Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 6Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 7Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 8Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 9Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 11Single Answer
Which Delhi Sultan captured Qutub Minar while it was under construction?
A
Iltutmish
B
Alauddin Khalji
C
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D
Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 12Single Answer
Where did the First Battle of Panipat take place?
A
Panipat
B
Delhi
C
Kurukshetra
D
Agra
Question 13Single Answer
Who built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?
A
Shah Jahan
B
Jahangir
C
Akbar
D
Aurangzeb
Question 14Single Answer
The iconic Humayun's Tomb was built by:
A
Babur
B
Humayun
C
Hamida Banu Begum
D
Akbar
Question 15Single Answer
The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar was originally from:
A
Kanauj
B
Mathura
C
Ujjain
D
Pataliputra
Question 16Single Answer
The Mughal city of Shahjahanabad was built by:
A
Babur
B
Humayun
C
Akbar
D
Shah Jahan
Question 17Single Answer
Which country plans to launch a mission to explore Venus ?
A
China
B
India
C
Japan
D
United States
Question 18Single Answer
A major climate conference is scheduled to take place in :
A
Brazil
B
Germany
C
Kenya
D
Singapore
Question 19Single Answer
A new species of deep-sea creature was discovered in the :
A
Arctic Ocean
B
Atlantic Ocean
C
Indian Ocean
D
Pacific Ocean
Question 20Single Answer
A major international sporting event is currently underway in :
A
Australia
B
France
C
Italy
D
South Africa
Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 31Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 34Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 35Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 38Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 40Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Numerical ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Important Questions Package
DSSSB Manager Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy DSSSB Manager Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in DSSSB Manager question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - Hindi
Description : 2000 Question with Answer.
₹151[₹500]
3.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
4.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - English
Description : 2000 Question with Answer..
₹151[₹500]
5.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹101[₹450]
6.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹101[₹450]
7.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
8.
DSSSB Manager Tier 1 (Mechanical) Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
Numerical ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Test of English Language
Question 61Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 62Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 63Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 64Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 65Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 66Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 67Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 68Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 69Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 70Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 71Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 72Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 73Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 74Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 75Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 76Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 77Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 78Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 79Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 80Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Test of Hindi Language
Question 81Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 82Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 83Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 84Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 85Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 86Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 87Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 88Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 89Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 90Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 91Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 92Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 93Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 94Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 95Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 96Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 97Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 98Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 99Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 100Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Mechanical
Question 101Single Answer
If a submerged body displaced from its equilibrium position, returns to its original position, it is called __________.
A
thermal equilibrium
B
neutral equilibrium
C
unstable equilibrium
D
stable equilibrium
Question 102Single Answer
In a flow measurement, a venturi meter is preferred over an orifice plate because _____.
A
energy of head loss is less
B
It is cheaper
C
pressure drop is more
D
space is limited
Question 103Single Answer
Pitot tube measures ______.
A
dynamic pressure of a moving stream
B
guage pressure
C
temperature of moving water
D
pressure difference between two fluids
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following is not a property of an ideal fluid ?
A
flow is irrotational
B
it has no viscosity
C
it has viscosity
D
it is incompressible
Question 105Single Answer
Nozzle used in steam turbines convert ________.
A
enthalpy of steam into work
B
enthalpy of steam into kinetic energy
C
enthalpy of steam into pressure energy
D
pressure energy into work
Question 106Single Answer
Which of the following assumptions is the most relevant in air-standard cycle analysis ?
A
All the processes within the cycle are irreversible
B
Working fluid is a fixed mass
C
Specific heat of air changes during the cycle
D
Cycle is assumed to be an open cycle
Question 107Single Answer
The modern Francis turbine is a ___________flow turbine .
A
tangential
B
axial
C
radial
D
mixed
Question 108Single Answer
Variation of stress with strain rate for a Newtonian fluid is ______ .
A
hyperbolic
B
linear
C
elliptical
D
parabolic
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of refrigeration systems ?
A
Turbine
B
Evaporator
C
Compressor
D
Condenser
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT an intensive property ?
A
Temperature
B
Total volume
C
Pressure
D
Density
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following does NOT represent a unit of viscosity ?
A
Stoke
B
Poise
C
m²/sec
D
N-m/sec
Question 112Single Answer
__________ in the fuel is oxidised during knocking .
A
Hydrocarbon
B
Phosphorous
C
Water
D
Coal
Question 113Single Answer
_________ is defined as the ability of a material to resist deformation under action of an external load .
A
Stiffness
B
Resilience
C
Brittleness
D
Toughness
Question 114Single Answer
Draught is produced in locomotive boilers by which of the following components ?
A
Locomotive
B
Steam jet
C
Centrifugal fan
D
Chimney
Question 115Single Answer
For a steady flow, the value of all fluid properties at any fixed point _________ .
A
do not change with location
B
change with time
C
change with location
D
do not change with time
Question 116Single Answer
For a floating body, if the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, then the body is said to be __________ equilibrium .
A
thermal
B
stable
C
unstable
D
neutral
Question 117Single Answer
________ is useful for measuring flow of a conducting fluid .
A
Orifice meter
B
Rotameter
C
Vane meter
D
Electro-magnetic flow meter
Question 118Single Answer
A two- stroke engine consists of ________ port (s)
A
Three
B
Four
C
One
D
Two
Question 119Single Answer
Air Cooling is mostly preferred for _________ .
A
heavy truck
B
buses
C
moto cycles
D
multi-utility vehicles
Question 120Single Answer
_______ valves are provided in reciprocating compressors .
A
Simply supported
B
Solenoid
C
Plate
D
Poppet
Question 121Single Answer
Benson boiler have ______ water drum (s)
A
One
B
Zero
C
Three
D
Two
Question 122Single Answer
_________ is used for pumping water into a boilers .
A
Economiser
B
Duplex pump
C
Feed pump
D
Rotor
Question 123Single Answer
The function of a carburetor in internal combustion engines is :
A
to control fuel alone
B
to cool exhaust gases
C
to maintain air-fuel ratio
D
to control air alone
Question 124Single Answer
The device which transfers energy from the ______ to _____ the is known as hydraulic turbine .
A
atmosphere; fluid
B
rotor; fluid
C
fluid; rotor
D
fluid; atmosphere
Question 125Single Answer
The flash chamber in the single stage VCR cycle serves to ________ .
A
decrease the compression ratio
B
increase the refrigerating effect
C
increase the compression ratio
D
decrease the refrigerating effect
Question 126Single Answer
Define thermodynamics .
A
It is a science which deals with the relation between heat, work and properties of systems
B
It is a science which deals with work done
C
It deals with dynamics under thermal conditions
D
It is science which deals with the relation between work and properties
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct about a Benson boiler ?
A
Air is sent through the same direction
B
There is no recirculation of water
C
Steam is sent out in multiple directions
D
Flue gases pass only in one direction
Question 128Single Answer
Within a refrigeration system, the expansion valve is incorporated between the ________ .
A
Super-heater and sub-cooler
B
compressor and condenser
C
evaporator and compressor
D
condenser and evaporator
Question 129Single Answer
The reversed ______ cycle employed for passenger aircraft systems .
A
Carnot
B
Atkinson
C
Ericsson
D
Brayton
Question 130Single Answer
Fusible plug in a steam boiler is placed ______ .
A
below the water level indicator
B
at he crown of the furnace
C
at the fire grate of the boiler
D
near the manhole
Question 131Single Answer
Aqua ammonia solution used in a vapour absorption refrigeration system is a solution of ammonia in ________ .
A
CF3
B
LiBr
C
H2O2
D
H2O
Question 132Single Answer
Coated electrodes are used in ______ .
A
gas tungsten arc welding
B
submerged arc welding
C
tungsten insert gas welding
D
shielded metal arc welding
Question 133Single Answer
Where is air cycle refrigeration commonly used ?
A
Domestic refrigerator
B
Cold storage
C
Aircraft conditioning
D
Car air conditioning
Question 134Single Answer
________, is not a water tube boiler .
A
Benson boiler
B
Babcock-Wilcox boiler
C
Stirling boiler
D
Scotch marine
Question 135Single Answer
Stoke is another unit of -
A
kinematic viscosityy
B
velocity gradient
C
Shear stress
D
dynamic viscosit
Question 136Single Answer
For a refrigerating machine, capacity is expressed as ______ .
A
the lowest temperature attained
B
inside volume of the cabinet
C
gross weight of the machine
D
rate of heat extraction from the space being cooled
Question 137Single Answer
The value of quality or dryness fraction of a substance in saturated liquid-vapor mixture is ________ .
A
1
B
2
C
Zero
D
between Zero and 1
Question 138Single Answer
Uniform flow is the type of flow where in velocity at any given time ________- with respect to space .
A
Decreases
B
Does not change
C
Increases
D
Changes
Question 139Single Answer
______ falls under the category of a water tube boiler .
A
Locomotive boiler
B
Lancashire boiler
C
Cornish boiler
D
LaMont boiler
Question 140Single Answer
Chaplets are used in ________ .
A
forging
B
casting
C
welding
D
extrusion
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a unit of pressure ?
A
Pa
B
Bar
C
N/m²
D
Joule
Question 142Single Answer
What was the first refrigerant used in continuous refrigeration system ?
A
Ammonia
B
Water
C
Air
D
Carbon dioxide
Question 143Single Answer
For a 2 m deep swimming pool, pressure difference between the top and the bottom of the pool is ________ kPa .
A
22
B
19.6
C
11
D
12
Question 144Single Answer
Pressure measurement is done by ____. by measuring heat loss from a heated wire .
A
A pirani gauge
B
a manometer
C
a barometer
D
an orifice meter
Question 145Single Answer
In the Rankine cycle, the fluid which enters the boiler is :
A
water
B
steam
C
mercury
D
oxygen
Question 146Single Answer
Percentage elongating measured during tensile testing indicates _____ .
A
malleability
B
fatigue strength
C
creep
D
ductility
Question 147Single Answer
For a given centrifugal pump, discharge varies _______ with speed .
A
fifth power of
B
linearly
C
inversely
D
square root of
Question 148Single Answer
Foaming is a phenomenon that occurs in the boiler feed water due to _____ .
A
nitrogen peroxide
B
manganese
C
sodium chloride
D
oil
Question 149Single Answer
Compounding of a steam turbine is done to ______ .
A
balance the rotor
B
reduce the rotor speed
C
reduce the blade friction
D
connect the shaft
Question 150Single Answer
Any change in entropy could be achieved by changing______ .
A
velocity
B
heat
C
acceleration
D
mass
Question 151Single Answer
Smoke emitting from a lighted cigarette represents ________ .
A
point
B
pathline
C
streakline
D
streamline
Question 152Single Answer
The splash system is NOT used to lubricate _______ .
A
tappets
B
camshafts
C
gear teeth and roller bearings
D
piston rings
Question 153Single Answer
A dead weight tester is used widely for ______ .
A
producing high pressures
B
accurate measurement of loads
C
calibration of another equipment
D
testing magnitude of the given weight
Question 154Single Answer
_______ CANNOT be classified as inversion (s) of a single-slider crank mechanism .
A
Elliptical trammel
B
Whitworth quick-return mechanism
C
Oscillating cylinder engine
D
Crank and slotted-lever mechanism
Question 155Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a part of Rankine cycle ?
A
Pump
B
Compressor
C
Boiler
D
Turbine
Question 156Single Answer
A power plant that uses a gas turbine followed by a steam turbine for necessary power generation is known as __________ cycle power plant .
A
combined
B
bottom
C
generation
D
topping
Question 157Single Answer
In the context of properties of steel, which of the following statement is highly relevant ?
A
Presence of carbon contents imparts strength to iron
B
Presence of carbon does not influence the heat-treatment process
C
Presence of manganese decreases strength.
D
Presence of sulphide improves corrosion resistance
Question 158Single Answer
Those pumps employed for mud related work have ______ type of impeller .
A
an open
B
a two-side shrouded
C
a double-suction
D
a one-side shrouded
Question 159Single Answer
If the oil viscosity increased, then the wear loss _________ .
A
increases
B
becomes zero
C
decreases
D
remains the same
Question 160Single Answer
Impact load is an example of :
A
uniform load
B
static load
C
dynamic load
D
fatigue load
Question 161Single Answer
Internal energy associated with kinetic energy of molecules is ______ .
A
latent energy
B
nuclear energy
C
sensible energy
D
chemical energy
Question 162Single Answer
A capillary tube is employed in a refrigeration cycle to _______ .
A
produce a cooling effect
B
control temperature of the refrigerated space
C
reduce pressure of the refrigerant
D
control flow of the refrigerant
Question 163Single Answer
The Babcock-Wilcox boiler is classified as a water tube boiler because :
A
it has a large reservoir of water at the bottom
B
water passes around the tubes having hot gases
C
water heater is mounted on the boiler itself
D
water passes through the tube and hot gases around
Question 164Single Answer
Otto cycle of a car engine consists of :
A
two isochore and two reversible adiabatic cycles
B
four adiabatic cycles
C
one isochore cycle only
D
one adiabatic cycle only
Question 165Single Answer
When hot air exhausting from the turbine is used to heat up the compressor exit flow, it is knows as _______ .
A
regeneration
B
re-evaporating
C
intercooling
D
intracooling
Question 166Single Answer
If the specific gravity of oil is 0.7, then its density in kg/m³ will be _______ .
A
700
B
7
C
70
D
7000
Question 167Single Answer
viscous forces are NOT available in _______ .
A
laminar flow
B
irrational flow
C
rotational flow
D
transitional flow
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is the most widely used fuel in boilers ?
A
Pulverised coal
B
Wood
C
Oil
D
Anthracite coal
Question 169Single Answer
If the relationship between shear stress of a fluid is NOT linear to the velocity gradient, then the fluid is :
A
a compressible fluid
B
a Newtonian fluid
C
a non-Newtonian fluid
D
an ideal fluid
Question 170Single Answer
In a Pelton wheel, jet ratio values are ________ .
A
More than 6
B
between 2 and 5
C
less than 1
D
less than or equal to 2
Question 171Single Answer
What is kinematic viscosity ?
A
It is the rate of change of shear stress
B
It is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to relative density
C
It is the ratio of dynamic viscosity to mass density
D
It is the rate of change of shear strain
Question 172Single Answer
The efficiency of an ideal diesel engine does NO directly depend on ______ .
A
the cut-off ratio
B
the compression ratio
C
the fluid pressure
D
the isentropic index
Question 173Single Answer
Which of the following equipment gives direct reading of fluid flow rates ?
A
Nutating disk flow meter
B
Hot wire anemometer
C
Rotameter
D
Orifice meter
Question 174Single Answer
The tendency of material to fracture without appreciable deformation is called ______ .
A
stiffness
B
plasticity
C
toughness
D
brittlensess
Question 175Single Answer
Lancashire boiler has ______ flue tube(s), whereas Cornish boiler has _____ flue tube (s) .
A
3 ; 2
B
2; 2
C
2; 1
D
1; 2
Question 176Single Answer
The maximum temperature in case of internal combustion engines is obtained at ______ .
A
end of the compression process
B
end of the expansion process
C
start of the compression process
D
start of the expansion process
Question 177Single Answer
The moisture content o steam at the turbine exit of a steam power plant operating on the Rankine cycle can be decreased by :
A
increasing boiler pressure
B
super cooling steam
C
decreasing boiler pressure
D
reheating steam
Question 178Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a non-ferrous alloy ?
A
Stainless steel
B
Magnesium
C
Titanium
D
Aluminium
Question 179Single Answer
The flow is volute casing outside the rotating impeller of a centrifugal pump is :
A
forced vortex flow
B
radial flow
C
free vortex flow
D
axial flow
Question 180Single Answer
The compression ratio in ideal air standard cycles is the ratio of :
A
minimum pressure to maximum pressure
B
minimum volume to maximum volume
C
maximum pressure to minimum pressure
D
maximum volume to minimum volume
Question 181Single Answer
Two stroke engine consist of a combined process of _____ in a single stroke .
A
compression and expansion
B
suction and compression
C
suction and expansion
D
suction and exhaust
Question 182Single Answer
The density of fluid does NOT affect the working of ______ .
A
an electro-magnetic flow meter
B
a nozzle meter
C
a rotameter
D
an orifice meter
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following processes is NOT part of an ideal Otto cycle ?
A
Isentropic expansion
B
Heat addition at constant volume
C
Isentropic compression
D
Heat addition at constant pressure
Question 184Single Answer
In which of the following types of compressors are the motor and compressor enclosed in the same housing ?
A
Open-type compressor
B
Hermetic compressor
C
Reciprocating compressor
D
Axial flow type compressor
Question 185Single Answer
An oil of specific gravity 0.7 is stored in a closed tank up to a height of 2m. What will be the gauge pressure at the bottom of the tank ?
A
0.14 MPa
B
1.4 MPa
C
0.014 MPa
D
14 MPa
Question 186Single Answer
If there is no change in pressure at any point of the system with time, then the system is said to be in :
A
chemical equilibrium
B
mechanical equilibrium
C
Phase equilibrium
D
thermal equilibrium
Question 187Single Answer
If Valve of dryness fraction is 0, it indicates that working fluid is at ______ .
A
Compressed liquid
B
Saturated liquid
C
saturated vapour
D
supreheated vapour
Question 188Single Answer
In the context of roto-dynamic machines, which of the following statements is correct ?
A
There will be a relative motion between the rotor vanes and the fluid
B
Linear momentum is the normal to the stator
C
Linear momentum is the direction normal to the rotor
D
While flowing through the stator. linear momentum changes
Question 189Single Answer
When two elements of a pair are connected such that they can only turn about a fixed axis of another element, they are called _______ .
A
a turning pair
B
a screw pair
C
a spherical pair
D
a sliding pair
Question 190Single Answer
In high-speed aircrafts flying at high altitudes, why is cooling of the cabin required even temperature outside is very low ?
A
Since outside pressure is very high
B
Due to absence of solar radiation
C
To improve fuel efficiency
D
Due to large internal heat generation
Question 191Single Answer
Fusible plug is generally made up of an alloy (gunmetal) which consists of copper, tin and _______ .
A
cast iron
B
zinc
C
aluminium
D
manganese
Question 192Single Answer
In the context of laminar flow, which of the following statement sis the most appropriate ?
A
Laminar flow is observed in high viscous fluids at low velocity
B
There will be an exchange of momentum from fluid particles of one layer of another layer
C
Flow is always through small tanks
D
Particles move in turbulent order
Question 193Single Answer
Which of the following statements is more relevant in the context ?
A
If center of gravity is below the centre of buoyancy, the body is unstable
B
Metacentric height is positive in case of unstable equilibrium
C
The centre of buoyancy in a submerged boy remains
D
When the body is fully submerged, shape of he displaced fluid alters when the body is tilted
Question 194Single Answer
Determinate the COP (coefficient of performance) of a heat pump if the rate of heat rejected is 360 kJ/min and power supplied is 2 kW .
A
4
B
2
C
3
D
1
Question 195Single Answer
Define free-body diagram
A
A figure that represent external forces acting on a body
B
A diagram that represents internal forces acting on a body
C
A free-hand sketch representing a body
D
A diagram that only represents moments acting on a body
Question 196Single Answer
A ball and socket joint is an example of a ________pair .
A
turning
B
screw
C
rolling
D
spherical
Question 197Single Answer
From among the given options, Poisson's ration is the highest for :
A
iron
B
wood
C
copper
D
rubber
Question 198Single Answer
What is ductility in steel ?
A
Ratio of ultimate stress to yield stress
B
Stress at yield stress
C
Amount of strain a material can withstand before fracture
D
Ratio of change in length to original length
Question 199Single Answer
If the gauge pressure of air in a cylinder is 250 kPa, then it's absolute pressure will be _______ .
A
50 kPa
B
150 kPa
C
350 kPa
D
450 kPa
Question 200Single Answer
Flow velocity at the throat of a converging-diverging nozzle is ______, when designed for maximum discharge .