Latest DSSSB Malaria Inspector Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension, Test of English Language & Comprehension, Malaria Inspector
Question Bank DSSSB Malaria Inspector Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 8Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 9Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 10Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 12Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 13Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 14Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 15Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 16Single Answer
Which country surpassed Japan to become the world's largest creditor nation after 34 years?
A
China
B
Germany
C
United States
D
Switzerland
Question 17Single Answer
The Perito Moreno Glacier, recently in the news, is located in which country?
A
Chile
B
Argentina
C
Peru
D
Ecuador
Question 18Single Answer
Which state in India mandated weekly ethics classes based on Thirukkural for students from Classes VI to XII?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Karnataka
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 19Single Answer
Who became the first New Zealander to reach space after flying on the Blue Origin NS-32 suborbital spaceflight?
A
Peter Beck
B
Mark Rocket
C
Richard Pearse
D
William Pickering
Question 20Single Answer
Which Indian state celebrated the annual School Praveshanolsavam on June 2, 2025?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
Maharashtra
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 31Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 32Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 33Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 34Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 36Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 37Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 38Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 40Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 62Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 63Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 64Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 65Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 66Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 67Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 68Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 69Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 70Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 71Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 72Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 73Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 74Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 75Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 76Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 77Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 78Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 79Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 80Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Test of English Language & Comprehension
Question 81Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 82Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 83Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 84Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 85Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 86Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 87Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 88Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 89Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 90Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 91Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 92Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 93Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 94Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 95Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Malaria Inspector
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is considered the most essential macronutrient for energy production in the body?
A
Proteins
B
Fats
C
Carbohydrates
D
Vitamins
Question 102Single Answer
Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the human body?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin B12
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin D
Question 103Single Answer
Which nutrient is necessary for muscle repair and growth?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Vitamins
Question 104Single Answer
What is the primary source of dietary fiber?
A
Meat
B
Fish
C
Whole grains and vegetables
D
Dairy products
Question 105Single Answer
Which mineral is critical for the production of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
A
Calcium
B
Iron
C
Magnesium
D
Potassium
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin C
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin E
Question 107Single Answer
Excessive intake of which type of fat is linked to increased risk of cardiovascular disease?
A
Saturated fats
B
Unsaturated fats
C
Polyunsaturated fats
D
Omega-3 fatty acids
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following nutrients acts as a coenzyme in energy metabolism?
A
Vitamin B-complex
B
Vitamin K
C
Vitamin D
D
Zinc
Question 109Single Answer
Which type of carbohydrate is rapidly absorbed and spikes blood sugar levels?
A
Complex carbohydrates
B
Simple carbohydrates
C
Dietary fiber
D
Starch
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following foods is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids?
A
Red meat
B
Salmon
C
Eggs
D
White bread
Question 111Single Answer
What is the main function of dietary fiber?
A
Energy production
B
Muscle growth
C
Aiding digestion and preventing constipation
D
Hormone regulation
Question 112Single Answer
Which vitamin is known for its role in blood clotting?
A
Vitamin C
B
Vitamin K
C
Vitamin A
D
Vitamin D
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following macronutrients has the highest caloric content per gram?
A
Carbohydrates
B
Proteins
C
Fats
D
Vitamins
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a function of water in the body?
A
Regulating body temperature
B
Aiding in digestion
C
Providing energy
D
Transporting nutrients
Question 115Single Answer
Which mineral is important for the functioning of the thyroid gland?
A
Sodium
B
Iodine
C
Iron
D
Calcium
Question 116Single Answer
Which of the following nutrients is most important for strong bones and teeth?
A
Magnesium
B
Phosphorus
C
Calcium
D
Sodium
Question 117Single Answer
What is the role of antioxidants in the body?
A
Providing energy
B
Fighting free radicals and preventing cell damage
C
Helping blood clot
D
Regulating blood sugar
Question 118Single Answer
Which vitamin deficiency can lead to scurvy?
A
Vitamin A
B
Vitamin C
C
Vitamin D
D
Vitamin E
Question 119Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a complete protein source?
A
Chicken
B
Eggs
C
Soy
D
Wheat
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following is a macronutrient?
A
Iron
B
Water
C
Fat
D
Vitamin C
Question 121Single Answer
Which vitamin helps in the absorption of iron?
A
Vitamin B12
B
Vitamin D
C
Vitamin C
D
Vitamin A
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of trans fats?
A
They increase LDL cholesterol
B
They decrease HDL cholesterol
C
They are naturally present in fruits
D
They are commonly found in processed foods
Question 123Single Answer
Which of the following is considered a macronutrient?
A
Vitamin C
B
Iron
C
Carbohydrate
D
Zinc
Question 124Single Answer
What is the primary role of proteins in the body?
A
Provide energy
B
Support immune function
C
Build and repair tissues
D
Store nutrients
Question 125Single Answer
Which type of fat is considered unhealthy?
A
Monounsaturated fats
B
Polyunsaturated fats
C
Saturated fats
D
Omega-3 fatty acids
Question 126Single Answer
What is the primary goal of environmental sanitation?
A
To beautify public spaces
B
To prevent disease and promote health
C
To increase property values
D
To support industrial growth
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following is a key principle of environmental sanitation?
A
Waste generation
B
Pollution control
C
Minimizing human interaction with nature
D
Urban development
Question 128Single Answer
What is the role of sanitation in public health?
A
To manage aesthetic aspects of cities
B
To reduce disease transmission
C
To support recreational activities
D
To increase tourism
Question 129Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of point source pollution?
A
Runoff from agricultural fields
B
Sewage discharge from a wastewater treatment plant
C
Litter on streets
D
Air pollution from vehicles
Question 130Single Answer
What is a common method for managing solid waste in urban areas?
A
Open dumping
B
Incineration
C
Burying in landfills
D
All of the above
Question 131Single Answer
Which practice is essential for maintaining clean water supplies?
A
Allowing free access to pollution sources
B
Regular monitoring and testing of water quality
C
Disregarding local regulations
D
Ignoring community involvement
Question 132Single Answer
What does the term "vector control" refer to?
A
Eliminating aesthetic nuisances
B
Managing organisms that transmit diseases
C
Increasing the population of beneficial insects
D
Promoting biodiversity
Question 133Single Answer
Which environmental factor is often linked to respiratory diseases?
A
Excessive sunlight
B
Poor air quality
C
High humidity
D
Low temperatures
Question 134Single Answer
What is the primary method for managing wastewater?
A
Discharging it directly into rivers
B
Treating it in wastewater treatment plants
C
Dumping it in landfills
D
Ignoring it
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is a major goal of proper waste management?
A
To increase waste generation
B
To reduce environmental pollution
C
To ignore community health
D
To enhance urban sprawl
Question 136Single Answer
What is a primary source of water pollution?
A
Stormwater runoff
B
Wildlife habitats
C
Pristine forests
D
Clean air
Question 137Single Answer
Which principle emphasizes the need for community involvement in sanitation practices?
A
Top-down management
B
Community engagement
C
Exclusion of local knowledge
D
Market-driven solutions
Question 138Single Answer
What is the purpose of health education in environmental sanitation?
A
To promote unhealthy behaviors
B
To inform the community about sanitation practices
C
To discourage public involvement
D
To limit access to information
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following is a sustainable practice in environmental sanitation?
A
Incineration without emission controls
B
Recycling and composting
C
Open burning of waste
D
Landfilling without monitoring
Question 140Single Answer
What is the role of legislation in environmental sanitation?
A
To impose restrictions on community actions
B
To provide guidelines for safe practices
C
To ignore environmental issues
D
To support harmful practices
Question 141Single Answer
Which sanitation practice helps prevent the spread of infectious diseases?
A
Open defecation
B
Access to clean toilets
C
Ignoring hygiene
D
Using contaminated water
Question 142Single Answer
What does "sustainable sanitation" aim to achieve?
A
Short-term fixes
B
Long-term health and environmental benefits
C
Increased waste generation
D
Immediate economic gains
Question 143Single Answer
What is the significance of environmental impact assessments (EIAs)?
A
To ignore potential environmental risks
B
To evaluate the potential effects of projects on the environment
C
To promote unnecessary development
D
To limit community participation
Question 144Single Answer
Which method is commonly used to manage hazardous waste?
A
Landfilling
B
Incineration with controlled emissions
C
Open dumping
D
Burying in the backyard
Question 145Single Answer
What is a key benefit of community clean-up programs?
A
They discourage participation
B
They promote a sense of ownership and pride
C
They increase waste generation
D
They lead to more pollution
Question 146Single Answer
Which aspect of environmental sanitation involves managing natural resources wisely?
A
Resource exploitation
B
Sustainable resource management
C
Ignoring conservation
D
Overuse of chemicals
Question 147Single Answer
What is the primary focus of environmental health professionals?
A
To promote industrial growth
B
To protect public health through sanitation and environmental practices
C
To enhance personal wealth
D
To limit community development
Question 148Single Answer
What is the primary goal of solid waste management?
A
To minimize waste generation
B
To promote littering
C
To maximize landfill use
D
To increase waste collection fees
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following is the first step in effective solid waste management?
A
Disposal
B
Collection
C
Segregation
D
Recycling
Question 150Single Answer
What is meant by the term "solid waste"?
A
Liquid waste
B
Any non-liquid waste material
C
Gas emissions
D
Hazardous chemicals
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease?
A
Diabetes
B
Malaria
C
Hypertension
D
Osteoporosis
Question 152Single Answer
Non-communicable diseases (NCDs) are mainly caused by which of the following?
A
Pathogens
B
Lifestyle factors and genetics
C
Direct contact with infected individuals
D
Poor sanitation
Question 153Single Answer
Which of the following diseases is transmitted through vectors like mosquitoes?
A
Tuberculosis
B
Diabetes
C
Dengue fever
D
Heart disease
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for communicable diseases?
A
Airborne transmission
B
Waterborne transmission
C
Genetic inheritance
D
Direct contact with infected persons
Question 155Single Answer
Which vaccine is recommended for preventing seasonal influenza?
A
OPV
B
DPT vaccine
C
Flu vaccine
D
MMR vaccine
Question 156Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of non-communicable diseases?
A
Viruses
B
Bacteria
C
Lifestyle factors such as poor diet and physical inactivity
D
Parasites
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following vaccines is NOT typically part of routine immunization schedules in most countries?
A
Hepatitis B
B
MMR
C
Rabies
D
Polio
Question 158Single Answer
Which of the following is a characteristic of communicable diseases?
A
They cannot be transmitted between individuals
B
They are caused by infectious agents like bacteria and viruses
C
They develop slowly over time
D
They are only genetic in origin
Question 159Single Answer
Which of the following vaccines is essential for preventing diphtheria?
A
MMR vaccine
B
DPT vaccine
C
HPV vaccine
D
Hepatitis B vaccine
Question 160Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of the WHO's Immunization Agenda 2030?
A
Eliminate all communicable diseases
B
Achieve worldwide immunity against at least 10 diseases
C
Increase global vaccine equity and access
D
Introduce vaccines for non-communicable diseases
Question 161Single Answer
Which disease is classified as a non-communicable disease?
A
Tuberculosis
B
Cardiovascular disease
C
Influenza
D
Hepatitis B
Question 162Single Answer
Which vaccine is recommended to prevent severe diarrheal diseases in children caused by rotavirus?
A
Hepatitis A vaccine
B
Rotavirus vaccine
C
Varicella vaccine
D
PV vaccine
Question 163Single Answer
Which of the following is a vector-borne communicable disease?
A
Hypertension
B
Dengue
C
Arthritis
D
Stroke
Question 164Single Answer
What is the major contributing factor to the rise of non-communicable diseases globally?
A
Overpopulation
B
Sedentary lifestyle and unhealthy diets
C
Increased sanitation
D
Improved healthcare
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following is considered a non-communicable disease (NCD)?
A
Malaria
B
Diabetes
C
Tuberculosis
D
Measles
Question 166Single Answer
HIV/AIDS is an example of which type of disease?
A
Non-communicable disease
B
Hereditary disease
C
Communicable disease
D
Nutritional deficiency disease
Question 167Single Answer
Which of the following is the leading risk factor for cardiovascular diseases?
A
Smoking
B
Bacterial infections
C
Parasites
D
Vaccinations
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following lifestyle factors increases the risk of type 2 diabetes?
A
High physical activity
B
Healthy diet
C
Sedentary lifestyle
D
Vaccination
Question 169Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT typically a feature of non-communicable diseases?
A
Long duration
B
Slow progression
C
Caused by pathogens
D
Largely preventable
Question 170Single Answer
Which of the following is a common sign of cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
A
High feve
B
Chest pain or discomfort
C
Severe cough
D
Weight gain
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following is a common non-modifiable risk factor for non-communicable diseases?
A
Smoking
B
High blood pressure
C
Age
D
Physical inactivity
Question 172Single Answer
Which disease can be transmitted via contaminated water?
A
Cholera
B
Asthma
C
Cancer
D
Hypertension
Question 173Single Answer
Which type of cancer is primarily associated with smoking?
A
Skin cancer
B
Breast cancer
C
Lung cancer
D
Bone cancer
Question 174Single Answer
What is the most effective way to prevent type 2 diabetes?
A
Taking insulin injections
B
Increasing physical activity and maintaining a healthy weight
C
Avoiding sunlight
D
Using antibiotics
Question 175Single Answer
Which of the following is a primary method to prevent the spread of communicable diseases?
A
Regular physical exercise
B
Vaccination
C
Reducing sugar intake
D
Avoiding processed foods
Question 176Single Answer
What is the main objective of statistics in health research?
A
To collect data without analysis
B
To summarize, analyze, and interpret data for decision-making
C
To conduct medical procedures
D
To avoid using any data
Question 177Single Answer
What is the term for a summary measure that describes the characteristics of a sample?
A
Population
B
Statistic
C
Parameter
D
Variable
Question 178Single Answer
Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?
A
Range
B
Variance
C
Mean
D
Standard deviation
Question 179Single Answer
Which measure of central tendency is the value that occurs most frequently in a data set?
A
Median
B
Mode
C
Mean
D
Range
Question 180Single Answer
Which of the following is a measure of variability in a data set?
A
Median
B
Mode
C
Variance
D
Mean
Question 181Single Answer
What is the term for a numerical description of a characteristic of a population?
A
Parameter
B
Statistic
C
Sample
D
Data set
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following is the middle value in an ordered data set?
A
Mode
B
Mean
C
Range
D
Median
Question 183Single Answer
The spread of data around the mean is best measured by which of the following?
A
Mode
B
Standard deviation
C
Median
D
Proportion
Question 184Single Answer
What is the purpose of inferential statistics?
A
To summarize data
B
To make inferences or predictions about a population based on a sample
C
To calculate the mode
D
To list data without analysis
Question 185Single Answer
Which type of data represents distinct categories such as male or female?
A
Continuous data
B
Categorical data
C
Interval data
D
Ordinal data
Question 186Single Answer
What is a representative subset of a population called?
A
Statistic
B
Parameter
C
Sample
D
Population
Question 187Single Answer
Which statistical test would be used to compare the means of two independent groups?
A
Correlation
B
T-test
C
Regression
D
Chi-square test
Question 188Single Answer
What is the term for data collected from every member of a population?
A
Sample
B
Census
C
Statistic
D
Parameter
Question 189Single Answer
In a normal distribution, what percentage of data lies within one standard deviation of the mean?
A
50%
B
68%
C
95%
D
99%
Question 190Single Answer
What type of statistical analysis examines the relationship between two variables?
A
Descriptive statistics
B
Correlation
C
Median analysis
D
Sampling
Question 191Single Answer
Which type of graph is most commonly used to display the distribution of a categorical variable?
A
Histogram
B
Bar chart
C
Line graph
D
Scatter plot
Question 192Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of continuous data?
A
Gender
B
Height
C
Blood type
D
Eye color
Question 193Single Answer
Which statistical term describes the likelihood that a particular event will occur?
A
Proportion
B
Standard deviation
C
Probability
D
Correlation
Question 194Single Answer
Which of the following is used to describe data, but not to make predictions about a population?
A
Inferential statistics
B
Descriptive statistics
C
Hypothesis testing
D
Regression analysis
Question 195Single Answer
What is the probability of an event occurring if its probability value is 0?
A
Certain to occur
B
Impossible to occur
C
Likely to occur
D
Highly probable
Question 196Single Answer
What is the process of selecting a group from a population to study called?
A
Sampling
B
Surveying
C
Census
D
Data collection
Question 197Single Answer
Which of the following distributions is bell-shaped and symmetrical?
A
Uniform distribution
B
Normal distribution
C
Skewed distribution
D
Exponential distribution
Question 198Single Answer
What does a p-value indicate in statistical testing?
A
The strength of the relationship between two variables
B
The probability that the results observed are due to chance
C
The average of the data
D
The standard deviation of the population
Question 199Single Answer
Which type of variable can take on an infinite number of values within a range?
A
Categorical variable
B
Ordinal variable
C
Discrete variable
D
Continuous variable
Question 200Single Answer
Which of the following is a type of inferential statistic?