Latest DSSSB PGT Commerce Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English Language & Comprehension, General Awareness, Hindi Language & Comprehension, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Arithmetic & Numerical Ability, Commerce
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 5Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 6Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 7Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 8Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 9Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 10Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 11Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 12Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 13Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 14Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 15Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
General Awareness
Question 21Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 22Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 23Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 24Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 26Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 27Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 28Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 29Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 30Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 31Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 32Single Answer
What is the national game of the United States of America ?
A
water polo
B
Rugby
C
Polo
D
baseball
Question 33Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 34Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 35Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 36Single Answer
Which state is hosting the National SARAS Mela 2025?
A
Karnataka
B
Maharashtra
C
Kerala
D
Gujarat
Question 37Single Answer
Which ministry released the ‘UDISE Plus’ Report in 2025?
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Education
C
Ministry of Culture
D
Ministry of Urban Development
Question 38Single Answer
Which city reported a surge in Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS) cases in August 2025?
A
Jerusalem
B
Gaza
C
Tehran
D
Damascus
Question 39Single Answer
Where was the maiden Exercise Aarogya Setu organized by the Indian Army?
A
Sikkim
B
Assam
C
Tripura
D
Odisha
Question 40Single Answer
Which ministry launched the Udyam Sakhi Portal?
A
Ministry of Science and Technology
B
Ministry of Finance
C
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D
Ministry of Commerce
Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 41Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 42Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 43Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 44Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 45Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 46Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 47Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 48Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A
समास
B
अव्यय
C
उपसर्ग
D
प्रत्यय
Question 49Single Answer
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A
प्र
B
त
C
प्रख
D
आत
Question 50Single Answer
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A
सखी
B
शाखा
C
राखी
D
साक्षी
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Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 51Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 52Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 53Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 54Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 55Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 56Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 57Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 58Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 59Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 60Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 63Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 64Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 65Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 66Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 68Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 69Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 70Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Arithmetic & Numerical Ability
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 98Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 99Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 100Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Commerce
Question 101Single Answer
The world’s first electronic stock market is :
A
KOSPI
B
Nikkei
C
NASDAQ
D
Dow Jones
Question 102Single Answer
The Human Development Index ( HDI ) is introduced by :
A
UNDP
B
UNICEF
C
IMF
D
World Bank
Question 103Single Answer
Examine the following statements and choose the correct code Assertion (A) : American style option, compared to European style, provides More freedom to option holders in exercising the option. Reason (R) : American style option, can be exercised only at a specified date. Which is generally the expiration date. Codes :
A
Both (a) and (R) are correct
B
Both (a) and (R) are wrong
C
(a) is correct, but ( R) is wrong
D
(a) is not correct, but ( R) is
Question 104Single Answer
From the statements given below, identify the correct code : Statement ( I) : The key strategy behind acquiring a company is to create share Holder’s value. Statement ( II) : Conglomeration is a merger between two companies that have Common business areas. Statement ( III) : MRTP act got replaced by the competition Act, 2002 in India. Codes :
A
All the three statements are correct
B
Statements ( I) and (II) only are correct
C
Statements ( I) and (III) only are correct
D
Statements ( II) only is correct
Question 105Single Answer
From the following identity the tools of fiscal policy :
(i) Public expenditure
(ii) Open market operations
(iii) Deficit financing
(iv) Taxation
(v) Reserve requirements Codes :
A
(i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
B
(i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
C
(ii) and (v)
D
(i), (iii), and (iv)
Question 106Single Answer
The basic difference between a static budget and flexible budget is that :
A
A flexible budget considers only variable costs but a static budget considersAll costs.
B
Flexible budget allow management latitude in meeting goals, whereas static Budget is based on fixed standards.
C
A flexible budget is applicable for a single department only but a static bugeT for entire production facility.
D
A flexible budget can be prepared for any production level Range but a static budget is based on one specific level of production.
Question 107Single Answer
A retiring partner continues to be liable for oblations incurred after his ret Irement :
A
If unpaid amount is transferred to his loan account.
B
If he does not give public notice.
C
If he starts a similar business else where.
D
In all the situations till he survives.
Question 108Single Answer
In what order, the following assets are shown in the balance sheet of a Company ?
(i) Trade receivables (ii) Cash
(iii) Furniture and fittings (iv) Investment in shares and debentures Codes :
A
(ii), (i), (iv), (ii
B
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
C
(iii), (iv),(i), (ii)
D
(iv), (iii),(ii), (i)
Question 109Single Answer
When opening stock is : 50,000, closing stock is : 60,000 and the cost of Goods sold is : 2,20,000, the stock turnover ratio is :
A
2 times
B
3 times
C
4 times
D
5 times
Question 110Single Answer
If : stock turnover ratio is = 6 times
Average stock = : 8,000
Selling price = 25% above cost
What is the amount of gross profit ?
A
RS 2,000
B
RS 4,000
C
RS 10,000
D
RS 12,000
Question 111Single Answer
There is acute shortage of electricity in some of the states in India this Reflects a problem in which type of business environment ?
A
Economic
B
Demographic
C
Politico – legal
D
Socio - cultural
Question 112Single Answer
Match the items given in list –I and list –II : List –I List – II
(a) Economic liberali- (i) It – enabled services
Sation
(b) Out sourcing (ii) SFIO
(c) Corporate frauds (iii) Macro Economic stability
(d) Second generation (iv) Increased Competition
reforms
Indicate the correct combination : Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Question 113Single Answer
Which of the following is true ?
A
A consumer court setup under the Consumer protection Act, does not have The power to punish for its contempt.
B
Professional services are outside the purview of the CPA.
C
A consumer court cannot force a person indulging in misleading advertising In misleading advertising to confess his quit.
D
None of the above
Question 114Single Answer
Match the items/ terms given in list – I with those given in and list – II : List – I List – II
(a) BIS (i) Print Media
(b) CERC (ii) Minimum support price for agricultural products.
(c) CACP (iii) Quality of manufactured products.
(d) PCI (iv) Comparative product testing
Indicate the correct answer : Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
D
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Question 115Single Answer
Which one among the following is not the salient feature of Since 1991 ?
A
Enormous expansion of the private sector.
B
Redefining the role of public sector.
C
Limited exposure of Indian industry to foreign competition
D
Pruning of the list of items reserved for SSI units.
Question 116Single Answer
A, a partner in a firm, is drawing : 500 regularly on the 16th of every Month. He will have to pay interest at the given rate in a year on : 6,000 For the total period of :
A
5 months
B
6 months
C
7 months
D
12 months
Question 117Single Answer
Subsequent expenditures that extend the useful life, improve the quality of Output, or reduce operating costs of an existing asset beyond their original ly Estimated levels are :
A
Capital expenditures
B
Revenue expenditures
C
Deferred Revenue expenditures
D
None of the above
Question 118Single Answer
Marginal - costing technique is useful for :
A
Make or buy decisions
B
Profit planning
C
Shut – down decisions
D
All of the above
Question 119Single Answer
Which one is not a feature of budgetary control ?
A
A tool for management control.
B
An instrument of delegation and authority
C
An instrument for evaluating the overall performances.
D
A statement of budget and forecasts.
Question 120Single Answer
The Debt - Equity Ratio of a company is 2 : 1 In this Following : List –I List – II
(a) Issue of equity shares (i) No change on the ratio
(b) Cash received from debtors (ii) Reduce the ratio
(c) Redemption of debentures (iii) No change on the ratio
(d) Purchased goods on credit (iv) Reduce the ratio Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 2 3 4
B
2 3 4 1
C
1 3 4 2
D
2 4 1 3
Question 121Single Answer
Direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds is undertaken by
A
NBFCs
B
RBI
C
SEBI
D
All of the above
Question 122Single Answer
In the call/ notice money market, which of the following -ed to trade ?
A
All Banks, Primary Dealers and Mutual Funds
B
All Corporates
C
Only Commercial Banks
D
All of the above
Question 123Single Answer
Match the items of list –I and list –II and select the correct answer List –I List – II
(i) Private ownership and (a) Secondary market
Free Enterprise
(ii) Government ownership and (b) Capitalism
Central Authority
(iii) The market for the sale and (c) Primary Market
Purchase of previously issued
(iv) The market for new long term (d) Socialism
capital Codes :
A
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (d) (a) (c)
B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
C
(b) (d) (c) (a)
D
(a) (c) (b) (d)
Question 124Single Answer
The apex consumer court in India is referred to as
A
The Consumer Education and research Centre
B
The Consumer Unity and Trust society.
C
The Consumer Unity and Trust society.
D
None of the above
Question 125Single Answer
Who is Chairman of 13th Finance commission ?
A
Dr. C. Rangarajan
B
Mr. Vimal Jalan
C
Dr. Vijay C. Kelkar
D
None of the above
Question 126Single Answer
Insurance expenses paid to bring an equipment from the place To the place of installation is a type of
A
Revenue expenditure
B
Capital expenditure
C
Deferred revenue expenditure
D
Operating expense
Question 127Single Answer
ABC Ltd was incorporated with an authorized share Capital of : 1,00,000Equity share of : 10 each. The Board of Directors the company decided toAllot 10,000 shares credited as fully paid to the promoters of the company For their services. Which account should be debited in the books of ABC ltd
A
Promoter’s account
B
Services Account
C
Goodwill account
D
Share Capital Account
Question 128Single Answer
In a reconstruction scheme, the reducholders in respect of capital may Take the form of
A
Reducing the liability of the shareholders in respect of any unpaid amo- Unt on shares held by them.
B
Paying - off any paid – up share capital which is in excess of its require-Ment.
C
Cancelling any paid- up share capital which is lost or unrepresented by Available assets.
D
All of the above
Question 129Single Answer
While determine the normal rate of return for the valuation of share in market Value Method, which of the following should be taken into consideration ?
A
The degree of rick involved.
B
The current rate of interest on gilt-edged securities
C
Weighted average cost of capital
D
All of the above
Question 130Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Want – satisfying power of a commodity is called its utility. Reason (R) :Utility may not have the characteristic of morality. Codes :
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct
B
(A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
C
Both (A) and (R) are not correct
D
(R) is correct, but (A) is not correctAns. (a)
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following denote the structural changes in Indian economy ?
A
Primary sector contribution has gone down.
B
Service sector contribution has gone up
C
Secondary sector has not changed much
D
All of the
Question 132Single Answer
Broad Money has to be sensitized through :
A
CRR
B
SLR
C
Repo Rate
D
All of these
Question 133Single Answer
Which one is not an element of legal environment ?
A
Act of Parliamentarians in Lok Sabah
B
Indian Contract Act, 1872
C
Indian Partnership Act, 1932
D
\Negotiable instruments Act, 1881
Question 134Single Answer
Out of the following Which are foure dimensions of Human Development Index ?
(i) Life Expectancy (ii) Literacy Level
(iii) Success Rate of Marriages (iv) Standard of Living
(v) Crime Rate (vi) Corruption Level
(vii) Economic Entitlement (viii) Foreign Visits Codes :
A
(i),(ii), (vi) and (viii)
B
(i),(ii), (iv) and (vii)
C
(ii), (iii), (vi)and (vii)
D
(iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)
Question 135Single Answer
Public Enterprise is defined as :
A
An organization run by joint efforts of Centre and State Goverments.
B
An organization which caters to the needs relating to public utilites.
C
An organization in which capital is invested by public.
D
An organization owned and managed by public authorities for definite set Of public purposes.
Question 136Single Answer
Match list –I with list –II and select the correct Answer . List –I List – II
(i) Measurement of in (a) Accrues to the equity of owners come
(ii) Recognition of expen (b) Recognition of revenuese
(iii) Basis of realiza- (c) Mathching revenue with expensesation
(iv) Identification of rev (d) Accounting periodenue Codes :
A
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
B
(b) (a) (c) (d)
C
(c) (d) (a) (b)
D
(c) (d) (b) (a)
Question 137Single Answer
Consider the following items :
(i) Debentures (ii) Prepaid rent
(iii) Interest accrued (iv) Bank overdraft
Which of them are current liabilities ?
A
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B
(iv)
C
(ii), (iii) and (iv)
D
(i), (ii), and (iii)
Question 138Single Answer
Conversion cost is the sum of :
A
Indirect wages and factory overhead
B
Direct wages, direct expenses and factory overhead
C
Direct material cost and indirect wages
D
Prime cost and selling & distribution overhead
Question 139Single Answer
Assertion (A) :Premium received on issue of shares is credited to sharesPremium account but not to profit and Loss account. Reason (R) :Since share premium is not a trading profit, It is not distributed To shares holders.
A
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation to (A).
B
(A) is false but (R) is correct.
C
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation to (A).
D
(A) is correct but (R) is false.
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following :
(i) Basic defensive and interval ratio (ii) Current ratio
(iii) Super quick ratio (iv) Quick ratio
Arrange these ratios in sequence to reflect the liquidity in descending order.
A
(ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
B
(i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
C
(iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
D
(iii), (iv), (i) and (ii)
Question 141Single Answer
Environmental degeneration does not consist of :
A
Land degeneration and soil erosion
B
Problem of over grazing and ecological degeneration
C
Floods
D
None of the above
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is not the main objective of “ Fiscal Policy of India”
A
To increase liquidity in economy
B
To promote price stability
C
To minimize the in – equality in income and wealth
D
To promote employment opportunities
Question 143Single Answer
Liberalization means :
A
Reducing number of reserved industries from 17 to 8
B
Liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restriction
C
Opening up economy to the world by attaining international competitivenes
D
Free determination of interest rate
Question 144Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Industrialization of an economy is considered synonymous With growth Reasoning (R) :The transfer of resources from agrarian to industrial may be Capital or lab our or both. Codes :
A
Both (A ) and ( R ) are true and ( R ) is correct explanation of ( A).
B
Both (A ) and ( R ) are true but ( R ) is not the correct explanation of ( A).
C
(A) is true but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false but (R) is true .
Question 145Single Answer
Globalization is the term used to describe process of removal of restriction On Which one of the following ?
A
Foreign trade
B
Investment
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 146Single Answer
Interest on loan taken for the purchase of fixed assets is a :
A
Revenue Expenditure
B
Capital Expenditure
C
Deferred Revenue Expenditure
D
Capital loss
Question 147Single Answer
DualAspect Concept results in the following accounting equation :
A
Revenue = Expenses
B
Capital + Profits = Assets + Expenses
C
Capital + Liabilities = Assets
D
capital + drawing = owner ‘s Equity
Question 148Single Answer
Match the items in Column – 1 with the items in Column – 2 : Column – 1 Column – 2
(a) Materiality concept (i) The same accounting method used by a
Firm from one period to another
(b) going Concern Concept (ii) An inappropriate assumption of a firm
Being bankrupt
(c) Historical Cost concept (iii) A normal basis used for accounting
Assets.
(d) Consistency concept (iv) relates to the importance of an item or
Event Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Question 149Single Answer
X’ ltd. Has a liquid ratio of 2 : 1 if its stock is : 40,000 and its current Liabilities are of : 1 Lac, its ratio will be :
A
1.4 times
B
2.4 times
C
1.2 times
D
3.4 times
Question 150Single Answer
Comparison of the current year with the financial statements of the Current year with the performance of previous years of the same firm’ , is Know as :
A
Trend Analysis
B
Horizontal Analysis
C
Intra – firm comparison
D
All of the above
Question 151Single Answer
Match the items of List –I with List –II : List –I List – II
(a) Industries Development Regulation (i) 1947
Act
(b) Import and Export Control Act (ii) 1948
(c) foreign Exchange Management Act (iii) 1951
(d) Factories Act (iv) 1999
Identify the correct combination : Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
D
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Question 152Single Answer
Which among the following is not a correct sequential combination ?
A
Macro Environment ➝ Economic Environment ➝ National Income ➝ pattern of Income Distribution
B
Business Environment ➝ Internal Environment ➝ Business Ethics ➝ payment Of Fair Wages
C
Business Environment ➝ External Environment ➝ Micro Environment ➝ Suppli-Ers
D
Micro Environment ➝External Environment ➝ Customers ➝ Prospects of Business Development
Question 153Single Answer
Statement – I :The industrial policy of the government of India is aimed at Increasing the tempo of industrial development. Statement – II :After the New Industrial policy – 1991, the balance of Trade For India has always been positive. Codes :
A
Statement (I) is correct, but (II) is incorrect
B
Statement (II) is correct, but (I) is incorrect
C
Both Statement (I) and (II) are correct
D
Both Statement (I) and (II) are in correct
Question 154Single Answer
Current Ratio 2.5, Liquid Ratio 1.5 and Working Capital : 60000. What is Current assets ?
A
RS 60000
B
RS 80,000
C
RS 1,00,000
D
RS 1,20,000
Question 155Single Answer
X,Y,Z are sharing profits in the ratio of 6 : 5 : 3 A is admitted into partner-Ship for 1/8th share. The sacrificing ratio of X , Y, and Z is :
A
Equal
B
6 : 5 : 3
C
5/14, 4/14, 5/14
D
4 : 5: 5
Question 156Single Answer
Accounting information given by a company :
Total assests turnover 3 times
Net profit margin total assets 10% : 1,00,000
The net profit is
A
RS 10,000
B
RS 15,000
C
RS 25,000
D
RS 30,000
Question 157Single Answer
“ Make sufficient provisions for future losses, but do not anticipate future Profits.’ This statement is in accordance to the concept of :
A
Matching
B
Objectivity
C
Conservatism
D
Materiality
Question 158Single Answer
When a firm is dissolved , profit or loss on realization is shared by the pa-Tners :
A
Equal
B
In the ratio of their capital balances
C
In the profit sharing ratio
D
In the ratio laid down in Garner Vs. Murray
Question 159Single Answer
The inverse relationship between variations in the price and quantity dema-Ded is not due to :
A
Income Effects
B
Substitution Effects
C
Future Expectations
D
Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility
Question 160Single Answer
Consumer is said to be in equilibrium, maximizing his total utility, when :
A
The marginal utilites of the goods consumed are equal.
B
The proportions of the marginal utilites and respective price are equal.
C
The consumer gets full satisfaction from the consumption.
D
The consumer feels satisfied with his expenditure of the various goods.
Question 161Single Answer
GDP at factor cost is :
A
p (Q) + p (S)
B
GDP – IT – S
C
GDP + DT + S
D
GDP – DT + S
Question 162Single Answer
which one is not the main objective of fiscal policy India ?
A
To increase liquidity in the economy.
B
To promote price stability.
C
To minimize the inequalities of income and wealth.
D
To promote employment opportunities
Question 163Single Answer
which one is not an element of internal environment ?
A
Marketing Capability
B
Operational Capability
C
Money and Capital market
D
Personnel Capability
Question 164Single Answer
Out of the following, Which four benefits are available to host countries from
MNCs ?
(i) Transfer of technology
(ii) Learning of business mannerism
(iii) Strategic information sharing
(iv) Creation of jobs
(v) Entertainment
(vi) Better utilization of resources
(vii) Enhancing Social Contacts
(viii) Improved competition in local economy
A
(i) (iii) (v) (vii)
B
(ii) (iv) (vi) (viii)
C
(i) (vi) (vi) (viii)
D
(iii) (vi) (vii) (viii)
Question 165Single Answer
Environmental degradation does not consist of :
A
Land degradation and soil erosion
B
Problem of overgrazing and ecological degradation
C
Floods
D
None of the above
Question 166Single Answer
which one of the following concepts is used as und in the preparation of Funds Flow Statement ?
A
Current Assets
B
Working Capital
C
Cash
D
All Financial Resources
Question 167Single Answer
Window dressing is prohibited due to :
A
Conservative Convention
B
Convention of Disclosure
C
Convention of Materiality
D
Arrear of book accounts
Question 168Single Answer
Assertion (A) :Ratio analysis is one of the tools employed to know the fin-Ancial health of a concern : Reason (R) :Ratio analysis is not the only technique available to take invest Ment decision : Codes :
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the incorrect explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
D
A) is false , but (R) is true
Question 169Single Answer
which of the following relate to measures of non – performance of a concern
(i) Customer Satisfaction (ii) Business process improvement
(iii) Economic Value added (iv) Learning organization
Choose the right combination
A
(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iv) (iii)
C
(iv) (i) (iii)
D
(i) (ii) (iv)
Question 170Single Answer
Consider the following parties :
(i) Secured creditors
(ii) Unsecured creditors
(iii) Partners who have granted loans
(iv) Partners who have contributed over and above profit sharing ratio.Arrange them in correct sequence in the event of dissolution of a firm.
A
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
D
(ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Question 171Single Answer
By Which Act, the government checks restrictive trade practices ?
A
FEMA – 1999
B
Consumer Protection Act, 1986
C
Industrial Policy Act, 1991
D
none of the above
Question 172Single Answer
In which year the new Industrial policy was announced ?
A
1997
B
1951
C
1991
D
1998
Question 173Single Answer
The Narasimham Committee made separate recommendations for the reforms Of ……..
A
Manufacturing sector
B
Banking sector
C
Agriculture sector
D
Insurance Sector
Question 174Single Answer
Match the following : Books Authors
(a)India and Economic (i) Bhagwatij
Reforms
(b) Development Planning (ii) Chakravarty. S.
The Indian Experience
(c) India : Economic (iii) Drenz, and Amartyasen
Development and
Social Opportunity
(d) Fiscal policy of Underd- (iv) Chelliah, RJ.
Eveloped Countries Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i
D
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Question 175Single Answer
which of the following accounting equations is not correct ?
A
Assets Liabilities = Equity
B
Assets Equity = Liabilities
C
Assets + Liabilities = Equity
D
Liabilities + Equity = Assets
Question 176Single Answer
which one of the following statements is correct ?
A
Increases in Liabilities are credits and decreases are debits.
B
Increases in Assets are credits and decreases are debits.
C
Increases in capital are debits. and decreases are credits
D
Increases in expenses are credits and decreases are debits
Question 177Single Answer
A and B are partners in a firm sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 2 They admit C into partnership for share and the new ratio between A And B is 2 : 1 The sacrificing ratio is :
A
1 : 1
B
2 : 1
C
3 : 1
D
2 : 3
Question 178Single Answer
Arrange the following liabilities in the order of company balance sheet.
(i) Bank Overdraft (ii) Bank Loan
(iii) share Capital (iv) Provision for Taxation
A
i, ii, iii, iv
B
iv, iii, ii, i
C
iii, ii, i, iv
D
iii, ii, iv, I
Question 179Single Answer
Intrinsic value of a share is given by :
A
Total net assets/No of shares
B
Total assets/No of shares
C
Share capital/No of shares
D
Market capitalization /No of shares
Question 180Single Answer
When demand curve is rectangular Hyperbola, the elasticity of demand will Be :
A
Perfectly elastic
B
Unit elastic
C
Perfectly inelastic
D
Highly elastic
Question 181Single Answer
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A
Henry Fayol
B
Elton Mayo
C
Chester Bernard
D
F. W. Taylor
Question 182Single Answer
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A
Promoters
B
Board of Directors
C
Debenture holders
D
Government
Question 183Single Answer
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A
Equity Shareholders
B
Preference Shareholders
C
Debenture Holders
D
Secured Creditors
Question 184Single Answer
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A
Subrogation
B
Utmost good faith
C
Contribution
D
Average clause
Question 185Single Answer
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A
Capital expenditure
B
Revenue expenditure
C
Deferred revenue expenditure
D
Capital loss
Question 186Single Answer
EPS is calculated as –
A
EBIT / Equity shares
B
EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C
EAT / Equity shares
D
EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Question 187Single Answer
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A
Line
B
Line and staff
C
Functional
D
Matrix
Question 188Single Answer
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A
To machines
B
To paper work
C
To man
D
To production
Question 189Single Answer
Standard costing is a technique of –
A
Planning
B
Organising
C
Coordination
D
Control
Question 190Single Answer
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A
Prospectus
B
Articles of Association
C
Memorandum of Association
D
None of the above
Question 191Single Answer
For the following statements of Assertions (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code from the alternatives given:Assertion (A): Liberalization means corporatization of departmental undertakings and public undertakings.Reasoning (R): Freedom to public sector undertakings to access capital market. Codes:
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
C
(A) is true but (R) is false.
D
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Question 192Single Answer
Match the items of List-I with List-II and indicate the correct code:
List-I List-II
(a)Fiscal Policy (i) Mitigation of National hazards
(b)Technology Policy (ii) Balance of Payments
(c)Macro-Economic Policy (iii) Fiscal Federalism
(d)Monetary Policy (iv) Inflation Codes:
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C
(iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D
(ii) (i) (iv )(iii)
Question 193Single Answer
Which of the following factor is not directly responsible for slowing down the growth of infrastructure?
A
High level of perceived political risk.
B
High level of sunk cost.
C
High probability of time and cost over-run.
D
Introduction of competition in all sectors.
Question 194Single Answer
Out of the following which is not a major component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP)?
A
Personal Consumption Expenditure
B
Gross Private Domestic Investment
C
Net Personal Income
D
Net Exports
Question 195Single Answer
Which of the following is not a forum of Consumer Dispute Redressal System?
A
Local forum
B
Distirct forum
C
State forum (State Commission)
D
National Commission
Question 196Single Answer
The first macro-environmental force that a business firm generally monitors is
A
Economic environment
B
Demographic environment
C
Technological environment
D
International, Political environment
Question 197Single Answer
Ram and Shyam are partners in a firm with capital of Rs. 4,80,000 and Rs. 3,10,000 respectively. They admitted Ganesh as a partner with share of profit. Ganesh brings Rs. 3,00,000 as his capital. Ganesh’s share of goodwill will be
A
Rs. 1,10,000
B
Rs. 27,000
C
Rs. 17,500
D
Rs. 70,000
Question 198Single Answer
Which of the following is deferred revenue expenditure?
A
Legal expenses incurred on the purchase of land.
B
Expenses on a mega advertisement campaign while launching a new product.
C
Expenses incurred on installation of a new machine.
D
Wages paid for construction of an additional room in a building.
Question 199Single Answer
The amount of depreciation charged to Profit and Loss Account varies every year under:
A
Fixed installment method
B
Annuity Method
C
Diminishing method
D
Insurance policy method
Question 200Single Answer
Ordinal utility analysis of the consumer’s behavior is considered superior to the cardinal utility analysis mainly due to :
A
Assumption of the rationality of the consumer’s behavior.
B
Possibility of the derivation of the consumer's demand.
C
Bifurcation of price effects into income and substitution effects.
D
Consideration of the available limited resources for satisfying
consumer’s demand.
Question 201Single Answer
Who is the fiscal agent and advisor to government in monetary and finan-Cial matters?
A
NABARD
B
SBI
C
RBI
D
None
Question 202Single Answer
Match the items of list –I with the items of list –II : List –I List – II
(a) National Manufacturing (i) Industrial Licensing policy
Competitiveness Council
(b) National Investment (ii) Eleventh Five Year plan
Fund (NIP)
(c) The Industries (Devel- (iii) The Competition Act, 2002
Opment and Regulation)
Act(IDRA), 1951
(d) Increase in Employment (iv) Public Sector Undertakings Codes :
A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
B
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Question 203Single Answer
Kyoto protocol pertains to :
A
Capital formulation
B
Globalization
C
Environment protection
D
Unemployment reduction
Question 204Single Answer
Uruguay Round pertains to
A
WTO
B
IMF
C
GATT
D
World Bank
Question 205Single Answer
which of the following are outside the scope of the Consumer Protect-Ion Act, 1986 ?
A
Newspaper industry
B
Services provided under contract of personal service
C
Banking industry
D
Both (A) and (B)
Question 206Single Answer
which of the following is ‘ true’ regarding the prudence Principal of Acco-Unting ?
A
Taking care of the future losses
B
Taking care of the future profit
C
Taking care of bad debts
D
Taking care of inventory and depreciation
Question 207Single Answer
which of the following is a non – operating expense ?
A
Salary of managing director
B
Depreciation
C
Advertisement Expenditure
D
Interest on loan
Question 208Single Answer
A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 :2 their books show Goodwill at : 3000. C is admitted with RS th share of profits and brings : 10,000 as his capital. But he is not able to bring in cash for his share Goodwill 3,000. How will you teat this ?
A
Goodwill is raised by : 12000
B
C will remain as debtor for : 3,000
C
C’s A/c is debited debtor for : 3,000
D
Goodwill is raised by : 9,000
Question 209Single Answer
If there is mutual indebtedness between the transferor company and the Transferee company in business combination, which of the following is correct
A
No adjustment is required in the books of the transferor company.
B
adjustment is required in the books of the transferor company.
C
No adjustment is required in the books of the transferor company.
D
None of the above
Question 210Single Answer
Improvement of profit - volume ratio can be done by :
A
Increasing selling price
B
Altering sales mixture
C
Reducing variable cost
D
All of the above
Question 211Single Answer
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A
Ethical consciousness
B
Scale economies and pricing power
C
Technology adoption and innovation
D
Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Question 212Single Answer
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A
Predatory pricing
B
Export subsidies
C
Dumping
D
Low cost financing
Question 213Single Answer
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A
Automatic route
B
Government route
C
FIPB route
D
DPIIT route
Question 214Single Answer
Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :
A
Market size
B
Demand conditions
C
Internationally competitive suppliers
D
Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Question 215Single Answer
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A
Vendor’s debtors account
B
Vendor’s suspense account
C
Debtors account
D
Creditors account
Question 216Single Answer
When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A
Capital reserve on consolidation
B
Goodwill on consolidation
C
Minority interest
D
Post acquisition profit
Question 217Single Answer
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A
Adjustment
B
Amortization
C
Capitalization
D
Quasi equity
Question 218Single Answer
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A
4 : 3
B
13 : 8
C
8 :13
D
4 :17
Question 219Single Answer
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A
Present value of all expected future cash flows
B
All expected future cash flows
C
Percent value of all expected future profits
D
All expected future profits
Question 220Single Answer
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A
Inelastic
B
Elastic
C
Unitary elastic
D
Zero elastics
Question 221Single Answer
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A
α + β > 1
B
K + L > 1
C
α + β < 1
D
K + L < 1
Question 222Single Answer
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A
Formation of cartels
B
Interdependent decision-making
C
Attaining economies of scale
D
Formation of duopoly
Question 223Single Answer
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A
Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B
Symmetric information between managers and investors
C
Outside information
D
Asymmetric information among investors only
Question 224Single Answer
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :
A
14.40%
B
72%
C
16%
D
55.56%
Question 225Single Answer
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A
Bird in hand theory
B
Investor rationality theory
C
100 percent retention theory
D
Residual theory
Question 226Single Answer
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A
Revolving structure
B
Amortized structure
C
Collateralized structure
D
Self-liquidating structure
Question 227Single Answer
For a very large sample size the ratio between and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size 𝓷 :
A
25
B
5
C
4
D
16
Question 228Single Answer
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A
The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B
There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C
Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D
There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Question 229Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A
Co-efficients of variance
B
If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C
If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D
Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Question 230Single Answer
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A
B
0.5
C
D
2
Question 231Single Answer
Companies Act is governed by
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
Partnership Act
D
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Question 232Single Answer
Own shares purchased by a company with a view to reduce its capital is called
A
sale
B
Purchase
C
buy-back
D
Private placement
Question 233Single Answer
A company in which there is only one member is called
A
one member company
B
one person company
C
single company
D
Individual company
Question 234Single Answer
Shares which have preferential rights are called
A
Equity share
B
Preference share
C
Debenture
D
Bond
Question 235Single Answer
Which of the following is the registered capital of the company ?
A
Nominal capital
B
Authorised capital
C
Share capital
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 236Single Answer
Capital which is called only at the time of winding-up of the company is called
A
Capital reserve
B
Reserve capital
C
Secure capital
D
Authorised capital
Question 237Single Answer
Which kind of preference share entitIes its holders to receive arrear of dividends of previous years ?
A
Cumulative preference share
B
Non-cumulative preference share
C
Convertible preference share
D
Non-convertible dividend share
Question 238Single Answer
Which document is an invitation offer to public to subscribe for company’s share ?
A
Red herring prospectus
B
Prospectus
C
In lieu of prospectus
D
None of the above
Question 239Single Answer
The balance of share forfeiture account can be used to
A
Provide for discount given at the time of reissue
B
Write-off preliminary expenses
C
Write-off bad debts
D
None of the above
Question 240Single Answer
A company issued 25,000 shares and received applications for 35,000 shares. Company wants to allot shares to everyone who has applied. What will be the ratio for allotment ?
A
6 : 7
B
7: 5
C
5 : 7
D
7 : 6
Question 241Single Answer
An efficient control system helps to
A
Accomplish organisational objectives
B
Boost employee morale
C
Judge accuracy of standards
D
All of the above
Question 242Single Answer
Controlling function of an organisation is
A
Forward-looking
B
Backward-looking
C
Forward as well as backward-looking
D
None of the above
Question 243Single Answer
Management audit is a technique to keep a check on the performance of
A
Company
B
Management of the company
C
Shareholders
D
Customers
Question 244Single Answer
Budgetary control requires the preparation of
A
Training schedule
B
Budgets
C
Network diagram
D
Responsibility centres
Question 245Single Answer
Which of the following is not applicable to responsibility accounting ?
A
Investment centre
B
Accounting centre
C
Profit centre
D
Cost centre
Question 246Single Answer
“Managerial control implies the measurement of accomplishment against the standard and the correction of deviations to assure attainment of objectives according to plans.” This definition has been given by
A
Koontz and O’ Donnell
B
Peter Drucker
C
Henri Fayol
D
Chester Barnard
Question 247Single Answer
Which of the following describes the nature of controlling ?
A
Goal-oriented process
B
Pervasive function
C
Continuous process
D
All of these
Question 248Single Answer
Controlling provides direction to all activities and each department and employee is governed by predetermined standards, which helps in establishing ......... among them.
A
Organising
B
Directing
C
Planning
D
Co-ordination
Question 249Single Answer
Which of the following factor(s) is/are beyond the control of an organisation ?
A
Change in government policies
B
Change in technology
C
Competition level
D
All of the above
Question 250Single Answer
Controlling is a pervasive function because it is performed
A
In all organisations whether profit making or non profit making
B
At all levels of management to ensure that the work at every stage is performed as planned
C
Goal oriented process
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 251Single Answer
Which of the following is not an importance of controlling ?
A
Judging accuracy of standards
B
Effective use of resources
C
Ensures order and discipline
D
Exploitation of resources
Question 252Single Answer
Sales volume, sales expenses, advertising expenses are the part of . . . . . . . . . . . . standards.
A
Production
B
Marketing
C
HR
D
None of these
Question 253Single Answer
In controlling process, the next stage after setting performance standards is
A
Measurement of actual performance
B
Comparing actual performance with standards
C
Analysing deviations
D
Taking corrective action
Question 254Single Answer
Under controlling of HR area, corrective action must be taken for
A
High labour turnover rate
B
Low labour turnover rate
C
Zero labour turnover rate
D
Low labour absenteeism
Question 255Single Answer
Is the final step of controlling process, the managers takes corrective measures to bring back everything on track. Sometimes even after best efforts, if deviations cannot be corrected then what should be done ?
A
Revise the standards
B
Fire the managers
C
Shut the company
D
None of these
Question 256Single Answer
'Taking corrective action’ is ........ step in process of controlling.
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Last
Question 257Single Answer
Planning is guided by past experience and corrective actions taken in the controlling process.Thus, it is regarded as
A
Backward-looking function
B
Forward-looking function
C
Pervasive function
D
None of the above
Question 258Single Answer
In controlling process, while setting performance standards, standards can be set
A
In quantitative terms only
B
In qualitative terms only
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
In subjective terms
Question 259Single Answer
Which standard(s) is/are used in production ?
A
Quality Standards
B
Quantity Standards
C
Cost Standards
D
All of these
Question 260Single Answer
Which of the following is the technique of measurement of performance ?
A
Personal observation
B
Sample checking
C
Performance reports
D
All of the above
Question 261Single Answer
Which of the following is related to microeconomics ?
A
Inflation in the economy
B
Problem of unemployment
C
National Income
D
Income from the railways
Question 262Single Answer
The study of microeconomics and macro economics is.
A
Independent of each other
B
Interrelated to each other
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of these
Question 263Single Answer
Who is the father of economics ?
A
Karl Marx
B
J.M. Keynes
C
Adam Smith
D
Alfred Marshall
Question 264Single Answer
In economics, scarcity refers to a situation when.
A
Demand for goods exceeds its supply
B
Supply of goods exceeds its demand
C
Supply of goods is equal to its demand
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 265Single Answer
...... economics states 'what is’ and not 'what should be.
A
Positive
B
Normative
C
Modern
D
None of these
Question 266Single Answer
...... are the important tools of macroeconomic studies.
A
Demand and supply
B
Aggregate demand and aggregate supply
C
Exports and imports
D
All of the above
Question 267Single Answer
Which of the following questions is/are the part of normative economics ?
A
What are the causes of un employment
B
Why prices are rising
C
Was demonetisation justified
D
All of the above
Question 268Single Answer
Which of the following is not a macro variable ?
A
Wholesale price index
B
Output of firm
C
Aggregate demand
D
Aggregate supply
Question 269Single Answer
In free market economy, the allocation of resources is determined by ......
A
Votes by consumers
B
A central planning authority
C
Consumer preference
D
The level of profits of firms
Question 270Single Answer
Central economic problems are the problems of a.
A
Market economy
B
Socialist economy
C
Mixed economy
D
All of these
Question 271Single Answer
........... is a system in which people earn livelihood to fulfil their wants.
A
Abroad
B
Market
C
Economy
D
Village
Question 272Single Answer
An economy is broadly classified as.
A
Market economy
B
Centrally planned economy
C
Mixed economy
D
All of these
Question 273Single Answer
The problem of what to produce is related with.
A
Types of goods to be produced
B
Types of production technique to be used
C
Quantity of goods to be produced
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 274Single Answer
............ is the problem which is concerned with the distribution of national income among those who have helped to produce it.
A
How to produce?
B
What to produce?
C
Why to produce?
D
For whom to produce?
Question 275Single Answer
The causes of economic problem include.
A
Human wants are unlimited
B
Economic resources are limited
C
Resources have alternative uses
D
All of the above
Question 276Single Answer
Indian economy is a mixed economy because.
A
Agriculture and industry have both simultaneously developed in India
B
Agriculture and industry have both developed in the public sector
C
Private ownership and public ownership over means of production co-exist
D
None of the above
Question 277Single Answer
Which of the following statements is true ?
A
Economic problems arises only due to scarcity of resources
B
If new technologies are constantly evolved. Central problems can be solved to the fullest
C
Economic problem of How to Produce is the problem of choice between labour intensive technique or capital intensive techniques
D
Opportunity cost is the cost of second-best alternative
Question 278Single Answer
Economics cost is equal to.
A
Accounting cost
B
Opportunity cost
C
Sum of accounting cost and opportunity cost
D
Difference of accounting cost and opportunity cost
Question 279Single Answer
Choose the correct statement from the given below.
A
In a centrally planned economy, economics decisions are governed by profit motive as per decision of Central Bank of the country
B
Normative statements are those which pass value judgement at economic problems as they are
C
There is limited degree of aggregation present in microeconomics whereas macroeconomics has greater degree of aggregation
D
Central problems of an economy and problem of choice are two different issues that only mixed economies faces
Question 280Single Answer
The following headline appeared in “Hindustan Times” dated 25th July, 2018, “Getting insurance for rain damage cars an uphill task”. This statement is.
A
Positive Economics
B
Normative Economics
C
General Economics
D
None of these
Question 281Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of effective teaching?
A
Memorization
B
Active Learning
C
Passive Learning
D
Focus on Test Scores
Question 282Single Answer
Which teaching method emphasizes student collaboration and problem-solving?
A
Lecture Method
B
Inquiry-Based Learning
C
Lecture and Note-taking
D
Drill and Practice
Question 283Single Answer
What does the Constructivist theory of learning emphasize?
A
Passive absorption of information
B
Learners constructing their own knowledge
C
Memorizing facts and figures
D
Teacher-centered instruction
Question 284Single Answer
Which of the following is not an effective classroom management strategy?
A
Clear communication of expectations
B
Positive reinforcement
C
Ignoring disruptive behavior
D
Consistent routines
Question 285Single Answer
Which of the following teaching strategies promotes higher-order thinking?
A
Recall-based questions
B
Lecture-based instruction
C
Problem-solving and critical thinking tasks
D
Multiple-choice questions
Question 286Single Answer
According to Vygotsky, the 'Zone of Proximal Development' refers to:
A
The range of tasks a student can perform alone
B
The range of tasks a student cannot perform, even with assistance
C
The tasks a student can perform with minimal support
D
The range of tasks a student can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable other
Question 287Single Answer
In Bloom's Taxonomy, which of the following is the highest level of cognitive skills?
A
Knowledge
B
Comprehension
C
Synthesis
D
Evaluation
Question 288Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the purpose of differentiated instruction?
A
To maintain uniformity in teaching
B
To meet the varied learning needs of students
C
To make learning more challenging for all students
D
To reduce the workload for the teacher
Question 289Single Answer
The flipped classroom model primarily focuses on:
A
Teacher-centered direct instruction
B
Students learning at home through online resources
C
Learning through textbooks alone
D
Peer-teaching and collaboration
Question 290Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an active learning strategy?
A
Reading a textbook chapter
B
Listening to a lecture
C
Group discussion and debates
D
Memorizing facts
Question 291Single Answer
What is the main focus of learner-centered teaching?
A
Teachers controlling the pace of the lesson
B
Encouraging students to take responsibility for their own learning
C
Focusing solely on lectures
D
Providing a rigid structure for the lesson
Question 292Single Answer
What type of teaching strategy is best for developing critical thinking skills?
A
Rote memorization
B
Lecture-based learning
C
Socratic questioning
D
Listening and note-taking
Question 293Single Answer
In what way does collaborative learning benefit students?
A
It encourages individual work
B
It allows students to learn only from the teacher
C
It helps students develop communication and teamwork skills
D
It focuses on rote memorization
Question 294Single Answer
Which of the following best describes 'scaffolding' in the context of teaching?
A
Giving all students the same level of support
B
Providing initial support that is gradually removed as students gain independence
C
Teaching without any prior assessment
D
Reducing the difficulty of tasks for students
Question 295Single Answer
The concept of 'multiple intelligences' was proposed by:
A
Jean Piaget
B
Howard Gardner
C
Lev Vygotsky
D
Benjamin Bloom
Question 296Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of inquiry-based learning?
A
Direct transmission of facts
B
Emphasis on rote memorization
C
Encouraging curiosity and self-directed investigation
D
Strictly following a teacher's script
Question 297Single Answer
Which is an example of summative assessment?
A
Formative quizzes
B
Student discussions
C
End-of-term exams
D
Peer feedback
Question 298Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a 'constructivist' teaching strategy?
A
Lecture-based instruction
B
Problem-solving tasks
C
Memorization drills
D
Teacher-dominated discussions
Question 299Single Answer
What does the term 'active learning' refer to?
A
Students are passively listening to the teacher
B
Students are actively engaged in learning through participation
C
Students only study at home
D
Teachers provide answers for students
Question 300Single Answer
Integrating language across the curriculum helps students to: