya Pradesh
  3. C.Gujarat
  4. D.Uttarakhand
Q 26 :
Which country surpassed Japan to become the world's largest creditor nation after 34 years?
  1. A.China
  2. B.Germany
  3. C.United States
  4. D.Switzerland
Q 27 :
Which major tech company is expected to launch the highly anticipated Switch 2 console, projected to sell 15 million units this fiscal year?
  1. A.Sony
  2. B.Microsoft
  3. C.Nintendo
  4. D.Sega
Q 28 :
Which country is set to adopt the euro, with the European Commission deciding on its readiness?
  1. A.Romania
  2. B.Bulgaria
  3. C.Croatia
  4. D.Hungary
Q 29 :
Which department in the U.S. instructed its medical personnel to seek clearance from political appointees before publishing or speaking publicly, following a critical journal article?
  1. A.Department of Health and Human Services
  2. B.Department of Veterans Affairs
  3. C.Department of Defense
  4. D.Department of Education
Q 30 :
What is the name of the transgender teen athlete who won track events in California amid federal threats to cut state funding over trans-inclusive sports policies?
  1. A.Alex Morgan
  2. B.AB Hernandez
  3. C.Jamie Lee
  4. D.Taylor Smith
Q 31 :
Which country observed Republic Day on June 2, 2025, commemorating the 1946 referendum that led to the establishment of the republic?
  1. A.France
  2. B.Germany
  3. C.Italy
  4. D.Spain
Q 32 :
Which Indian state celebrated the annual School Praveshanolsavam on June 2, 2025?
  1. A.Tamil Nadu
  2. B.Kerala
  3. C.Karnataka
  4. D.Maharashtra
Q 33 :
Who became the first New Zealander to reach space after flying on the Blue Origin NS-32 suborbital spaceflight?
  1. A.Peter Beck
  2. B.Mark Rocket
  3. C.Richard Pearse
  4. D.William Pickering
Q 34 :
Which state in India mandated weekly ethics classes based on Thirukkural for students from Classes VI to XII?
  1. A.Kerala
  2. B.Tamil Nadu
  3. C.Karnataka
  4. D.Andhra Pradesh
Q 35 :
The Perito Moreno Glacier, recently in the news, is located in which country?
  1. A.Chile
  2. B.Argentina
  3. C.Peru
  4. D.Ecuador

Mental Ability

Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
Q 37 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
Q 38 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 39 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 41 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 42 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
Q 43 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 44 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
Q 45 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
Q 46 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
Q 47 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
Q 48 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 49 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
Q 50 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

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