Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 7Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 8Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 10Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 11Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 12Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Question 13Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 14Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 15Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Question 16Single Answer
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore
Question 17Single Answer
What defence-related development was noted in the context of India’s preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?
A
Reduction in capex
B
Withdrawal from international exercises
C
Complete self-reliance achieved
D
Surge in defence budget and modernisation push
Question 18Single Answer
What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?
A
Defence pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Strengthened economic partnership
D
Climate alliance
Question 19Single Answer
Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?
A
Mundra Port
B
Paradip Port
C
New Mangalore Port
D
Kandla Port
Question 20Single Answer
What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?
A
2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B
2028 Olympics
C
2030 Asian Games
D
2027 Cricket World Cup
Hind Language
Question 21Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 22Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 23Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 24Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 25Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 26Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 27Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 28Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 29Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 30Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 31Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 32Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 33Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 34Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 35Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 36Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 37Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 38Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 39Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 40Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
English Language
Question 41Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 42Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 43Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 44Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 45Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 46Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 47Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 48Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 49Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 50Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
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English Language
Question 51Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 52Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 53Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 54Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 55Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 56Single Answer
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A
In record time Preeti ran the race.
B
The race was run by Preeti in record time
C
The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D
The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Question 57Single Answer
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A
By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B
The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C
The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D
By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Question 58Single Answer
One must keep one’s promises.
A
One’s promises must be kept by one.
B
One’s promises had to be kept.
C
Promises must be kept.
D
Promises have to be kept by one.
Question 59Single Answer
I read the story in one night.
A
The story had been read by me in one night.
B
The story has been read by me in one night
C
n one night the story has been read by me.
D
the story was read by me in one night
Question 60Single Answer
We must take care of the old.
A
Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B
The old must be taken care of by us.
C
Those who are old need care by us
D
The old should be taken care of by us.
Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 68Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 70Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 71Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 74Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 75Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 77Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 78Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 80Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Numerical Ability
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 98Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 99Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 100Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Nursing
Question 101Single Answer
Father of anatomy-
A
Robert Koach
B
Aristotle
C
Andreas Vesalius
D
Robert Hook
Question 102Single Answer
Power house of cell a is known as-
A
Mitochondria
B
Lysosomes
C
Ribosomes
D
Nucleus
Question 103Single Answer
Normal size of a cell is-
A
75-30 micron
B
7.5-300 micron
C
1-2 micron
D
2-3 micron
Question 104Single Answer
Plasma membrane is composed of-
A
Fat
B
Carbohydrate
C
Protein
D
All are right
Question 105Single Answer
The function of mitochondria in cell is-
A
To form ATP
B
Protection of cell
C
Transportation
D
Excretion
Question 106Single Answer
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
A
Fluid volume excess
B
Decreased RBC
C
Electrolyte imbalance
D
Impaired immune function
Question 107Single Answer
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
A
Phagocytosis
B
Pinocytosis
C
Osmosis
D
None of them
Question 108Single Answer
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
A
Nucleus
B
Lysosome
C
Mitochondria
D
Endoplasmic reticulum
Question 109Single Answer
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-
A
Hormone
B
Mucous
C
Enzymes
D
Digestive juices
Question 110Single Answer
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
A
Sweat gland
B
Sebaceous gland
C
Pancreatic
D
Salivary gland
Question 111Single Answer
In the state infection which tissue are more active-
A
Reticular tissue
B
Adipose tissue
C
Elastic tissue
D
Collagenase tissue
Question 112Single Answer
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-
A
Adult male
B
Adult female
C
New born
D
Old age persons
Question 113Single Answer
Largest gland of the body is-
A
Pituitary
B
Adrenal
C
Liver
D
Pancreas
Question 114Single Answer
The potential reason of alopecia is-
A
Protein deficiency
B
Malnutrition
C
Genetic
D
Vitamin deficiency
Question 115Single Answer
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
A
Epithelial cell
B
Muscles cell
C
Nerve cell
D
Red cell
Question 116Single Answer
The total number of bones found in human body is-
A
206
B
306
C
205
D
210
Question 117Single Answer
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
A
Parietal and frontal bone
B
Parietal and parietal bone
C
Parietal and occipital
D
In both temporal bone
Question 118Single Answer
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-
A
18 months
B
2 months
C
6 months
D
12 months
Question 119Single Answer
Coronal sutures are found in-
A
Parietal and formal bone
B
Parietal and parietal bone
C
Parietal and occipital
D
In both temporal bone
Question 120Single Answer
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?
A
Squamous part
B
Mastoid part
C
Tympanic part
D
Petrous part
Question 121Single Answer
Smallest bone of human body is -
A
Stapes
B
Fibula
C
Tarsel
D
Carpel
Question 122Single Answer
Digestion begins in our body from -
A
Small intestine
B
Large intestine
C
Mouth
D
Stomach
Question 123Single Answer
Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embroyonic life -
A
After 6.5-7 Weeks
B
At 5 days
C
At 10 days
D
At 40 days
Question 124Single Answer
The average time of cardiac cycle is-
A
6 sec.
B
0.8 sec
C
1 min
D
1 sec
Question 125Single Answer
The contraction wave of heart starts from -
A
S.A node
B
A.V node
C
Bundle of his
D
Purkinje fiber
Question 126Single Answer
The formula to measure the cardiac output is -
A
Stroke volume / heart rate
B
Stroke volume * heart rate
C
Stroke volume – heart rate
D
Stroke volume + heart rate
Question 127Single Answer
Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man ?
A
Small intestine
B
Large intestine
C
Mouth
D
Stomach
Question 128Single Answer
Function of pacemaker is -
A
To initiate heart beat
B
To regulate beat
C
To regulate blood pressure
D
To regulate brain waves
Question 129Single Answer
During sleep blood pressure -
A
Increase
B
Decreases
C
Does not change
D
First decrease than change
Question 130Single Answer
To complete one heart beat the time taken is -
A
0.8 second
B
1 second
C
72 second
D
1.8 second
Question 131Single Answer
Longest artery found in the body of human is -
A
Aorta
B
Venacava
C
Capillaries
D
Vesicles
Question 132Single Answer
Blood bank of human body is -
A
Spleen
B
Liver
C
Bone
D
Kidney
Question 133Single Answer
Red blood corpuscles is also known as -
A
Erythrocytes
B
Leucocytes
C
Monocytes
D
Oligodendrocytes
Question 134Single Answer
Graveyard of red blood cell is -
A
Spleen
B
Liver
C
Bone
D
Kidney
Question 135Single Answer
Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human?
A
Neutrophils
B
Basophils
C
Monocytes
D
Basophila
Question 136Single Answer
A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of the –
A
Lack of antigen in his blood
B
Lack of antibodies in his blood
C
Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
D
Presence of antibodies in his blood
Question 137Single Answer
In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed ?
A
Long bones
B
Spleen
C
Kidney
D
Heart
Question 138Single Answer
Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called -
A
Coronary artery
B
Pulmonary artery
C
Femoral artery
D
Radial artery
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following chemical can be used in anti – coagulant?
A
Sodium citrate
B
Calcium
C
Sodium nitrate
D
Heparin
Question 140Single Answer
The cells which have least regeneration capacity -
A
Cells of brain
B
Cells of bone
C
Cells of heart
D
Cells of kidney
Question 141Single Answer
Largest part of human brain is-
A
Cerebrum
B
Cerebellum
C
Pons
D
Oblongata
Question 142Single Answer
Centre of reflex action-
A
Spinal cord
B
Pons
C
Cerebellum
D
Cerebrum
Question 143Single Answer
In a cell, process of respiration takes place in -
A
Mitochondria
B
Golgi apparatus
C
Ribosome
D
Lysosomes
Question 144Single Answer
Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is -
A
12%
B
14%
C
16%
D
18%
Question 145Single Answer
Saliva secreted from mouth digest -
A
Starch
B
Fat
C
Protein
D
Alcohol
Question 146Single Answer
Tear gland is not found in-
A
Dog
B
Man
C
Pig
D
Crocodile
Question 147Single Answer
Estrogen is secreted by -
A
Corpus luteum
B
Deciduas
C
Graffian follicels
D
None of them
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone ?
A
Insulin
B
Adrenalin
C
Estrogen
D
Progesterone
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following control blood pressure ?
A
Adrenal
B
Thyroid
C
Glucagon
D
Insulin
Question 150Single Answer
Lifesaving hormone is -
A
Adrenal
B
Pancreas
C
Glucagon
D
Insulin
Question 151Single Answer
One of the following is called an emergency hormone.Tick the correct option.
A
Thymus
B
Pancreas
C
Adrenal
D
Cowper
Question 152Single Answer
Virus of bird flu is also known as -
A
NH51
B
HN61
C
H5N1
D
NH15
Question 153Single Answer
Insulin was discovered by -
A
Louis Pasteur
B
Batting and best
C
Jenner
D
Washerman
Question 154Single Answer
White lung disease is prevalent among the worker of -
A
Floor industries
B
cotton industries
C
Paper industries
D
Salt industries
Question 155Single Answer
Harmone insulin is a-
A
Glycolipid
B
Peptide
C
Fatty acid
D
Sterol
Question 156Single Answer
Edward Jenner is related with which of the following disease -
A
Chicken pox
B
small pox
C
Typhoid
D
tuberculosis
Question 157Single Answer
Who discovered vaccine of rabies ?
A
Pasture
B
Jenner
C
Alexander Fleming
D
Aristotle
Question 158Single Answer
Strongest muscle of man is found in-
A
Jaw
B
Wrist
C
Thigh
D
Foot
Question 159Single Answer
A person feel fatigue due to deposition of which of the following acid in their muscles ?
A
Citric acid
B
Lactic acid
C
Diagonal acid
D
None of them
Question 160Single Answer
Communication ties people to their -
A
Social surrounding
B
Physical surrounding
C
Materialistic surrounding
D
Environmental surrounding
Question 161Single Answer
Part of eye used during eye donation is -
A
Iris
B
Retina
C
Cornea
D
Cones
Question 162Single Answer
World Red Cross day falls on-
A
1 April
B
8 May
C
19 March
D
1 December
Question 163Single Answer
Image of object is formed on which part of eye-
A
Retina
B
Cornea
C
Iris
D
Cones
Question 164Single Answer
The family is the most important in the emotional development because it -
A
provide support for the young
B
gives reward and punishment
C
reflects more of the larger society
D
helps one to learn identify and roles
Question 165Single Answer
In the retina of eye cells present for colour differentiation -
A
Rods
B
Cones
C
Choroid
D
Iris
Question 166Single Answer
A tendency to behave in a consistent manner in variable situation is known as -
A
Personality
B
Habit
C
Trait
D
Behavior
Question 167Single Answer
Function of Iris is-
A
To regulate the size of objects
B
To make image
C
Secretion of tears
D
Protection of eyes
Question 168Single Answer
The ability to see meaningful relationship between things is known as -
A
Intelligence
B
Character
C
Perception
D
Behavior
Question 169Single Answer
Thickest layer of skin is found on -
A
Sole
B
Palm
C
Thigh
D
Eyes
Question 170Single Answer
Basic unit in all societies is -
A
Individual
B
group
C
Family
D
none of the above
Question 171Single Answer
The hardest part of human body is -
A
Bone
B
Spinal
C
Skull
D
Enamel
Question 172Single Answer
The optimum level of fluoride in drinking water is between -
A
0.3 - 0.5 mg/ltr.
B
0.4 - 0.8 mg/ltr.
C
0.5 - 0.8 mg/ltr.
D
0.8 - 0.10 mg/ltr
Question 173Single Answer
Which of the following is a vestigial organ ?
A
Appendix
B
Breast
C
Vagina
D
Finger
Question 174Single Answer
Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of -
A
sulfates, chloride and nitrates of calcium and magnesium
B
bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
C
salts of iron, zinc and silica
D
all of the above
Question 175Single Answer
Which of the following organ have the capacity of regeneration -
A
Appendix
B
Kidney
C
Liver
D
Cornea
Question 176Single Answer
Which of the following worm reach into intestine of human by eating leaf ?
A
tape worm
B
round worm
C
flat worm
D
hook worm
Question 177Single Answer
Crown of teeth is mainly made up of-
A
Dentine
B
Canine
C
Marrow
D
Odontoblast
Question 178Single Answer
Larva of house fly is called -
A
maggot
B
pupa
C
imago
D
none
Question 179Single Answer
Poison in a scorpion is found in its -
A
mouth
B
telson
C
tongue
D
hand
Question 180Single Answer
Tears of man have an enzyme which kill the bacteria. Identify the enzyme from the options.
A
Lysozyme
B
Acrosome
C
Proteaz
D
Amylase
Question 181Single Answer
The disease Kala-azar is spread by -
A
sand fly
B
butter fly
C
house fly
D
bed bugs
Question 182Single Answer
Dengue is transmitted by -
A
plasmodium
B
aedes
C
anopheles
D
culey
Question 183Single Answer
Which type of hardness of water can be removed by boiling ?
A
permanent hardness
B
temporary hardness
C
both temporary and permanent hardness
D
none of the above
Question 184Single Answer
The final step in the purification of water is __________
A
coagulation
B
sedimentation
C
filtration
D
chlorination
Question 185Single Answer
Orthotolidine test is the test done to find out the amount of -
A
hardness of water
B
free residual chlorine present in water
C
chlorine needed for chlorination
D
none of the above
Question 186Single Answer
The first choice for disinfecting large quantities of water is -
A
chloramine
B
bleaching powder
C
parchlorine
D
chlorine gas
Question 187Single Answer
Light is measured in terms of -
A
millimeter
B
decibel
C
candle light
D
foot candle
Question 188Single Answer
The constant presence of disease within a geographical area is known as_______
A
endemic
B
epidemic
C
pandemic
D
none of them
Question 189Single Answer
Which of the following is not a member of vision 2020 program ?
A
W.H.O.
B
UNICEF
C
Orbis International
D
International Agency for Prevention of Blindness
Question 190Single Answer
The best time of IUD insertion is -
A
between 3 - 7 days of menstrual cycle
B
before 3 - 7 days of cycle
C
within 14 days of menstrual cycle
D
at time of delivery
Question 191Single Answer
Oral pills prevent pregnancy by -
A
killing the sperm
B
preventing the union of sperm and ovulation
C
inhibiting ovulation
D
decreasing the production of hormones
Question 192Single Answer
The MTP act came in the year of -
A
1971
B
1974
C
1987
D
1983
Question 193Single Answer
Pneumoconiosis affects the workers who work mainly in -
A
coal mining industries
B
wheat grinding industries
C
iron industries
D
plastic industries
Question 194Single Answer
People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to suffer from all of the following disease except -
A
fluorosis
B
jaundice
C
cholera
D
typhoid
Question 195Single Answer
Erotism is due to consumption of -
A
Contaminated water
B
Raw meat
C
Contaminated grains
D
Raw egg
Question 196Single Answer
The ESI Act came in the year-
A
1972
B
1973
C
1974
D
1948
Question 197Single Answer
World AIDS day is observed each year in -
A
8th December
B
1st December
C
1st November
D
14 April
Question 198Single Answer
The important source of vital statistics is-
A
census
B
mortality rate
C
morbidity rate
D
birth and death rate
Question 199Single Answer
The central Death and Birth Registration Act came into force on -
