Latest DSSSB JSA Biology Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension, Test of English Language & Comprehension, Concerned Subject (Biology)
Question Bank DSSSB Junior Scientific Assistant (Biology) Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 11Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 12Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 13Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 14Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 15Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 16Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 17Single Answer
What is the official name of Delhi?
A
Delhi Capital State
B
Federal Territory of Delhi
C
National Capital Territory of Delhi
D
National Metropolitan Territory
Question 18Single Answer
Delhi is constitutionally classified as which type of territory?
A
Federal State
B
Full State
C
Autonomous Province
D
Union Territory
Question 19Single Answer
Which city serves as the capital of India?
A
New Delhi
B
Kolkata
C
Mumbai
D
Chennai
Question 20Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 31Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 34Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 35Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 38Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 40Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 62Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 63Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 64Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 65Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 66Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 67Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 68Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 69Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 70Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 71Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 72Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 73Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 74Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 75Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 76Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 77Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 78Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 79Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 80Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Test of English Language & Comprehension
Question 81Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 82Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 83Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 84Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 85Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 86Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 87Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 88Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 89Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 90Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Concerned Subject (Biology)
Question 101Single Answer
The classification based mainly on one or a few superficial characters is called:
A
Natural classification
B
Phylogenetic classification
C
Artificial classification
D
Numerical classification
Question 102Single Answer
A natural system of classification considers:
A
Only floral characters
B
A large number of characters
C
Only vegetative characters
D
Only evolutionary history
Question 103Single Answer
Phylogenetic classification is primarily based on:
A
Economic importance
B
Evolutionary relationships
C
Habitat
D
Plant height
Question 104Single Answer
The system of giving a two-word scientific name to an organism is known as:
A
Binomial nomenclature
B
Trinomial nomenclature
C
Polynomial nomenclature
D
Numerical taxonomy
Question 105Single Answer
Binomial nomenclature was popularized by:
A
Aristotle
B
Bentham
C
Carolus Linnaeus
D
Hooker
Question 106Single Answer
In a scientific name, the first word denotes the:
A
Species
B
Genus
C
Family
D
Order
Question 107Single Answer
In *Mangifera indica*, the word *indica* represents the:
A
Genus
B
Specific epithet
C
Family
D
Order
Question 108Single Answer
Scientific names are conventionally printed in:
A
Bold type
B
Capital letters
C
Italics
D
Quotation marks
Question 109Single Answer
When handwritten, the two words of a scientific name should be:
A
Written together
B
Written in capitals
C
Underlined separately
D
Enclosed in brackets
Question 110Single Answer
A herbarium is a collection of:
A
Living animals
B
Preserved plant specimens
C
Fossil plants only
D
Microorganisms
Question 111Single Answer
The major purpose of a herbarium is:
A
Plant respiration studies
B
Taxonomic identification and reference
C
Photosynthesis measurement
D
DNA amplification
Question 112Single Answer
Bentham and Hooker's classification is primarily a:
A
Natural system
B
Artificial system
C
Phylogenetic system
D
Molecular system
Question 113Single Answer
Bentham and Hooker's classification was published in:
A
Species Plantarum
B
Historia Plantarum
C
Origin of Species
D
Genera Plantarum
Question 114Single Answer
Bentham and Hooker divided seed plants mainly into:
A
Dicotyledons, Gymnosperms and Monocotyledons
B
Bryophyta and Pteridophyta
C
Algae and fungi
D
Cryptogams and bacteria
Question 115Single Answer
Biosystematics combines taxonomy with:
A
Only morphology
B
Genetics and evolutionary biology
C
Only physiology
D
Only anatomy
Question 116Single Answer
The basic unit of biological classification is:
A
Genus
B
Species
C
Family
D
Order
Question 117Single Answer
A group of closely related species forms a:
A
Genus
B
Family
C
Order
D
Class
Question 118Single Answer
A group of related genera constitutes a:
A
Species
B
Variety
C
Family
D
Kingdom
Question 119Single Answer
Taxonomy deals with:
A
Respiration only
B
Identification, nomenclature and classification
C
Protein synthesis only
D
Ecological succession only
Question 120Single Answer
A taxon represents:
A
A taxonomic group at any rank
B
Only a species
C
Only a family
D
Only a genus
Question 121Single Answer
A group of cells having a common origin and performing a common function is a:
A
Population
B
Organism
C
Tissue
D
Gene
Question 122Single Answer
Meristematic cells are characterized by:
A
Absence of division
B
Thick secondary walls only
C
Active cell division
D
Dead protoplasm
Question 123Single Answer
Apical meristem is responsible primarily for:
A
Increase in girth
B
Fruit ripening
C
Cork production only
D
Increase in length
Question 124Single Answer
Lateral meristem mainly causes:
A
Primary growth
B
Photosynthesis
C
Seed germination
D
Secondary growth
Question 125Single Answer
Intercalary meristem commonly occurs at:
A
Root cap only
B
Mature xylem
C
Bases of internodes or leaves
D
Cork tissue
Question 126Single Answer
Parenchyma cells are generally:
A
Living and thin-walled
B
Dead at maturity
C
Heavily lignified
D
Without cytoplasm
Question 127Single Answer
Collenchyma primarily provides:
A
Flexible mechanical support
B
Transport of food
C
Water conduction
D
Reproduction
Question 128Single Answer
Sclerenchyma cells are generally:
A
Living and thin-walled
B
Meristematic
C
Dead and lignified at maturity
D
Without cell walls
Question 129Single Answer
Xylem primarily transports:
A
Sugars
B
Hormones only
C
Water and minerals
D
Proteins
Question 130Single Answer
Phloem mainly transports:
A
Organic food materials
B
Water only
C
Oxygen only
D
Nitrogen gas
Question 131Single Answer
The conducting elements of xylem include:
A
Sieve tubes
B
Vessels and tracheids
C
Companion cells only
D
Guard cells
Question 132Single Answer
Sieve tube elements are components of:
A
Xylem
B
Phloem
C
Epidermis
D
Cork
Question 133Single Answer
Companion cells are closely associated with:
A
Vessels
B
Cork cells
C
Tracheids
D
Sieve tube elements
Question 134Single Answer
The epidermis belongs to the:
A
Ground tissue system
B
Vascular tissue system
C
Epidermal tissue system
D
Meristematic tissue system only
Question 135Single Answer
Stomata are mainly involved in:
A
Gas exchange and transpiration
B
Mineral absorption
C
Seed formation
D
Secondary growth
Question 136Single Answer
A typical stoma consists of a pore surrounded by:
A
Vessel elements
B
Tracheids
C
Guard cells
D
Sieve tubes
Question 137Single Answer
The endodermis is characterized by:
A
Casparian strips
B
Stomatal pores
C
Sieve plates
D
Lenticels
Question 138Single Answer
Casparian strips contain mainly:
A
Cellulose only
B
Starch only
C
Suberin
D
Protein only
Question 139Single Answer
In roots, lateral roots usually arise from:
A
Epidermis
B
Root hairs
C
Cortex
D
Pericycle
Question 140Single Answer
Root hairs arise from the:
A
Epidermis
B
Pericycle
C
Pith
D
Xylem
Question 141Single Answer
Vascular bundles in roots are generally:
A
Conjoint
B
Radial
C
Bicollateral
D
Concentric only
Question 142Single Answer
Xylem in roots is generally:
A
Endarch
B
Exarch
C
Mesarch only
D
Absent
Question 143Single Answer
A monocot root usually possesses:
A
Very few xylem bundles
B
No cortex
C
No endodermis
D
Polyarch xylem
Question 144Single Answer
The pith in a typical monocot root is:
A
Always absent
B
Usually large and well developed
C
Extremely small
D
Replaced by cambium
Question 145Single Answer
A typical dicot root generally has:
A
Numerous vascular bundles
B
Relatively few xylem arms
C
Scattered vascular bundles
D
Closed vascular bundles
Question 146Single Answer
Vascular bundles of a typical dicot stem are arranged:
A
Randomly
B
Only at the centre
C
In a ring
D
Only in cortex
Question 147Single Answer
Vascular bundles in a typical monocot stem are:
A
Arranged in a ring
B
Scattered in ground tissue
C
Restricted to pith
D
Completely absent
Question 148Single Answer
Vascular bundles of a monocot stem are generally:
A
Open
B
Radial
C
Closed
D
Exarch
Question 149Single Answer
A vascular bundle is called open when it contains:
A
Epidermis
B
Cork
C
Root hairs
D
Cambium
Question 150Single Answer
In a dicot stem, xylem is generally:
A
Endarch
B
Exarch
C
Absent
D
Polyarch
Question 151Single Answer
Hypodermis in many dicot stems is composed mainly of:
A
Cork
B
Xylem
C
Phloem
D
Collenchyma
Question 152Single Answer
Hypodermis of a typical monocot stem is commonly:
A
Sclerenchymatous
B
Collenchymatous
C
Meristematic
D
Chlorenchymatous only
Question 153Single Answer
A dorsiventral leaf is typical of:
A
Gymnosperm stems only
B
Most roots
C
Many dicots
D
Fungal hyphae
Question 154Single Answer
Palisade parenchyma is generally located below the:
A
Upper epidermis
B
Lower epidermis
C
Endodermis
D
Pericycle
Question 155Single Answer
Spongy mesophyll is characterized by:
A
Absence of intercellular spaces
B
Large intercellular spaces
C
Lignified walls only
D
Absence of chloroplasts in every cell
Question 156Single Answer
The principal photosynthetic pigment of higher plants is:
A
Anthocyanin
B
Chlorophyll a
C
Carotene only
D
Xanthophyll only
Question 157Single Answer
Photosynthesis in eukaryotic plant cells occurs mainly in:
A
Mitochondria
B
Ribosomes
C
Lysosomes
D
Chloroplasts
Question 158Single Answer
Light reactions of photosynthesis occur primarily on:
A
Chloroplast envelope
B
Nucleus
C
Thylakoid membranes
D
Cell wall
Question 159Single Answer
The Calvin cycle occurs in the:
A
Thylakoid lumen
B
Mitochondrial matrix
C
Chloroplast stroma
D
Cytosol only
Question 160Single Answer
The ultimate source of electrons during oxygenic photosynthesis is:
A
Carbon dioxide
B
Glucose
C
Water
D
NADPH
Question 161Single Answer
Oxygen released during photosynthesis originates from:
A
CO₂
B
Chlorophyll
C
Glucose
D
H₂O
Question 162Single Answer
Photolysis of water is associated mainly with:
A
Photosystem II
B
Photosystem I
C
Calvin cycle
D
Glycolysis
Question 163Single Answer
The reaction centre of Photosystem II is known as:
A
P700
B
P680
C
P450
D
P600
Question 164Single Answer
The reaction centre of Photosystem I is:
A
P700
B
P680
C
P450
D
P900
Question 165Single Answer
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation produces:
A
ATP only
B
NADH only
C
ATP, NADPH and O₂
D
Glucose directly
Question 166Single Answer
Cyclic photophosphorylation primarily produces:
A
ATP
B
NADPH and O₂
C
Glucose only
D
Pyruvate
Question 167Single Answer
NADP⁺ is reduced to NADPH mainly during:
A
Glycolysis
B
Light reactions
C
Fermentation
D
Krebs cycle
Question 168Single Answer
ATP formation driven by light energy is called:
A
Substrate-level phosphorylation
B
Photophosphorylation
C
Oxidative deamination
D
Transamination
Question 169Single Answer
The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₃ plants is:
A
RuBP
B
PEP
C
Pyruvate
D
Oxaloacetate
Question 170Single Answer
The enzyme responsible for fixation of CO₂ in the Calvin cycle is:
A
Rubisco
B
Hexokinase
C
Pepsin
D
Catalase
Question 171Single Answer
The first stable product of C₃ photosynthesis is:
A
Oxaloacetate
B
PEP
C
Malate
D
3-phosphoglycerate
Question 172Single Answer
The first stable product of C₄ carbon fixation is generally:
A
3-phosphoglycerate
B
Acetyl-CoA
C
RuBP
D
Oxaloacetate
Question 173Single Answer
The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is:
A
RuBP
B
Glycine
C
Glucose
D
PEP
Question 174Single Answer
PEP carboxylase is important in:
A
Glycolysis only
B
C₄ pathway
C
Protein translation
D
DNA replication
Question 175Single Answer
Kranz anatomy is characteristic of many:
A
C₃ plants
B
Fungi
C
C₄ plants
D
Bryophytes only
Question 176Single Answer
Photorespiration is promoted when Rubisco acts as a/an: