Latest DSSSB JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Hindi Language & Comprehension, English Language & Comprehension, Mechanical
Question Bank DSSSB JE Exam TIER 1 (Mechanical) - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 6Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 7Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 8Single Answer
Which Delhi Sultan captured Qutub Minar while it was under construction?
A
Iltutmish
B
Alauddin Khalji
C
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D
Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 9Single Answer
Where did the First Battle of Panipat take place?
A
Panipat
B
Delhi
C
Kurukshetra
D
Agra
Question 10Single Answer
Who built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?
A
Shah Jahan
B
Jahangir
C
Akbar
D
Aurangzeb
Question 11Single Answer
The iconic Humayun's Tomb was built by:
A
Babur
B
Humayun
C
Hamida Banu Begum
D
Akbar
Question 12Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 13Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 14Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 15Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 16Single Answer
In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?
A
Kerala
B
Manipur
C
Assam
D
Odisha
Question 17Single Answer
What is the proposed special feature of Bihar’s new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?
A
Only online education
B
All students and staff will be women
C
Only foreign students
D
It will focus only on engineering
Question 18Single Answer
How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?
A
39.09 crore
B
59.09 crore
C
49.09 crore
D
69.09 crore
Question 19Single Answer
How much did India’s coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025–26?
A
₹4,349 crore
B
₹5,038 crore
C
₹7,038 crore
D
₹6,038 crore
Question 20Single Answer
Which company announced an investment of up to ₹18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?
A
Bank of America
B
Goldman Sachs
C
HSBC
D
Morgan Stanley
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 62Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 63Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 64Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 65Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 66Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 67Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 68Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 69Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 70Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
Question 71Single Answer
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
A
आ
B
ऊँ
C
ओ
D
औ
Question 72Single Answer
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
A
शब्द के आदि में
B
शब्द के मध्य में
C
शब्द के अंत में
D
इनमे से कोई नहीं
Question 73Single Answer
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
A
कर्म, करण
B
सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
C
कर्ता, कर्म
D
इनमें से कोई नहीं
Question 74Single Answer
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
A
कर्ता
B
करण
C
सम्प्रदान
D
कर्म
Question 75Single Answer
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
A
संयुक्त वाक्य
B
सरल वाक्य
C
मिश्रित वाक्य
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Question 76Single Answer
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
A
रावण को राम ने मारा।
B
राम ने रावण को मारा।
C
मारा राम ने रावण को।
D
संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Question 77Single Answer
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
A
अरे
B
में
C
से
D
को
Question 78Single Answer
स्वर होते हैं -
A
घोष
B
अघोष
C
अल्पप्राण
D
महाप्राण
Question 79Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
A
ल्
B
ड
C
ढ़
D
स्
Question 80Single Answer
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
A
सच्चा
B
कुत्ता
C
बल्गा
D
बग्गा
English Language & Comprehension
Question 81Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 82Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 83Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 84Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 85Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 86Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 87Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 88Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 89Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 90Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Mechanical
Question 101Single Answer
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1
Question 102Single Answer
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 103Single Answer
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids
Question 104Single Answer
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A
8
B
6
C
4
D
2
Question 105Single Answer
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 107Single Answer
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible
Question 108Single Answer
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4
Question 109Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 110Single Answer
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing
Question 111Single Answer
A spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter splits up in air into 64 smaller drops of equal size. The surface tension coefficient of water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required in splitting up the drop is
A
0.96 × 10–6 J
B
0.69 × 10–6 J
C
0.32 × 10–6 J
D
0.23 × 10–6 J
Question 112Single Answer
Consider the following statements pertaining to stability of floating bodies:
1. A floating body will be stable when the centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy.
2. The position of metacentres corresponding to different axes of rotation are generally different for the same floating object.
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height varies with loading.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 113Single Answer
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A
11.7 mm
B
14.6 mm
C
17.5 mm
D
20.4 mm
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, viscous forces dominate over inertial forces.
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent flow occurs over a range of Reynolds numbers depending on the surface presented to the flow.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 115Single Answer
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A
D–1
B
D–2
C
D–3
D
D–4
Question 116Single Answer
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A
2 m/s
B
1.5 m/s
C
1 m/s
D
0.5 m/s
Question 117Single Answer
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A
8%
B
10%
C
12%
D
15%
Question 118Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/kg K to 75 kJ/kg K. The process is
A
reversible and isothermal
B
irreversible
C
reversible only
D
isothermal only
Question 119Single Answer
A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If the engine is reversed and operates as a refrigerator, then its coefficient of performance shall be
A
6
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 120Single Answer
For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle and the Carnot cycle working between temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power contribution of the Brayton cycle will be
A
zero
B
maximum
C
minimum
D
50% of the Carnot cycle
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following motions :
1. Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
2. Motion of a shaft between foot-step bearings
Which of the above can rightly be considered as successfully constrained motion?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 122Single Answer
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which leaves the shaft balanced statically.The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A
800 N and 800 N
B
300 N and 800 N
C
800 N and – 300 N
D
300 N and – 300 N
Question 123Single Answer
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A
Simple harmonic
B
Constant acceleration and deceleration
C
Constant velocity
D
Cycloidal
Question 124Single Answer
In a circular are cam with a roller follower, acceleration of the follower depends on
1. cam speed and location of centre of circular arc
2. roller diameter and radius of circular arc
Which of the above is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 125Single Answer
A manufacturing company is selling a product for 15 per unit with variable cost of 10 per unit. The fixed cost of the asset is 50,000. How many units should be produced to breakeven?
A
2000
B
5000
C
8000
D
10000
Question 126Single Answer
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?
A
discharge
B
velocity of gas
C
pressure intensity of gas
D
pressure intensity of liquid
Question 127Single Answer
A gear of 28 cm pitch circle diameter has 40 teeth. The circular pitch will nearly be
A
11 mm/tooth
B
22 mm/tooth
C
33 mm/tooth
D
44 mm/tooth
Question 128Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding gear tooth designing for gear drive :
1. Tooth profiles not designed as per ‘law of gearing’ will cause vibration and impact problems even at low speed.
2. As the gears go through their mesh, the pitch point must remain stationary on the line of centres.
3. In a correctly designed tooth profile, the line of action of successive instantaneous points of contact will pass through the stationary pitch point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 129Single Answer
The flywheel of a steam engine has a radius of gyration of 1 m and mass 2000 kg. The starting torque of the engine is 2000 N-m. The kinetic energy of the flywheel after 10 seconds from start is
A
75 kN-m
B
100 kN-m
C
125 kN-m
D
150 kN-m
Question 130Single Answer
Consider two shafts connected with two gears as per the following options :
1. One on each shaft.
2. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft, and every shaft having one gear only.
3. Through an intermediate gear mounted on an intermediate shaft having two gears, whereas the other shafts have one gear each
Which of the above represent(s) a simple gear train?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?
A
Pascal
B
Poise
C
Stoke
D
Faraday
E
None of the above
Question 132Single Answer
Consider the following processes:
1. Extension of a spring
2. Plastic deformation of a material
3. Magnetization of a material exhibiting hysteresis
Which of the above process are irreversible?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 133Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for a throttling process?
1. It is an adiabatic steady flow process
2. The enthalpy before and after throttling is same
3. In the processes, due to fall in pressure, the fluid velocity at outlet is always more than inlet velocity
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 134Single Answer
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW
Question 135Single Answer
A heat engine receives heat at the rate of 2500 kJ/min and gives an output of 12.4 kW. Its thermal efficiency is, nearly
A
18%
B
23%
C
26%
D
30%
Question 136Single Answer
One reversible heat engine operates between 1000 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine operates between T2K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then the temperature T2 must be equal to
A
582.7 K
B
632.5 K
C
682.8 K
D
732.5 K
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following statements for isothermal process:
1. Change in internal energy is zero
2. Heat transfer is zero
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 138Single Answer
A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a process in which its specific entropy increases from 0.3 kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At the same time, the entropy of the surroundings decreases from 80 kJ/K to 75 kJ/K. The process is:
A
Reversible and isothermal
B
Irreversible
C
Reversible only
D
Isothermal only
Question 139Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct during adiabatic charging of an ideal gas into an empty cylinder from a supply main?
A
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
B
The specific enthalpy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
C
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific enthalpy of the gas in the cylinder
D
The specific internal energy of the gas in the supply main is equal to the specific internal energy of the gas in the cylinder
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following systems :
1. An electric heater
2. A gas turbine
3. A reciprocating compressor
The steady flow energy equation can be applied to which of the above systems?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 141Single Answer
Consider the following conditions for the reversibility of a cycle:
1. The P and T of the working substance must not differ appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any state in the process.
2. All the processes, taking place in the cycle, must be extremely slow.
3. The working parts of the engine must be friction-free.
Which of the following conditions are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 142Single Answer
A Carnot engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the entropy change during heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced by the engine is:
A
100 kJ
B
200 kJ
C
300 kJ
D
400 kJ
Question 143Single Answer
1000 kJ/s of heat is transferred from a constant temperature heat reservoir maintained at 1000 K to a system at a constant temperature of 500 K. The temperature of the surroundings is 300 K. The net loss of available energy as a result of this heat transfer is:
A
450 kJ/s
B
400 kJ/s
C
350 kJ/s
D
300 kJ/s
Question 144Single Answer
The effects of heat transfer from a high temperature body to a low temperature body are:
1. The energy is conserved
2. The entropy is not conserved
3. The availability is not conserved
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following statements pertaining to entropy are correct?
1. The entropy of a system reaches its minimum value when it is in a state of equilibrium with its surroundings
2. Entropy is conserved in all reversible processes
3. Entropy of a substance is least in solid phase
4. Entropy of a solid solution is not zero at absolute zero temperature
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 146Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Gases have a very low critical temperature
2. Gases can be liquefied by isothermal compression
3. In engineering problems, water vapour in atmosphere is treated as an ideal or perfect gas
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 147Single Answer
The property of a thermodynamic system is:
A
A path function
B
A point function
C
A quantity which does not change in reversible process
D
A quantity which changes when system undergoes a cycle
Question 148Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There is no change in temperature when a liquid is being evaporated into vapour.
2. Vapour is a mixed phase of liquid and gas in the zone between saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line.
3. The saturated dry vapour curve is steeper as compared to saturated liquid curve on a T-s diagram.
4. The enthalpy of vaporization decreases with increase in pressure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 149Single Answer
The performance of a single stage reciprocating air compressor is evaluated by its:
A
Isentropic efficiency
B
Isothermal efficiency
C
Adiabatic efficiency
D
Volumetric efficiency
Question 150Single Answer
In a two stage reciprocating air-compressor with a suction pressure of 2 bar and delivery pressure of 8 bar, the ideal intercooler pressure will be:
A
10 bar
B
6 bar
C
4 bar
D
3 bar
Question 151Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 152Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 153Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 155Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 156Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 157Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 158Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 159Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 160Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 161Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 162Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 163Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 164Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 165Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 166Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 167Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 168Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 169Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 170Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 171Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 172Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 173Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 174Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 175Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 176Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 178Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 179Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 180Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 181Single Answer
Aqua ammonia solution used in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is a solution of ammonia in ________ .
A
CF3
B
LiBr
C
H2O2
D
H2O
Question 182Single Answer
Coated electrodes are used in ______ .
A
gas tungsten arc welding
B
submerged arc welding
C
tungsten insert gas welding
D
shielded metal arc welding
Question 183Single Answer
Where is air cycle refrigeration commonly used ?
A
Domestic refrigerator
B
Cold storage
C
Aircraft conditioning
D
Car air conditioning
Question 184Single Answer
________, is not a water tube boiler .
A
Benson boiler
B
Babcock-Wilcox boiler
C
Stirling boiler
D
Scotch marine
Question 185Single Answer
Stoke is another unit of -
A
kinematic viscosityy
B
velocity gradient
C
Shear stress
D
dynamic viscosit
Question 186Single Answer
For a refrigerating machine, capacity is expressed as ______ .
A
the lowest temperature attained
B
inside volume of the cabinet
C
gross weight of the machine
D
rate of heat extraction from the space being cooled
Question 187Single Answer
The value of quality or dryness fraction of a substance in saturated liquid-vapor mixture is ________ .
A
1
B
2
C
Zero
D
between Zero and 1
Question 188Single Answer
Uniform flow is the type of flow where in velocity at any given time ________- with respect to space .
A
Decreases
B
Does not change
C
Increases
D
Changes
Question 189Single Answer
______ falls under the category of a water tube boiler .
A
Locomotive boiler
B
Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
D
LaMont boiler
Question 190Single Answer
Chaplets are used in ________ .
A
forging
B
casting
C
welding
D
extrusion
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure ?
A
Pa
B
Bar
C
N/m²
D
Joule
Question 192Single Answer
What was the first refrigerant used in continuous refrigeration system ?
A
Ammonia
B
Water
C
Air
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 193Single Answer
For a 2 m deep swimming pool, pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the pool is ________ kPa .
A
22
B
19.6
C
11
D
12
Question 194Single Answer
Pressure measurement is done by ____. by measuring heat loss from a heated wire .
A
A pirani gauge
B
a manometer
C
a barometer
D
an orifice meter
Question 195Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, the fluid which enters the boiler is :
A
water
B
steam
C
mercury
D
oxygen
Question 196Single Answer
Percentage elongating measured during tensile testing indicates _____ .
A
malleability
B
fatigue strength
C
creep
D
ductility
Question 197Single Answer
For a given centrifugal pump, discharge varies _______ with speed .
A
fifth power of
B
linearly
C
inversely
D
square root of
Question 198Single Answer
Foaming is a phenomenon that occurs in the boiler feed water due to _____ .
A
nitrogen peroxide
B
manganese
C
sodium chloride
D
oil
Question 199Single Answer
Compounding of a steam turbine is done to ______ .
A
balance the rotor
B
reduce the rotor speed
C
reduce the blade friction
D
connect the shaft
Question 200Single Answer
Any change in entropy could be achieved by changing______ .