Latest DSSSB PGT Biology Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English Language & Comprehension, General Awareness, Hindi Language & Comprehension, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Arithmetic & Numerical Ability, Biology, Teaching Education & Methodology
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 5Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 6Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 7Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 8Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 9Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 10Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
General Awareness
Question 21Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 22Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 23Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 24Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 26Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 27Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 28Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 29Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 30Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 31Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 32Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 33Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 34Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 35Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 36Single Answer
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran
Question 37Single Answer
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran
Question 38Single Answer
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A
Mumbai
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Jammu & Kashmir
D
Karnataka
Question 39Single Answer
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A
EUR 10 million
B
EUR 100 million
C
EUR 50 million
D
EUR 20 million
Question 40Single Answer
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 41Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 42Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 43Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 44Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 45Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 46Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 47Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 48Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 49Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 50Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Important Questions Package
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Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 51Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 52Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 53Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 54Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 55Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 56Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 57Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 58Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 59Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 60Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 68Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Arithmetic & Numerical Ability
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Passage :
information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Chemistry but not in Physics.
A
318
B
198
C
213
D
206
Question 97Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: information given below and answer the question that follow.
The result of an exam is given below. Out of 1000 students who appeared
(i) 658 failed in Physics
(ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry
(iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths
(iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths & Chemistry
Find the number of people who failed in (assuming that none is passed in all subjects.
We have the following equations:
a+ b + c + d + e + f + g = 1000
a + b + d + e = 658, b + d = 166
b + d + c + f = 372
d + e = 434 as in the figure.
d + e + f + g = 590, d + f = 126. Find the values
Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry.
A
558
B
718
C
628
D
None of these
Question 98Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four question that follow:
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read all the three papers ?
A
20%
B
25%
C
30%
D
40%
Question 99Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only two papers?
A
19%
B
31%
C
44%
D
None of these
Question 100Single Answer
Passage :
For the next four : question that follow :
In a city, three daily newspapers A, B, C are published, 42% read A; 51% read B; 68% read C; 30% read A and B; 28% read B and C; 36% read A and C; 8% do not read any of the three newspapers.
Let x% people read all the three newspapers.
Since 8% people do not read any newspapers.
(x – 24) + (x – 7) + (x + 4) + (30 – x) + (36 – x) + (28 – x) + x = 92
→ x + 98 – 31 = 92
→ x = 92 – 67 = 25
What is the percentage of persons who read only one paper ?
A
38%
B
48%
C
51%
D
None of these
Biology, Teaching Education & Methodology
Question 101Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 103Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 104Single Answer
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish
Question 105Single Answer
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Question 106Single Answer
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Question 107Single Answer
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C
Question 108Single Answer
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Question 109Single Answer
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Question 110Single Answer
Stoma opens, when
A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A
Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B
Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C
arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D
Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Question 112Single Answer
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A
medulla oblongata
B
pons
C
cerebellum
D
hypothalamus
Question 113Single Answer
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A
protein particles
B
a class of bacteria
C
a class of viruses
D
fungi
Question 114Single Answer
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A
grafting
B
hybridization
C
embryo culture
D
shoot apex culture
Question 115Single Answer
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A
cyanosis
B
bronchitis
C
rhinitis
D
bronchial carcinoma
Question 116Single Answer
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A
C → A → D → B → E
B
A → C → E → D → B
C
A → D → C → E → B
D
B → A → C → D → E
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A
Amoeba, sponge, leech
B
Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C
Earthworm, sponge, leech
D
Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Question 118Single Answer
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A
Louis Pasteur
B
Edward jenner
C
Robert Koch
D
Alexander Flemming
Question 119Single Answer
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A
120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B
120 mm. Hg
C
80 mm. Hg
D
128/80 mm. Hg
Question 120Single Answer
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A
Allium cepa
B
Drosophila
C
Humans
D
grasshoppers
Question 121Single Answer
the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
A
Phytochromes
B
Stomata
C
Enzymes
D
Phytohormones
Question 122Single Answer
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
A
Sharks
B
Rays and skates
C
Hilsa ilisha
D
Catla catla
Question 123Single Answer
Plasmids occur in:
A
Viruses
B
Chromosomes
C
Bacteria
D
Chloroplasts
Question 124Single Answer
Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
A
Nitro – phosphate bond
B
Adeno – phosphate bond
C
Phosphoester bond
D
Phosphoanhydride bond
Question 126Single Answer
The protists have:
A
Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
B
Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
C
Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
D
Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Question 127Single Answer
Antrum is the cavity of:
A
Gastrula
B
Graffian follicle
C
Ovary
D
Blastula
Question 128Single Answer
Which of the following statement is wrong?
A
Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
B
Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
C
Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
D
Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Question 129Single Answer
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
A
Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
B
Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
C
Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
D
Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Question 130Single Answer
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
A
These cells never produce glands
B
The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
C
Tissues are highly vascularized
D
Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Question 131Single Answer
Great Indian Bustard sanctuary is located in:
A
Rajasthan
B
Maharashtra
C
Pakistan
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 132Single Answer
The result of ozone hole is:
A
Acid rain
B
Global warming
C
The UV radiations reach the earth
D
Greenhouse effect
Question 133Single Answer
This is not cells of areolar tissue:
A
Macrophages
B
Schwann cell
C
Plasma cell
D
Adipose cell
Question 134Single Answer
The pH of stomach range between:
A
7.1 – 8.2
B
7.6 – 8.6
C
1.5 – 2.0
D
6.8 – 7.2
Question 135Single Answer
Match the name of the experiments listed under column 1 with the aim of the experiment given under column 2; choose the answer which give the correct combination of the alphabets:
column 1
column 2
A.
Gridling experiment
p
Ascent of sap
B.
Cobalt chloride paper method
q
Transpiration
C.
Crescograph
r
Unequel transpiration on leaf surfaces
D.
Bell jar experiment
s
translocation
A
A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
B
A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
C
A = q, B = p, C = s, D = r
D
A = s, B = p, C = q, D = r
Question 136Single Answer
Number of endangered species of angiosperms in India is:
A
15,000
B
500
C
3,000
D
None of these
Question 137Single Answer
Transduction in bacteria is mediated by:
A
Cosmids
B
F - factors
C
Plasmid vectors
D
Phage vectors
Question 138Single Answer
Match the common name of diseases listed under column 1 unit their medical terms listed under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1
Column 2
A.
Blood clotting in small capillaries
p
Rhinitis
B.
Value defects
q
Stenosis
C.
Hay fever
r
Parkinson's disease
D.
Paralysis
s
Coronany thrombosis
A
A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
B
A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p
C
A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
D
A =s, B = p, C = r, D = q
Question 139Single Answer
The cell wall of bacteria is composed of:
A
Murein
B
Chitin
C
Cellulose
D
Suberin
Question 140Single Answer
The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an allele of another gene, is known as:
A
Suppression
B
Inactivation
C
Epistasis
D
Dominance
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following is the aim of Mohl’s half-leaf experiment?
A
To show the carbon dioxide is produced during anaerobic reactions
B
To show that carbon dioxide is produced during aerobic reactions
C
To show the importance of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
D
To show chlorophy II is necessary for photosynthesis
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is shift in chloride shift
A
O2 and CO2
B
Bicarbonate ions
C
CO2
D
O2
Question 143Single Answer
Match the locomotory organs given under column 1 with the phylum in which they are seen, listed under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1
Column 1
A
Pseudopodia
p
Mollusca
B.
Parapodia
q
Chondriehthyes (Pisces)
C.
Muscular foot
r
Protozoa
D.
fins
s
annelida
A
A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
B
A = p, B = r, C = s, D = q
C
A =s, B = r, C = q, D = p
D
A =r, B = s, C = p, D = q
Question 144Single Answer
The larve of bombyx mori is:
A
Cocon
B
Nymph
C
Caterpillar
D
Trochophor
Question 145Single Answer
The first stable intermediate product of photosynthesis in C4 plant is:
A
Phospho glyseric acid
B
Ribulose 1, 5 – biphosphate
C
PGAL
D
Oxaloacetate
Question 146Single Answer
The lytic enzymes released by sperm is:
A
Acrosome
B
Ligase
C
Androgamone
D
Hyaluronidase
Question 147Single Answer
An example for the enucleated living plant cell is
A
Xylem parenchyma
B
RBCs
C
Sieve tubes of phloem
D
Companion cells of phloem
Question 148Single Answer
The example for polypetalous, zygomorphic corlla is:
A
Ocimum
B
Crotalaria
C
Rose
D
Mustard
Question 149Single Answer
Identify the correct sequence of taxa in Linnaen hierarchy:
A
Species, genus, family, order, class
B
Class, genus, species, genus, order
C
Species, genus, phylum, family, class
D
Phylum, class, family, species, order
Question 150Single Answer
Match the biological molecules listed under column 1 with their biological functions listed under column 2; choose the choice which gives correct combination of alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1
Column 2
A.
Glycogen
p
hormone
B.
Globulin
q
biocatalyst
C.
Steroids
r
antibody
D.
thrombin
s
storage product
A
A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p
B
A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
C
A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
D
A =s, B = r, C = p, D = q
Question 151Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 152Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 153Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 154Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 155Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 156Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 157Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 158Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 159Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 160Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
Question 161Single Answer
Biological membranes are composed of
A
40% proteins and 60% lipids
B
50% proteins and 50% lipids
C
70% proteins and 30% lipids
D
60% proteins and 40% lipids
Question 162Single Answer
F1 particles / oxysome / elementary particles are present in
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
chloroplast
C
mitochondria
D
golgi complex
Question 163Single Answer
"Endomitosis" refers to
A
division of nucleus without chromosomal division
B
division of chromosome without nuclear division
C
division of cytoplasm
D
None of the above
Question 164Single Answer
When the concentration of water and solutes on either side of the cell membrane is same, the solution is said to be
A
hypertonic
B
isotonic
C
hypotonic
D
None of these
Question 165Single Answer
The function of nucleous is the synthesis of
A
DNA
B
m - RNA
C
r- RNA
D
t - RNA
Question 166Single Answer
Mesosome in a bacterial cell is
A
plasmid
B
connection between two cells
C
plasma membrane infolded for respiration
D
None of these
Question 167Single Answer
In living cels synthesis of ribonoucleic acid (RNA) takes place in :
A
Cytoplasm
B
Nucleus
C
Golgi body
D
Nephron
Question 168Single Answer
The cell organelle storing substances like starch, oil and proteins is
A
Vacuole
B
Lysosome
C
Plastid
D
Golgi body
Question 169Single Answer
Organisms lacking nuclear membrane and cell organelles is called as :
A
Prokaryotes
B
Eukaryotes
C
Protozoa
D
Virus
Question 170Single Answer
Cell organelles that are involved in the waste disposal system of the cell are :
A
Golgi apparatus
B
Lysosomes
C
Chromosomes
D
Ribosomes
Question 171Single Answer
Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells ?
A
Cell wall
B
Mitochondria
C
Plasma membrane
D
Ribosome
Question 172Single Answer
Which one of the following cell organelles mainly functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes ?
A
Desmosome
B
Ribosome
C
Lysosome
D
Vacuoles
Question 173Single Answer
Cell wall of any fungus is different from plant in having
A
cellulose
B
chitin
C
cholesterol
D
glycogen
Question 174Single Answer
In prokaryotic organisms, nuclear region is not surrounded by a membrane.This undefined nuclear region is known as
A
Nucleic acid
B
Nucleoid
C
Nucleolus
D
Nucleosome
Question 175Single Answer
Which one of the following functions is not carried out by smooth endoplasmic reticulum ?
A
Transport of materials
B
Synthesis of lipid
C
Synthesis of protein
D
Synthesis of steroid hormone
Question 176Single Answer
Which of the following is the cellular respiratory centre ?
A
Nucleus
B
Mitochondria
C
Ribosome
D
Golgi body
Question 177Single Answer
Which one of the following cell organelles contains DNA ?
A
Golgi apparatus
B
Mitochondrion
C
Lysosome
D
Endoplasmic reticulum
Question 178Single Answer
Movement of materials to different parts of cytoplasm and nucleus is generall carried out by
A
Ribosomes
B
Mitochondria
C
Lysosomes
D
Endoplasmic reticulum
Question 179Single Answer
In mitochondria, ATP synthesizing chemical reactions take place in the
A
Outer membrane
B
Matrix
C
Inner membrane
D
DNA of mitochondria
Question 180Single Answer
Cell wall is not present in cells of
A
Bacteria
B
Plants
C
Fungi
D
Humans
Question 181Single Answer
Which cell organelles have their own DNA and Ribosomes ?
A
Golgi body and Endoplasmic Reticulum
B
Mitochondria and Plastids
C
Lysosome and Golgi body
D
Vacuole and Plastids
Question 182Single Answer
Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules from its
A
higher concentration to its lower concentration through a cell wall
B
lower concentration to its higher concentration through a fully permeable membrane
C
higher concentration to its lower concentration through a fully permeable membrane
D
higher concentration to its lower concentration through a semi - permeable membrane
Question 183Single Answer
Cell were first discovered by
A
Robert Hooke
B
Leeuwenhoek
C
Purkinje
D
Virchow
Question 184Single Answer
The plasma membrane is
A
permeable
B
impermeable
C
selectively permeable
D
both (a) and (b)
Question 185Single Answer
Nuclear material without cover is found in
A
mycoplasma and green algae
B
bacteria and fungi
C
bacteria and blue green algae
D
none of the above
Question 186Single Answer
The work 'prokaryote' means a cell
A
with many nuclei
B
with one nucleus
C
with diffused nucleus
D
without chloroplast
Question 187Single Answer
Minute structures on bacterial cell are called
A
hair
B
cilia
C
flagella
D
pili
Question 188Single Answer
Cell theory was proposed by
A
Schleiden and Schwann
B
Robert Brown
C
Leeuwenhoek
D
Purkinje
Question 189Single Answer
The undefined nuclear region in a bacteria is
A
nucleoid
B
nucleus
C
chromosome
D
nucleolus
Question 190Single Answer
Nucleus plays a crucial part in
A
metabolism
B
cellular reproduction
C
lipid synthesis
D
protein synthesis
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following is not present in prokaryotes ?
A
Ribosomes
B
Cell wall
C
Plasma membrane
D
Nuclear membrane
Question 192Single Answer
Chemical nature of carrier molecules facilitating transport across plasma membrane is
A
starchy
B
sugary
C
proteinaceous
D
fatty acidic
Question 193Single Answer
ER remains associated with
A
dictyosomes
B
mitochondria
C
karyotheca
D
chloroplast
Question 194Single Answer
Vacuole is surrounded by
A
plasmalemma
B
cell wall
C
tonoplast
D
plasmodesmata
Question 195Single Answer
The organisms that lack membranes are
A
Viruses
B
Bacteria
C
protozoans
D
Fungi
Question 196Single Answer
The organelle attached to the ER is
A
ribosomes
B
lysosomes
C
golgi bodies
D
proteins
Question 197Single Answer
Golgi bodies help in
A
excertion of steroids
B
storage and secretion
C
translation
D
trnascription
Question 198Single Answer
According to fluid mosaic model plasma membrane is composed of
A
phospholipids, extrinsic and intrinsic proteins
B
phospholipids and oligosaccharides
C
phospholipids and hemicellulose
D
phospholipids and integral glycoproteins
Question 199Single Answer
The presence of .............. organelle is only revealed by electron microscope .
A
chloroplast
B
mitochondria
C
Golgi bodies
D
lysosome
Question 200Single Answer
One of these is the smallest in size
A
Ribosome
B
Lysosome
C
Mitochondria
D
Chloroplast
Question 201Single Answer
The SER helps in building the cell membrane. This process is called
A
protein synthesis
B
membrane abiogenesis
C
membrane biogenesis
D
glycogenesis
Question 202Single Answer
Golgi apparatus is involved in the formation of :
A
lysosome
B
vacuoles
C
plastids
D
mitochondria
Question 203Single Answer
DNA is a component of
A
mitochondria
B
chloroplast
C
cytoplasm
D
(a) and (b) both
Question 204Single Answer
One of these is double membrane organelle
A
lysosome
B
mitochondria
C
nucleus
D
endoplasmic reticulum
Question 205Single Answer
The cell organelle containing the flatterned membrane bounded cisternae are located near the nucleus is
A
mitochondria
B
Golgi
C
centioles
D
nucleous
Question 206Single Answer
The entry of mineral ions in a plant cell during absorption is
A
passive absorption
B
active absorption
C
osmosis
D
encocytosis
Question 207Single Answer
The suicide bags of the cells are
A
mitochondria
B
plastids
C
golgi complex
D
ribosomes
Question 208Single Answer
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in a person’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
A
Safety testing
B
Biopiracy
C
Gene therapy
D
Molecular diagnosis
Question 209Single Answer
Vesicles are essential for the normal functioning of the golgi apparatus because
A
they provide energy for chemical reactions
B
they move proteins and lipids between different parts of the organelle
C
they contribute to the structural integrity of the organelle
D
they produce the sugars that are aded to proteins
Question 210Single Answer
Amino Acid chains built by the ribosomes then move to the
A
golgie apparatus
B
lysosome
C
endoplasmic reticulum
D
mitochondria
Question 211Single Answer
Simple tissues are
A
parenchyma, xylem and collenchyma
B
parenchyma, collenchyma and collenchyma
C
parenchyma, collecnhyma and sclerenchyma
D
parenchyma, xylem and phloem
Question 212Single Answer
The living cells providing tensile strength are
A
parenchyma
B
collenchyma
C
sclerenchyma
D
sclerotic cells
Question 213Single Answer
The energy currency of the cell is
A
ADP
B
ATP
C
NADP
D
FADP
Question 214Single Answer
Consider the following statement and choose the correct code .
Assertion (A) : A true nucleus is absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes.
Reason (R) : An undifferentiated, unorganised filbrillar chromosome exists inside the prokayotic cells.
Code :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 215Single Answer
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List I List II
A. Ribosome 1. Suidical bag of cell
B. lysosome 2. Protein factory of cells
C. Mitochondria 3. Controller of cell
D. Nucleus 4. Power house of cell
Code :
A B C D
A
2 1 4 3
B
4 3 2 1
C
1 4 2 1
D
3 2 1 4
Question 216Single Answer
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the different phase of cell division ?
1. Anaphase
2. Telophase
3. Prophase
4. Metaphase
Code :
A
1 2 3 4
B
1 3 2 4
C
3 1 4 2
D
3 4 1 2
Question 217Single Answer
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List - I List - II
(physiological processes) (Cell organelles)
A. Photosynthesis 1.Plasma membrane
B. Mineral uptake 2. Chloroplast
C. Respiration 3. Mitochondria
D. Protein synthesis 4. Ribosomes
Code :
A B C D
A
1 2 3 4
B
1 2 4 3
C
2 1 3 4
D
2 1 4 3
Question 218Single Answer
Which of the following is not a true statement about chloroplast and mitochondria ?
A
Each contains a small amount of DNA
B
Neither are componmnents of the endomembrane system
C
Both are membrane less organelles
D
Mitochondria do not synthesise all their proteins
Question 219Single Answer
With reference to the animal cell, which of the following statement are correct ?
1. There is no cell wall in animal cell but the cell is coveredby plasma membrane.
2. Chlorophyll is not found in animal cells.
3. Lysosome occurs in plant cells.
4. Almost in all animal cells, centioles exist.
A
2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4
D
All of the above
Question 220Single Answer
Consider the following statements rearding osmosis in animal cells :
1. If the water potential of the solution surrounding the cell is o high, the cell shrinks.
2. If the water potential of the solution surrounding the cell is too low, the cell swells and bursts.
3. It is important to maintain a constant water potential inside the animal body.
4. In animal cells, water potential far exceeds the solute potential.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
A
1 and 2
B
3 only
C
4 only
D
2 and 3
Question 221Single Answer
The living content of cell is called protoplasm It is composed of :
A
Cytoplasm only
B
Cytoplasm and meloplasm
C
Nucleoplasm only
D
Cytoplasm, mucleoplasm and other organelles
Question 222Single Answer
Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. This flexibility in certain parts, like leaf and stem, can be attributed to the abundance of
A
parenchyma
B
collenchyma
C
sclerenchyma
D
xylem and phloem
Question 223Single Answer
In which one of the following antibody formations takes place ?
A
RBCs
B
Blood Platelets
C
Blood Plasma cells
D
Donnan's membrane
Question 224Single Answer
Average life span of human R.B.C is
A
100 days
B
90 days
C
120 days
D
None of these
Question 225Single Answer
Cells which takes part in secondary growth are named as
A
phloem
B
xylem
C
cambium
D
medullary ray
Question 226Single Answer
Blood and lymph are types of
A
muscular tissue
B
epithelial tissue
C
connective tissue
D
permanent tissue
Question 227Single Answer
pH of human blood is
A
7.4
B
6.2
C
9.0
D
7.5 – 8.0
Question 228Single Answer
The camel's hump is composed of a tissue. It is a type of
A
skeletal tissue
B
areolar tissue
C
adipose tissue
D
muscular tissue
Question 229Single Answer
A drop of blood contains .
A
about 10,000 cells
B
about 100,000 cells
C
several million cells
D
less than 25,000 cells
Question 230Single Answer
Human blood contains ................ plasma .
A
35%
B
40%
C
50%
D
55%
Question 231Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
Reason (R): Due to osmosis, water enters into red blood cells.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 232Single Answer
The main function of the inner bark of a woody plant is to
A
transport minerals and water from the roots to the leaves
B
act as a membrane impermeable to water and gas
C
transport food from the leaves to the other part of the plant
D
protect the plant from herbivorous animals
Question 233Single Answer
Which one of the following is modification of parenchyma ?
A
Fibres found in phloem
B
Tracheids
C
Vessel
D
Chlorenchyma
Question 234Single Answer
Which one disease of wheat causes a restriction in the export of wheat from India ?
A
Powdery mildew
B
Karnal bunt
C
Black rust
D
Flag smut
Question 235Single Answer
The study of bones is done under the branch of science called
A
Orology
B
Oseology
C
Sermology
D
Geology
Question 236Single Answer
In human the thickest skin is present in
A
palm
B
sole
C
neck
D
head
Question 237Single Answer
Which of the following is not the vestigial human organ ?
A
Tailbone
B
Eardrum muscles
C
Frontal teeth
D
Appendix
Question 238Single Answer
The total number of bones found in newly born human body ?
A
212
B
206
C
202
D
300
Question 239Single Answer
The bone of the which organ is the longest in the human body ?
A
Spinal cord
B
Thigh
C
Rib cage
D
Ankle - bone
Question 240Single Answer
Contractile proteins are found in
A
bones
B
blood
C
muslces
D
cartilage
Question 241Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of effective teaching?
A
Memorization
B
Active Learning
C
Passive Learning
D
Focus on Test Scores
Question 242Single Answer
Which teaching method emphasizes student collaboration and problem-solving?
A
Lecture Method
B
Inquiry-Based Learning
C
Lecture and Note-taking
D
Drill and Practice
Question 243Single Answer
What does the Constructivist theory of learning emphasize?
A
Passive absorption of information
B
Learners constructing their own knowledge
C
Memorizing facts and figures
D
Teacher-centered instruction
Question 244Single Answer
Which of the following is not an effective classroom management strategy?
A
Clear communication of expectations
B
Positive reinforcement
C
Ignoring disruptive behavior
D
Consistent routines
Question 245Single Answer
Which of the following teaching strategies promotes higher-order thinking?
A
Recall-based questions
B
Lecture-based instruction
C
Problem-solving and critical thinking tasks
D
Multiple-choice questions
Question 246Single Answer
According to Vygotsky, the 'Zone of Proximal Development' refers to:
A
The range of tasks a student can perform alone
B
The range of tasks a student cannot perform, even with assistance
C
The tasks a student can perform with minimal support
D
The range of tasks a student can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable other
Question 247Single Answer
In Bloom's Taxonomy, which of the following is the highest level of cognitive skills?
A
Knowledge
B
Comprehension
C
Synthesis
D
Evaluation
Question 248Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the purpose of differentiated instruction?
A
To maintain uniformity in teaching
B
To meet the varied learning needs of students
C
To make learning more challenging for all students
D
To reduce the workload for the teacher
Question 249Single Answer
The flipped classroom model primarily focuses on:
A
Teacher-centered direct instruction
B
Students learning at home through online resources
C
Learning through textbooks alone
D
Peer-teaching and collaboration
Question 250Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an active learning strategy?
A
Reading a textbook chapter
B
Listening to a lecture
C
Group discussion and debates
D
Memorizing facts
Question 251Single Answer
What is the main focus of learner-centered teaching?
A
Teachers controlling the pace of the lesson
B
Encouraging students to take responsibility for their own learning
C
Focusing solely on lectures
D
Providing a rigid structure for the lesson
Question 252Single Answer
What type of teaching strategy is best for developing critical thinking skills?
A
Rote memorization
B
Lecture-based learning
C
Socratic questioning
D
Listening and note-taking
Question 253Single Answer
In what way does collaborative learning benefit students?
A
It encourages individual work
B
It allows students to learn only from the teacher
C
It helps students develop communication and teamwork skills
D
It focuses on rote memorization
Question 254Single Answer
Which of the following best describes 'scaffolding' in the context of teaching?
A
Giving all students the same level of support
B
Providing initial support that is gradually removed as students gain independence
C
Teaching without any prior assessment
D
Reducing the difficulty of tasks for students
Question 255Single Answer
The concept of 'multiple intelligences' was proposed by:
A
Jean Piaget
B
Howard Gardner
C
Lev Vygotsky
D
Benjamin Bloom
Question 256Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of inquiry-based learning?
A
Direct transmission of facts
B
Emphasis on rote memorization
C
Encouraging curiosity and self-directed investigation
D
Strictly following a teacher's script
Question 257Single Answer
Which is an example of summative assessment?
A
Formative quizzes
B
Student discussions
C
End-of-term exams
D
Peer feedback
Question 258Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a 'constructivist' teaching strategy?
A
Lecture-based instruction
B
Problem-solving tasks
C
Memorization drills
D
Teacher-dominated discussions
Question 259Single Answer
What does the term 'active learning' refer to?
A
Students are passively listening to the teacher
B
Students are actively engaged in learning through participation
C
Students only study at home
D
Teachers provide answers for students
Question 260Single Answer
Integrating language across the curriculum helps students to:
A
Focus on one subject at a time
B
Develop language skills only in language classes
C
Use language skills in multiple subject areas
D
Avoid learning languages
Question 261Single Answer
What is the primary focus of the learning process in education?
A
Memorizing facts
B
Completing assignments
C
Following strict instructions
D
Developing critical thinking and skills
Question 262Single Answer
Which theory emphasizes learning through observation and imitation?
A
Behaviorism
B
Social Learning Theory
C
Constructivism
D
Cognitivism
Question 263Single Answer
What is the role of a teacher in a constructivist classroom?
A
Direct instructor
B
Facilitator of learning
C
Disciplinarian
D
Content deliverer
Question 264Single Answer
Which teaching method encourages students to explore and discover knowledge?
A
Lecture method
B
Inquiry-based learning
C
Drill and practice
D
Rote memorization
Question 265Single Answer
How does formative assessment support learning?
A
It evaluates final performance
B
It ranks students
C
It provides ongoing feedback
D
It tests memory recall
Question 266Single Answer
What is the main objective of experiential learning?
A
Theoretical understanding
B
Memorizing concepts
C
Learning through hands-on experiences
D
Following instructions
Question 267Single Answer
Which teaching strategy is most effective for Domestic Science practical sessions?
A
Demonstration and practice
B
Lecture-based teaching
C
Written assignments
D
Group discussions
Question 268Single Answer
What is the purpose of scaffolding in teaching?
A
To make tasks easier
B
To assess student performance
C
To provide temporary support for learning
D
To enforce discipline
Question 269Single Answer
Which factor most affects student engagement in learning?
A
Strict classroom rules
B
Lengthy lectures
C
Relevant and meaningful content
D
Standardized tests
Question 270Single Answer
What is the primary goal of differentiated instruction?
A
Uniform teaching for all
B
Simplifying content
C
Addressing diverse learning needs
D
Reducing classroom activities
Question 271Single Answer
Which learning theory focuses on rewards and punishments?
A
Behaviorism
B
Constructivism
C
Cognitivism
D
Humanism
Question 272Single Answer
How does collaborative learning benefit students?
A
Promotes teamwork and communication
B
Encourages competition
C
Simplifies individual tasks
D
Reduces teacher involvement
Question 273Single Answer
What is the role of feedback in the learning process?
A
To criticize students
B
To guide and improve performance
C
To assign grades
D
To enforce rules
Question 274Single Answer
Which teaching method is best for teaching cooking techniques in Domestic Science?
A
Lecture method
B
Hands-on demonstration
C
Written tests
D
Group discussions
Question 275Single Answer
What does Bloom’s Taxonomy emphasize in education?
A
Memorization only
B
Physical skills development
C
Hierarchical levels of cognitive skills
D
Emotional intelligence
Question 276Single Answer
How does active learning enhance student understanding?
A
Through passive listening
B
Through rote learning
C
By reducing interaction
D
By engaging students in activities
Question 277Single Answer
What is the significance of reflective teaching?
A
To follow a fixed curriculum
B
To deliver content faster
C
To enforce discipline
D
To evaluate and improve teaching practices
Question 278Single Answer
Which strategy helps students retain Domestic Science concepts?
A
Practical application
B
Repetitive memorization
C
Lengthy theoretical lectures
D
Strict assessments
Question 279Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of a lesson plan?
A
To enforce classroom rules
B
To reduce teaching time
C
To evaluate student performance
D
To guide teaching and learning
Question 280Single Answer
Which approach fosters critical thinking in Domestic Science classes?
A
Rote memorization
B
Problem-based learning
C
Direct instruction
D
Standardized testing
Question 281Single Answer
What is the role of motivation in the learning process?
A
To encourage student engagement
B
To enforce discipline
C
To simplify content
D
To reduce assessments
Question 282Single Answer
Which teaching aid is most effective for Domestic Science practicals?
A
Kitchen equipment
B
Textbooks
C
Whiteboards
D
Projectors
Question 283Single Answer
What is the primary benefit of cooperative learning?
A
Individual competition
B
Simplified assessments
C
Reduced teacher effort
D
Peer interaction and collaboration
Question 284Single Answer
How does inquiry-based learning benefit Domestic Science students?
A
Encourages memorization
B
Promotes curiosity and exploration
C
Simplifies tasks
D
Reduces practical work
Question 285Single Answer
What is the role of a teacher in a student-centered classroom?
A
Facilitator and guide
B
Sole knowledge provider
C
Strict disciplinarian
D
Content memorizer
Question 286Single Answer
Which learning strategy involves students teaching each other?
A
Direct instruction
B
Peer teaching
C
Lecture method
D
Rote learning
Question 287Single Answer
What is the main purpose of summative assessment?
A
To provide ongoing feedback
B
To enforce discipline
C
To simplify content
D
To evaluate student achievement
Question 288Single Answer
Which teaching method is most suitable for teaching nutrition concepts?
A
Demonstration
B
Discussion and analysis
C
Written tests
D
Memorization
Question 289Single Answer
What is the significance of setting learning objectives?
A
To increase classroom rules
B
To reduce student participation
C
To guide teaching and learning outcomes
D
To simplify assessments
Question 290Single Answer
Which learning theory emphasizes active knowledge construction?
A
Constructivism
B
Behaviorism
C
Cognitivism
D
Humanism
Question 291Single Answer
How does a teacher promote inclusivity in a Domestic Science classroom?
A
Uniform teaching methods
B
Strict discipline
C
Addressing diverse learning needs
D
Reducing practical sessions
Question 292Single Answer
What is the role of classroom observation in teaching?
A
To enforce rules
B
To assess and improve teaching strategies
C
To simplify content
D
To reduce student interaction
Question 293Single Answer
Which teaching strategy enhances practical skills in Domestic Science?
A
Lecture-based teaching
B
Written assignments
C
Hands-on practice
D
Group discussions
Question 294Single Answer
What is the primary goal of constructivist teaching?
A
Memorization of facts
B
Active knowledge construction
C
Strict discipline
D
Standardized testing
Question 295Single Answer
How does feedback enhance learning in Domestic Science?
A
By criticizing errors
B
By enforcing rules
C
By assigning grades
D
By guiding skill improvement
Question 296Single Answer
Which teaching method encourages creativity in Domestic Science?
A
Rote learning
B
Lecture method
C
Project-based learning
D
Standardized tests
Question 297Single Answer
What is the significance of a learner-centered approach?
A
Teacher dominates instruction
B
Strict discipline
C
Focus on memorization
D
Students actively participate in learning
Question 298Single Answer
Which factor is critical for effective learning in Domestic Science?
A
Practical application of concepts
B
Strict rules
C
Lengthy lectures
D
Standardized tests
Question 299Single Answer
What is the role of a teacher in experiential learning?
A
Direct instructor
B
Content memorizer
C
Disciplinarian
D
Facilitator of experiences
Question 300Single Answer
Which teaching strategy promotes critical thinking in Domestic Science?