Latest DSSSB Laboratory Technician Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension, Test of English Language & Comprehension, Laboratory Technician
Question Bank DSSSB Laboratory Technician Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 9Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 10Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 11Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 12Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 13Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 14Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 15Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 16Single Answer
Which day is observed on 1 October every year as declared by the United Nations?
A
World Teachers’ Day
B
International Day of Non-Violence
C
World Food Day
D
International Day of Older Persons
Question 17Single Answer
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) completed 100 years of its establishment on which date in 2026?
A
26 January 2026
B
1 October 2026
C
15 August 2026
D
26 November 2026
Question 18Single Answer
The Union Cabinet raised the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of wheat for the 2027-28 Rabi season by how much?
A
₹25 per quintal
B
₹15 per quintal
C
₹50 per quintal
D
₹75 per quintal
Question 19Single Answer
The Cabinet approved an Intelligent Traffic Management System (ITMS) for Delhi at an approximate cost of:
A
₹790 crore
B
₹2,790 crore
C
₹1,790 crore
D
₹3,790 crore
Question 20Single Answer
Which initiative was launched under Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban 2.0 to develop 50 model cities?
A
PRAGATI-50
B
Smart City Mission
C
AMRUT 2.0
D
Clean India Mission
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Important Questions Package
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 62Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 63Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 64Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 65Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 66Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 67Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 68Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 69Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 70Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 71Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 72Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 73Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 74Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 75Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 76Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 77Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 78Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 79Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 80Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Test of English Language & Comprehension
Question 81Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 82Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 83Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 84Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 85Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 86Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 87Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 88Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 89Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 90Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
Laboratory Technician
Question 101Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of Sabouraud Dextrose Agar in mycology?
A
To inhibit fungal growth
B
To culture bacteria
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To promote fungal growth
Question 102Single Answer
Which stain is commonly used to visualize fungal elements in a wet mount?
A
Gram stain
B
KOH (Potassium Hydroxide)
C
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
D
Hematoxylin-Eosin
Question 103Single Answer
What type of specimen is most commonly used for diagnosing dermatophyte infections?
A
Blood
B
Skin scrapings
C
Urine
D
Stool
Question 104Single Answer
Which fungus is typically associated with thrush in immunocompromised patients?
A
Candida albicans
B
Aspergillus fumigatus
C
Cryptococcus neoformans
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 105Single Answer
What is the role of Calcofluor White in mycology?
A
It inhibits fungal growth
B
It measures antifungal susceptibility
C
It differentiates bacterial species
D
It enhances fungal fluorescence under UV light
Question 106Single Answer
Which medium is preferred for culturing dimorphic fungi?
A
Blood agar
B
Brain Heart Infusion agar
C
Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
D
MacConkey agar
Question 107Single Answer
What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a mycology lab?
A
To prevent contamination and protect the technician
B
To store fungal cultures
C
To incubate fungal cultures
D
To perform DNA extraction
Question 108Single Answer
Which test is used to identify Cryptococcus neoformans in cerebrospinal fluid?
A
Urease test
B
India ink preparation
C
Carbohydrate assimilation test
D
KOH mount
Question 109Single Answer
What is the typical incubation temperature for fungal cultures?
A
4°C
B
45°C
C
37°C
D
25–30°C
Question 110Single Answer
Which fungal structure is primarily observed during microscopic examination?
A
Nucleus
B
Hyphae
C
Mitochondria
D
Cell membrane
Question 111Single Answer
What is the primary goal of antifungal susceptibility testing?
A
To identify fungal species
B
To determine effective antifungal drugs
C
To culture bacteria
D
To stain fungal elements
Question 112Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly associated with pulmonary infections in immunocompromised patients?
A
Trichophyton rubrum
B
Microsporum canis
C
Candida tropicalis
D
Aspergillus fumigatus
Question 113Single Answer
What is the purpose of the urease test in mycology?
A
To detect bacterial contamination
B
To measure fungal growth rate
C
To differentiate fungal species
D
To stain fungal spores
Question 114Single Answer
Which sample is least likely to be used for mycological analysis?
A
Nail clippings
B
Saliva
C
Blood
D
Sputum
Question 115Single Answer
What is the function of potato dextrose agar in mycology?
A
To promote sporulation in fungi
B
To inhibit fungal growth
C
To culture viruses
D
To perform biochemical tests
Question 116Single Answer
Which biosafety level is typically required for handling pathogenic fungi like Histoplasma?
A
BSL-1
B
BSL-2
C
BSL-3
D
BSL-4
Question 117Single Answer
What is the primary source of contamination in fungal cultures?
A
Environmental molds
B
Bacterial spores
C
Viral particles
D
Chemical residues
Question 118Single Answer
Which fungal species is commonly identified using a germ tube test?
A
Aspergillus niger
B
Fusarium solani
C
Rhizopus oryzae
D
Candida albicans
Question 119Single Answer
What is the purpose of a wet mount in mycology?
A
To culture fungi
B
To perform DNA sequencing
C
To observe fungal structures microscopically
D
To measure antifungal resistance
Question 120Single Answer
Which antifungal drug is commonly tested in susceptibility assays?
A
Penicillin
B
Streptomycin
C
Tetracycline
D
Fluconazole
Question 121Single Answer
What is the role of a laboratory information system (LIS) in mycology?
A
To document procedures and results
B
To culture fungi
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To calibrate microscopes
Question 122Single Answer
Which fungal infection is commonly diagnosed using skin scrapings?
A
Cryptococcosis
B
Aspergillosis
C
Tinea corporis
D
Histoplasmosis
Question 123Single Answer
What is the primary use of chloramphenicol in fungal culture media?
A
To promote fungal growth
B
To enhance staining
C
To inhibit bacterial growth
D
To increase sporulation
Question 124Single Answer
Which technique is used for definitive fungal identification?
A
Gram staining
B
Blood culture
C
PCR and sequencing
D
Wet mount
Question 125Single Answer
What is the typical appearance of Aspergillus colonies on culture media?
A
Velvety with powdery spores
B
Smooth and creamy
C
Waxy and translucent
D
Shiny and moist
Question 126Single Answer
Which specimen is used to diagnose fungal meningitis?
A
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B
Blood
C
Urine
D
Stool
Question 127Single Answer
What is the purpose of cycloheximide in fungal culture media?
A
To inhibit saprophytic fungi
B
To promote yeast growth
C
To enhance bacterial growth
D
To stain fungal elements
Question 128Single Answer
Which fungal structure is observed in a KOH preparation of dermatophytes?
A
Budding yeast
B
Septate hyphae
C
Capsule
D
Endospores
Question 129Single Answer
What is the primary function of an incubator in a mycology lab?
A
To maintain optimal temperature for fungal growth
B
To sterilize media
C
To perform DNA extraction
D
To store specimens
Question 130Single Answer
Which fungus is associated with a "spaghetti and meatball" appearance in KOH preparations?
A
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
B
Aspergillus flavus
C
Candida glabrata
D
Malassezia furfur
Question 131Single Answer
What is the purpose of quality control in a mycology lab?
A
To ensure accurate and reliable test results
B
To culture bacteria
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To calibrate microscopes
Question 132Single Answer
Which test differentiates Candida species from other yeasts?
A
Urease test
B
Germ tube test
C
India ink preparation
D
KOH mount
Question 133Single Answer
What is the typical growth time for most fungal cultures?
A
24 hours
B
1–4 weeks
C
48–72 hours
D
6–8 weeks
Question 134Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly associated with bird droppings?
A
Cryptococcus neoformans
B
Candida albicans
C
Aspergillus niger
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 135Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a tease mount in mycology?
A
To culture fungi
B
To measure antifungal susceptibility
C
To perform biochemical tests
D
To observe fungal morphology
Question 136Single Answer
Which antifungal is commonly used to treat Candida infections?
A
Amphotericin B
B
Penicillin
C
Ciprofloxacin
D
Azithromycin
Question 137Single Answer
What is the role of a laminar flow hood in a mycology lab?
A
To store fungal cultures
B
To perform DNA sequencing
C
To incubate fungal cultures
D
To provide a sterile working environment
Question 138Single Answer
Which fungal infection is commonly diagnosed using sputum samples?
A
Tinea pedis
B
Aspergillosis
C
Candidiasis
D
Sporotrichosis
Question 139Single Answer
What is the primary advantage of using molecular methods in fungal identification?
A
Faster culture growth
B
Lower cost than microscopy
C
High specificity and accuracy
D
Simpler sample preparation
Question 140Single Answer
Which fungal species is associated with rose gardener’s disease?
A
Aspergillus fumigatus
B
Candida albicans
C
Sporothrix schenckii
D
Cryptococcus gattii
Question 141Single Answer
What is the purpose of carbohydrate assimilation tests in mycology?
A
To identify yeast species
B
To stain fungal elements
C
To culture molds
D
To measure antifungal resistance
Question 142Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its "spider web" colony morphology?
A
Fusarium solani
B
Aspergillus niger
C
Rhizopus oryzae
D
Penicillium marneffei
Question 143Single Answer
What is the primary biosafety concern when handling fungal cultures?
A
Aerosolized spores
B
Chemical spills
C
Electrical hazards
D
Radiation exposure
Question 144Single Answer
Which stain is used to detect Pneumocystis jirovecii in respiratory specimens?
A
KOH
B
Giemsa stain
C
Gram stain
D
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Question 145Single Answer
What is the purpose of a negative control in antifungal susceptibility testing?
A
To ensure test reliability
B
To promote fungal growth
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To culture bacteria
Question 146Single Answer
Which fungal infection is associated with "black mold"?
A
Aspergillosis
B
Candidiasis
C
Mucormycosis
D
Histoplasmosis
Question 147Single Answer
What is the primary use of lactophenol cotton blue in mycology?
A
To culture fungi
B
To stain fungal structures for microscopy
C
To inhibit bacterial growth
D
To perform DNA extraction
Question 148Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly associated with systemic infections in AIDS patients?
A
Trichophyton rubrum
B
Microsporum canis
C
Aspergillus flavus
D
Histoplasma capsulatum
Question 149Single Answer
What is the purpose of a positive control in mycology quality control?
A
To inhibit fungal growth
B
To verify test accuracy
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To culture bacteria
Question 150Single Answer
Which fungal structure is characteristic of dermatophytes?
A
Arthroconidia
B
Budding yeast
C
Capsule
D
Endospores
Question 151Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s autoclave?
A
To culture fungi
B
To stain fungal elements
C
To perform DNA sequencing
D
To sterilize contaminated materials
Question 152Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “cotton candy” colony appearance?
A
Rhizopus oryzae
B
Aspergillus fumigatus
C
Candida albicans
D
Fusarium solani
Question 153Single Answer
What is the role of a microscope in a mycology lab?
A
To culture fungi
B
To observe fungal structures
C
To perform biochemical tests
D
To measure antifungal susceptibility
Question 154Single Answer
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using bronchoalveolar lavage?
A
Tinea versicolor
B
Sporotrichosis
C
Tinea capitis
D
Pneumocystis pneumonia
Question 155Single Answer
What is the purpose of a fungal culture slant?
A
To stain fungal elements
B
To store fungal isolates
C
To perform DNA extraction
D
To measure antifungal resistance
Question 156Single Answer
Which antifungal drug is commonly used for systemic mycoses?
A
Amphotericin B
B
Penicillin
C
Ciprofloxacin
D
Metronidazole
Question 157Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a fungal identification key?
A
To culture fungi
B
To classify fungi based on characteristics
C
To perform biochemical tests
D
To stain fungal specimens
Question 158Single Answer
Which fungus is associated with “white piedra”?
A
Trichosporon spp.
B
Candida albicans
C
Aspergillus niger
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 159Single Answer
What is the role of a centrifuge in a mycology lab?
A
To culture fungi
B
To concentrate specimens for analysis
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To perform DNA sequencing
Question 160Single Answer
Which fungal infection is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus?
A
Aspergillosis
B
Tinea pedis
C
Mucormycosis
D
Cryptococcosis
Question 161Single Answer
What is the purpose of a fungal spore count?
A
To identify fungal species
B
To culture bacteria
C
To assess environmental contamination
D
To stain fungal elements
Question 162Single Answer
Which fungus is identified by its “green powdery” colony?
A
Rhizopus oryzae
B
Candida albicans
C
Aspergillus fumigatus
D
Trichophyton rubrum
Question 163Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s biosafety protocols?
A
To protect technicians from infection
B
To promote fungal growth
C
To culture bacteria
D
To stain fungal specimens
Question 164Single Answer
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Candida albicans?
A
Arthroconidia
B
Pseudohyphae
C
Capsule
D
Endospores
Question 165Single Answer
What is the role of a spectrophotometer in a mycology lab?
A
To culture fungi
B
To measure optical density in susceptibility testing
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To perform microscopic examination
Question 166Single Answer
Which fungal infection is associated with “ringworm”?
A
Candidiasis
B
Aspergillosis
C
Tinea corporis
D
Histoplasmosis
Question 167Single Answer
What is the purpose of a fungal culture plate?
A
To store fungal isolates
B
To perform DNA extraction
C
To grow and isolate fungi
D
To stain fungal elements
Question 168Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “black spores”?
A
Candida albicans
B
Aspergillus niger
C
Rhizopus oryzae
D
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Question 169Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s quality assurance program?
A
To ensure accurate test results
B
To culture fungi
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To perform DNA sequencing
Question 170Single Answer
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using blood cultures?
A
Tinea pedis
B
Tinea capitis
C
Candidemia
D
Sporotrichosis
Question 171Single Answer
What is the role of a fungal identification database?
A
To culture fungi
B
To perform biochemical tests
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To compare fungal characteristics for identification
Question 172Single Answer
Which fungus is associated with “valley fever”?
A
Aspergillus fumigatus
B
Candida albicans
C
Coccidioides immitis
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 173Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s waste disposal system?
A
To safely dispose of biohazardous materials
B
To culture fungi
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To perform DNA extraction
Question 174Single Answer
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Rhizopus species?
A
Septate hyphae
B
Budding yeast
C
Non-septate hyphae
D
Capsule
Question 175Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s calibration standards?
A
To culture fungi
B
To stain fungal specimens
C
To ensure equipment accuracy
D
To perform biochemical tests
Question 176Single Answer
Which fungal infection is commonly associated with soil exposure?
A
Sporotrichosis
B
Tinea versicolor
C
Candidiasis
D
Aspergillosis
Question 177Single Answer
What is the role of a fungal culture tube?
A
To measure antifungal resistance
B
To stain fungal elements
C
To perform DNA sequencing
D
To store fungal isolates
Question 178Single Answer
Which fungus is identified by its “red pigment” in culture?
A
Aspergillus niger
B
Candida albicans
C
Trichophyton rubrum
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 179Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s standard operating procedures (SOPs)?
A
To culture fungi
B
To perform DNA extraction
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To standardize laboratory practices
Question 180Single Answer
Which fungal infection is associated with “pityriasis versicolor”?
A
Candida albicans
B
Aspergillus fumigatus
C
Malassezia furfur
D
Cryptococcus neoformans
Question 181Single Answer
What is the role of a mycology lab’s quality control strains?
A
To culture bacteria
B
To verify test performance
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To perform DNA sequencing
Question 182Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “budding yeast” morphology?
A
Candida albicans
B
Aspergillus fumigatus
C
Rhizopus oryzae
D
Trichophyton rubrum
Question 183Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s documentation system?
A
To culture fungi
B
To record procedures and results
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To perform biochemical tests
Question 184Single Answer
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using nail clippings?
A
Aspergillosis
B
Histoplasmosis
C
Candidiasis
D
Onychomycosis
Question 185Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a mycology lab’s biosafety training?
A
To culture fungi
B
To stain fungal elements
C
To ensure technician safety
D
To perform DNA sequencing
Question 186Single Answer
Which fungus is associated with “blastomycosis”?
A
Candida albicans
B
Blastomyces dermatitidis
C
Aspergillus fumigatus
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 187Single Answer
What is the role of a mycology lab’s incubator temperature controls?
A
To stain fungal elements
B
To maintain optimal growth conditions
C
To perform DNA extraction
D
To culture bacteria
Question 188Single Answer
Which fungal structure is characteristic of Aspergillus species?
A
Non-septate hyphae
B
Budding yeast
C
Septate hyphae
D
Capsule
Question 189Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s contamination controls?
A
To culture fungi
B
To perform DNA sequencing
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To prevent false test results
Question 190Single Answer
Which fungal infection is associated with “oral thrush”?
A
Aspergillosis
B
Tinea capitis
C
Candidiasis
D
Sporotrichosis
Question 191Single Answer
What is the role of a mycology lab’s staining reagents?
A
To culture fungi
B
To measure antifungal resistance
C
To perform biochemical tests
D
To enhance visualization of fungal structures
Question 192Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “capsule” in India ink preparations?
A
Aspergillus fumigatus
B
Candida albicans
C
Cryptococcus neoformans
D
Trichophyton rubrum
Question 193Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s sample accessioning system?
A
To culture fungi
B
To perform DNA sequencing
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To track and label specimens
Question 194Single Answer
Which fungal infection is associated with “athlete’s foot”?
A
Candidiasis
B
Aspergillosis
C
Tinea pedis
D
Histoplasmosis
Question 195Single Answer
What is the role of a mycology lab’s automated identification systems?
A
To culture fungi
B
To identify fungal species rapidly
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To perform biochemical tests
Question 196Single Answer
Which fungus is associated with “paracoccidioidomycosis”?
A
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
B
Candida albicans
C
Aspergillus fumigatus
D
Rhizopus oryzae
Question 197Single Answer
What is the purpose of a mycology lab’s sample preparation protocols?
A
To culture bacteria
B
To ensure accurate analysis
C
To stain fungal elements
D
To perform DNA extraction
Question 198Single Answer
Which fungal infection is diagnosed using hair samples?
A
Tinea capitis
B
Aspergillosis
C
Candidiasis
D
Sporotrichosis
Question 199Single Answer
What is the role of a mycology lab’s maintenance schedule?
A
To culture fungi
B
To ensure equipment functionality
C
To stain fungal specimens
D
To perform biochemical tests
Question 200Single Answer
Which fungus is commonly identified by its “powdery white” colony?