Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 2Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 3Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 4Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 5Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 6Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 7Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 8Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 9Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 10Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 11Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 12Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 13Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A
Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B
Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C
Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D
Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A
Feeling a bit under the weather
B
Hitting the nail on the head
C
Sitting on the fence
D
Adding insult to the injury
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To bend over backwards
A
To accommodate every unreasonable request usually without getting anything back
B
Stepping away from an unpleasant situation
C
To make every effort to achieve something, especially to be fair or helpful
D
Submitting oneself completely to a higher authority
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To declare invalid an official agreement, decision, or result.
A
To annul
B
To negate
C
To efface
D
To undo
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Feeling or showing deep and solemn respect.
A
Pious
B
Reverent
C
Humble
D
Devout
General Awareness
Question 21Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 22Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 23Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 24Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 25Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 26Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 27Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 29Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 30Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 31Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 33Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 34Single Answer
Which Delhi Sultan captured Qutub Minar while it was under construction?
A
Iltutmish
B
Alauddin Khalji
C
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D
Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 35Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 36Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 37Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 38Single Answer
What is the theme of the National Cadet Corps' first-ever special sailing expedition?
A
Indian Rivers - The Lifeline of the Nation
B
Bharatiya Nadiya - Sanskritiyon ki Janani
C
Exploring India’s Maritime Legacy
D
Rivers of Unity
Question 39Single Answer
India re-elected to which United Nations body for the term?
A
UN General Assembly
B
UN Peacebuilding Commission
C
UN Human Rights Council
D
UNESCO
Question 40Single Answer
Which city will host three Ranji Trophy matches this season at the Moin-ul-Haq Stadium?
A
Patna
B
Araria
C
Kishanganj
D
Samastipur
Hindi Language
Question 41Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में दी गई इटैलिक अशुद्ध वर्तनी का शुद्ध रूप चयन कीजिए।
तुम्हारा यह कथन मात्र अतिश्योक्ती है।
A
अंतोश्योक्ती
B
अतीश्योक्टि
C
अतिश्योक्ति
D
अतिशयोक्ति
Question 42Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है। सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
बहिष्कार
A
बहि: + कार
B
बहिष + कर
C
बहि + अकार
D
बहि़ + सकार
Question 43Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
नाविक
A
नौ + इक
B
ना + इक
C
नो + इक
D
ना + विक
Question 44Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
दिगम्बर
A
दि + गम्बर
B
दिगम् + बर
C
दिक् + अम्बर
D
दिग + अम्बर
Question 45Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
निराशा
A
निरा + आशा
B
निर् + आशा
C
निर: + आशा
D
निर + आशा
Question 46Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
मनोरथ
A
मनो + अर्थ
B
मन: + रथ
C
मन: + अरथ
D
मने + ओरथ
Question 47Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
यद्यपि
A
यद्य + आपि
B
य + द्यपि
C
यदि + अपि
D
यद्य + आपि
Question 48Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
तिरस्कार
A
तिरस + कार
B
तिर: + कार
C
ति: + कार
D
तिर + कार
Question 49Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
स्वार्थ
A
स्व +अर्थ
B
स्वा + अर्थ
C
स्वा + अथ
D
स्व +आर्थ
Question 50Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
जगदीश
A
जगद़् + ईश
B
जगत़् + ईश
C
जग़ + ईश
D
जग़ + दीश
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Hindi Language
Question 51Single Answer
Passage :
दिए गए शब्दों में प्रयुक्तसन्धि का चयन कीजिए -
सदानन्द शब्द का सन्धि विच्छेद है
A
सदा़ + नन्द
B
सद़ + आनन्द
C
सदा़ + आनन्द
D
सत़् + आनन्द
Question 52Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
विसर्ग सन्धि का उदाहरण है
A
युधिष्ठिर
B
निष्ठुर
C
भयंकर
D
मनोयोग
Question 53Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
मनोहर में कौन सी सन्धि है?
A
विसर्ग
B
गुण
C
वृद्धि
D
व्यंजन
Question 54Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
परन्तु
A
पऱअंतु
B
परम़्तु
C
प़रंतु
D
परंतू
Question 55Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
नि + रन्तर
A
ऩि + अंतर
B
निऱ + अंतर
C
निरू़ + अंतर
D
निरा + ऩतर
Question 56Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
सर्वाेदय में कौन सी सन्धि है -
A
गुण सन्धि
B
व्यंजन सन्धि
C
विसर्ग सन्धि
D
यण सन्धि
Question 57Single Answer
Passage :
प्रश्न में एक शब्द दिया गया है जिसका सन्धि-विच्छेद चार प्रकार से किया गया है। इनमें सें केवल एक ही विकल्प सही है । सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए -
अन्नाभाव का सन्धि विच्छेद है -
A
अन्ना़ + भाव
B
अन्ऩ + अभाव
C
अन्य़ + अभाव
D
अन्ऩ + आभाव
Question 58Single Answer
Passage :
दिए गए शब्दों में प्रयुक्त सन्धि का चयन कीजिए ।
धर्मात्मा
A
स्वर सन्धि
B
व्यंजन सन्धि
C
विसर्ग सन्धि
D
यण सन्धि
Question 59Single Answer
Passage :
दिए गए शब्दों में प्रयुक्त सन्धि का चयन कीजिए ।
महर्षि
A
स्वर सन्धि
B
व्यंजन सन्धि
C
गुण सन्धि
D
स्वर और विसर्ग सन्धि
Question 60Single Answer
Passage :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों में सही सन्धि-विच्छेद का चयन कीजिए ।
धरेश
A
धऱईश
B
धरा़ईश
C
धरे़ईश
D
धरा़ईश
Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 62Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 63Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 64Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 65Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 66Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 67Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 68Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 69Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 70Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 71Single Answer
Passage :
Find the missing number in the following series ?
3, 5, 5, 19, 7, 41, 9, ?
A
71
B
61
C
79
D
69
Question 72Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
Question 73Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A
LAP
B
BUT
C
CAR
D
SON
E
HID
Question 74Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 75Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 76Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having no vowels will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN
(Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the letters in each of the words are arranged alphabetically (within the word), how many words will remain unchanged?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 78Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
According to the English alphabetical series how many letters are there between the first letter of the third word and the first letter of the fifth word?
A
Two
B
One
C
None
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If the first letter of all the words is changed to the previous letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will have more than one vowel?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Question 80Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following letter is based on the five three letter words given below:
PIN ROD DEN SAT FUN (Note: The words formed after performing the given operations may or may not be meaningful English words.)
If all the vowels (in all the words) are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many words will form meaningful English words?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
More than three
E
None
Quantitative Aptitude
Question 81Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 82Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 83Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 84Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 85Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 86Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 87Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 88Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 89Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 90Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 91Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 92Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 93Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 94Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 95Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 96Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 97Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 98Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 99Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 100Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Physics
Question 101Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 102Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 103Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 104Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 105Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 106Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 107Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 108Single Answer
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only
Question 109Single Answer
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Question 110Single Answer
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium
Question 111Single Answer
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n
Question 112Single Answer
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer
Question 113Single Answer
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)
Question 115Single Answer
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km
Question 116Single Answer
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A
25 kWh
B
9 x 1010 kWh
C
3 x 1010 kWh
D
0.5 x 105 kWh
Question 117Single Answer
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A
5 and 6
B
5 and 7
C
2 and 7
D
2 and 6
Question 118Single Answer
β-decay means emission of electron from
A
innermost electron orbit
B
a stable nucleus
C
outermost electron orbit
D
radioactive nucleus
Question 119Single Answer
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A
0.8 A
B
2.5 A
C
0.4 A
D
1.25 A
Question 120Single Answer
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A
50 s-2
B
25 s-2
C
12.5 s-2
D
6.25 s-2
Question 121Single Answer
A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
A
35o
B
50o
C
55o
D
60o
Question 122Single Answer
A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2. The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
A
0.015 N
B
0.15 N
C
0.030 N
D
zero
Question 123Single Answer
The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids are called
A
emulsions
B
gels
C
foams
D
liquid crystals
Question 124Single Answer
In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained during visible light because
A
I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
B
scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
C
the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
D
scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Question 125Single Answer
Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body
A
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
B
can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
C
cannot keep the body in equilibrium
D
can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Question 126Single Answer
Sound waves transfer
A
only energy not momentum
B
energy
C
momentum
D
both (a) and (b)
Question 127Single Answer
G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the phenomena
A
diffraction
B
refraction
C
polarisation
D
scattering
Question 128Single Answer
The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 Ω. If the temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the resistance becomes 0.6 Ω is
A
720 K
B
345 K
C
993 K
D
690 K
Question 129Single Answer
Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the point sources just seen to be resolved is
A
12.2 m
B
24.2 m
C
2.44 m
D
1.22 m
Question 130Single Answer
A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
A
1.2 N
B
3.6 N
C
2.4 N
D
4 N
Question 131Single Answer
0.1 m3 of water at 80o C. The final temperature of the mixture is
A
65oC
B
70oC
C
60oC
D
75oC
Question 132Single Answer
The spectral series of the hydrogen atom that lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum
A
Paschen
B
Balmer
C
Lyman
D
Brackett
Question 133Single Answer
A resistor and a capacitor are connected inseries with an AC source. If the potential drop across the capacitor is 5 V and that across resistor is 12 V, then applied voltage is
A
13 V
B
17 V
C
5 V
D
12 V
Question 134Single Answer
The amount of heat energy radiated by a metal at temperature T is E. When the temperature is increased to 3T, energy radiated is
A
8 1E
B
9 E
C
3 E
D
27 E
Question 135Single Answer
A man, of mass 60 kg, is riding in a lift. The weights of the man, when the lift is accelerating upwards and down wards at 2m/s2 are respectively (Taking g=2m/s2)
A
720 N and 480 N
B
480 N and 720 N
C
600 N and 800 N
D
None of these
Question 136Single Answer
A galvanometer of resistance 240 Ω allows only 4% of the main current after connecting a shunt resistance. The value of the shunt resistance is
A
10 Ω
B
20 Ω
C
8 Ω
D
5 Ω
Question 137Single Answer
The phenomena in which proton flips is
A
nuclear magnetic resonance
B
lasers
C
radioactivity
D
nuclear fusion
Question 138Single Answer
According to the quark model, it is possible to build all the hadrons using
A
2 quarks and 3 antiquarks
B
1 quarks and 2 antiquarks
C
3 quarks and 3 antiquarks
D
2 quarks and 2 antiquarks
Question 139Single Answer
The surface temperature of the stars is determined using
A
Planck’s law
B
Wien’s displacement law
C
Rayleigh-Jeans law
D
Kirchhoff’s law
Question 140Single Answer
A parallel beam of light is incident on a converging lens parallel to its principal axis. As one moves away from the lens on the other side of the principal axis, the intensity of light
A
first decreases and then increases
B
continuously increases
C
continuously decreases
D
first increases and then decreases
Question 141Single Answer
Continuous emission spectrum is produced by
A
incandescent electric lamp
B
mercury vapour lamp
C
sodium vapour lamp
D
polyatomic substances
Question 142Single Answer
A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 600. The angle of deviation produced by the mirror is
A
1200
B
300
C
600
D
900
Question 143Single Answer
The electric potential at any point x,y,z in metres is given by V = 3x2. The electric field at point (2,0,1) is
A
12 Vm-1
B
-6 Vm-1
C
6 Vm-1
D
-12 Vm-1
Question 144Single Answer
Young’s double. Slit experiment gives interference fringes of width 0.3 mm. A thin glass plate made of material of refractive index 1.5 is kept in the path of light from one of the slits, then the fringe width becomes
A
zero
B
0.3 mm
C
0.45 mm
D
0.15 mm
Question 145Single Answer
The magnetic dipole moment of a current loop is independent of
A
magnetic field in which it is lying
B
number of turns
C
area of the loop
D
current in the loop
Question 146Single Answer
2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount (including both the days) is
A
0 g
B
0.125 g
C
1 g
D
0.5 g
Question 147Single Answer
The ratios of the distance traversed, in successive intervals of time by a body, falling from rest, are
A
1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 …………
B
2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 ……………….
C
1 : 4 : 7 :10 : 13 …………
D
None of the above
Question 148Single Answer
A source having frequency of 240 Hz is moving towards on observer with a speed of 20 m/s. when the observer is moving towards the source with a velocity of 20m/s. then apparent frequency heard by the observer, if velocity of sound is 330m/s, will be:
A
268 Hz
B
271 Hz
C
368 Hz
D
250 Hz
Question 149Single Answer
Choose the incorrect statement out of the following.
A
Every measurement by any measuring
B
Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some error
C
A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice-versa
D
The percentage error is different from relative error
Question 150Single Answer
If E,M,L and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively then the quantity ( E2L2/M5G2) has the dimensions of
A
angle
B
length
C
mass
D
None of these
Question 151Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 152Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 153Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 154Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 156Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 158Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 159Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 160Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 161Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 162Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 163Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 164Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 165Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
Question 166Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 167Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 168Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 169Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 170Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 171Single Answer
The dimensional formula of wave number is
A
[M0L0T–1]
B
[M0L–1T0]
C
[M–1 L–1 T0]
D
[M0 L0 T0]
Question 172Single Answer
The dimensional of Hubble ‘s wave number is
A
[T–1]
B
[M0L0T–2]
C
[MLT4]
D
[MT–1]
Question 173Single Answer
The dimensions of solar constant is
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT–2]
C
[ML²T–2]
D
MT–3
Question 174Single Answer
The dimensional formula for entropy is
A
[MLT–2K¹]
B
[ML2 T-2]
C
[ML²T–2K–1]
D
[ML²T–2K]
Question 175Single Answer
Dimension of specific heat are
A
[ML² T–2 K]
B
[ML² T–2 K–1]
C
[ML²T²K–1]
D
[L²T–2K–2]
Question 176Single Answer
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [M¹T–3] is
A
surface tension
B
solar constant
C
density
D
compressibility
Question 177Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks ?
A
Potassium
B
Caesium
C
Calcium
D
Magnesium
Question 178Single Answer
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer ?
A
10–7 cm
B
10–6 cm
C
10–4 cm
D
10–3 cm
Question 179Single Answer
What is the unit of pressure ?
A
Newton/sq. meter
B
Newton–meter
C
Newton
D
Newton/meter
Question 180Single Answer
The unit of pressure is
A
kg/cm²
B
kg/cm
C
kg/mm
D
kg/cm3
Question 181Single Answer
Which one of the following quantities doe not have unit ?
A
Stress
B
Force
C
Strain
D
Pressure
Question 182Single Answer
Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is here K denotes the temperature:
A
MLT–2K
B
MLT–2K–2
C
MLT–3K
D
MLT–3K–1
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant ?
A
JK–1 mol–1
B
Joule
C
JK–1
D
J mol–1
Question 184Single Answer
Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International System of Units is
A
16.8 kgm–3
B
168 kgm–3
C
1680 kgm–3
D
16800 kgm–3
Question 185Single Answer
The dimensional formula of couple is
A
[ML² T–2]
B
[MLT²]
C
[ML–1T–3]
D
[ML–2T–2]
Question 186Single Answer
Subtract 0.2 J from 7.26 J and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
7.1 J
B
7.06 J
C
7.0 J
D
7 J
Question 187Single Answer
Multiply 107.88 by 0610 and express the result with correct number of significant figures.
A
65.8068
B
65.807
C
65.81
D
65.8
Question 188Single Answer
When 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result is
A
38.3937
B
38.394
C
38.39
D
38.4
Question 189Single Answer
Which of the following is the most accurate ?
A
200.0m
B
20 × 10¹ m
C
2×10²m
D
data is inadequate
Question 190Single Answer
The area of a square is 5.29 cm². The area of 7 such square taking into account the significant figures is:
A
37cm²
B
37.030 cm²
C
37.03 cm²
D
37.0 cm²
Question 191Single Answer
The SI unit of coeffient of mutual inductance of a coil is
A
henry
B
volt
C
farad
D
weber
Question 192Single Answer
The S.I. unit of pole strength is
A
Am²
B
Am
C
Am–1
D
Am–2
Question 193Single Answer
Which is dimensionless ?
A
Force/acceleration
B
Velocity/accerleration
C
Volume/area
D
Energy/work
Question 194Single Answer
The expression [ML–1T–2] does not represent
A
pressure
B
power
C
Stress
D
Young's modulus
Question 195Single Answer
The dimensional formul of current density is
A
[M0L–2T–1Q]
B
[M0L2T1Q–1]
C
[MLT–1Q]
D
[ML–2T–1Q²]
Question 196Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Units) (Physical quantity)
A. Watt 1. Electric charge
B. Tesla 2. Power
C. Coulomb 3. Luminous intensity
D. Candela 4. Magnetic field
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
1 4 1 3
B
1 2 3 4
C
1 2 4 3
D
2 4 3 1
Question 197Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quantity) (Units)
A. Power 1. kg ms–1
B. Energy 2. kg m²s–1
C. Momentum 3. Nm–2
D. Pressure 4. kW
5. kWh
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
4 5 1 3
B
4 5 1 2
C
5 4 1 2
D
5 4 2 3
Question 198Single Answer
What is the correct sequence in which the lengths of the following units increase ?
(1) Angstrom
(2) Micron
(3) Nanometer
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
1, 2, 3
B
3, 1, 2
C
1, 3, 2
D
2, 3, 1
Question 199Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quantitiy) (Units)
A. Density 1. [MLT–2]
B. Force 2. [ML–3]
C. Energy 3. [MLT–1]
D. Momentum 4. [ML2T–2]
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
3 2 4 1
B
1 2 3 4
C
2 1 4 3
D
3 2 1 4
Question 200Single Answer
Match the List – I with List – II
List - I List - II
(Physical quanitity) (Units)
A. Solid angle 1. pascal
B. Impulse 2. Steradian
C. Viscosity 3. Newton–second
D. Pressure 4. Pascal–second
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
2 3 4 1
C
1 4 3 2
D
1 3 4 2
Question 201Single Answer
Which of the following is most accurate ?
A
A screw gauge of least count 0.001 mm
B
A screw gauge having pitch 1 mm and 50 divisions on circular scale
C
A vernier callipers of least count 0.01 mm
D
Vernier callipers having 20 divisions on the sliding scale (vernier scale) coinciding 19 divisions on the main millimetre scale
Question 202Single Answer
Which of the following quantities has a unit but dimensionless ?
A
Strain
B
Reynolds number
C
Angular displacemet
D
Poisson's ratio
Question 203Single Answer
The displacement of a body at a particular second n is given by the expression The dimensional formula of Snth in this equation is
A
[M¹L0T¹]
B
[M0L1T0]
C
[M0L¹T–1]
D
[M0L0T0]
Question 204Single Answer
The division of energy by time is X. The dimensional formula ofX is same as that of
A
momentum
B
power
C
torque
D
electric field
Question 205Single Answer
The dimensions of electromotive force in terms of correntA are
A
[MT-2 A-2]
B
[ML2T-2 A2]
C
[ML2T-2 A -2]
D
[ML2T3 A-1]
Question 206Single Answer
[MLT-1] + [MLT-1] = ………………
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT-1]
C
2[MLT-1]
D
None of these
Question 207Single Answer
Which physical quantities have same dimensions ?
A
Moment of couple and work
B
Force and power
C
Latent heat and specific heat
D
Work in power
Question 208Single Answer
life is charge, V the potential difference, T the temperature, then the units of are the same as that of
A
planck’s constant
B
stefan’s constant
C
Boltzmann constant
D
gravitational constant
Question 209Single Answer
in the eqn. (V - b) = constant, the unit of a is
A
dyne × cm5
B
dyne × cm4
C
dyne × cm3
D
dyne × cm2
Question 210Single Answer
The least count of an instrument is 0.01 cm. Which of the following reding denotes the one, measured by this instrument ?
A
1.04 cm
B
2.001 cm
C
3.1 cm
D
None of these
Question 211Single Answer
Match the List – I and List – II
List – I List – II
A. Wavelength 1. Herze
B. Energy 2. Angstrom
C. Intensity of sound 3. Joule
D. Frequency 4. Decibel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
2 3 4 1
B
1 2 3 4
C
2 3 1 4
D
2 1 3 4
Question 212Single Answer
Match the List – I and List – II
List – I List – II
A. Temperature 1. Kelvin
B.Power 2. Watt
C.Pressure 3. Pascal
D.Force 4. Newton
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
2 1 3 4
B
1 2 4 3
C
1 2 3 4
D
2 1 4 3
Question 213Single Answer
Match the List – I and List – II
List – I List – II
Acceleration 1. Joule
Electric current 2. Newton second
Work done 3. Ampere
Impulse 4. Metre per sec2
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
A
A B C D
1 2 3 4
B
2 3 4 1
C
4 3 1 2
D
3 4 1 2
Question 214Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
A
The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the place where the spring balance is calibrated for
B
The mesurment of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the all places
C
The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at the place where the acceleration due to gravity is same with the place where the spring balance is calibrated for
D
A sping balance cannot be used to mesure mass at any place
Question 215Single Answer
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A
The SI unit charge is ampere – second
B
Debye is the unit of dipole moment
C
Resistvity of a wire of length / and area of crosssection a depends upon both / and a
D
The kinetic energy of an length of mass in kg and charge / coulomb when accelerated through a potential difference of V volt, is joule
Question 216Single Answer
If a body is moving at constant speed in a circular path, its
A
velocity is constant and its acceleration is zero
B
velocity and acceleration are both changing direction only
C
velocity and accleration are both increaing
D
velocity is constant and acceleration is changing direction
Question 217Single Answer
A graph is plotted showing the velocity of a car as a function of time. If the graph is a straight line, it means that
A
the car started at rest
B
acceleration was constant
C
acceleration was increasing
D
velocity was constant
Question 218Single Answer
If a car is traveling north on a straight road and its brakes are applied, it will
A
have no acceleration
B
accelerate to the south
C
accelerate to the north
D
accelerate either east or west
Question 219Single Answer
An object moves with a uniform velocity when
A
the forces acting on the object are balanced
B
there is no external force on it
C
Both of (a) and (b)
D
Either (a) or (b)
Question 220Single Answer
The acceleration of a car that speeds up from 12 meters per second to 30 meters per second in 15 seconds
A
2.4 m/s²
B
1.2 m/s²
C
2 m/s²
D
5.2 m/s²
Question 221Single Answer
A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 seconds after starting from rest. If it travels a distances s1 in the first 10 seconds and distances s2 in the next 10 seconds, then
A
s2 = s1
B
s2 = 2s1
C
s2 = 3s1
D
s2 = 4s1
Question 222Single Answer
Motion of an object is the change in position with respect to a reference point known as
A
Origin
B
initial position
C
final position
D
distance
Question 223Single Answer
Displacement is the
A
shortest distance between initial and final position
B
the actual distance between initial and final positions
C
the distance travelled by the object
D
distance traveled by the object in a unit time
Question 224Single Answer
An object has traveled 10 km is 15 minutes, its displacement will be
A
10 km
B
Can be zero
C
More than 10 km
D
All of the Above
Question 225Single Answer
If an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in
A
Circular Motion
B
Uniform Motion
C
Oscillatory Motion
D
Non– uniform Motion
Question 226Single Answer
Average velocity of an object is obtained by.
A
Dividing the total distance traveled b the total time taken
B
Half of the sum of the initial velocity and the final velocity
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 227Single Answer
Negative value of acceleration signifies.
A
The velocity is increasing
B
The velocity is decreasing
C
The velocity remains the same
D
The object comes to rest
Question 228Single Answer
In distance–time graphs.
A
Distance is taken along the X–axis
B
Time is taken along the Y–axis
C
Straight line indicates uniform motion
D
Straight line indicates non–uniform motion
Question 229Single Answer
In velocity – time graphs.
A
Velocity is taken along the Y–axis and Time is taken along the X–axis
B
Straight line indicates uniform acceleration
C
Straight line parallel to x–axis indicates uniform motion
D
All of the above
Question 230Single Answer
The equation (s) of motion can be represented as.
A
V = u + at
B
C
2as = v² – u²
D
All of these
Question 231Single Answer
A train travels 40 km at a uniform speed of 30 km h–1. Its average speed after traveling another 40 km is 45 km h–1 for the whole journey. Its speed in the second half of the journey is.
A
45 km h–1
B
90 km h–1
C
60 km h–1
D
None of these
Question 232Single Answer
A man walks on a straight road from his home to market 2.5km. away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The average speed of the man over the interval of time 0 to 40 min. is equal to –
A
5 km/h
B
25/4 km/h
C
30/4 km/h
D
45/km/h
Question 233Single Answer
A ball is dropped from a window 24 meters high. How long will it take to reach the ground ?
A
2.2 s
B
1.2 s
C
4.5 s
D
0.2s
Question 234Single Answer
Mohan takes 20 minutes to cover a distance of 3.2 kilometers due north on a bicycle, his velocity in kilometer/hour-
A
8.1
B
9.6
C
1.2
D
7.2
Question 235Single Answer
A Pitcher throws his fastball horizontally at 42.1 meters per second. How far does it drop before crossing the plate, 18.3 meters away ?
A
0.8 m
B
1.2m
C
2.2m
D
0.93 m
Question 236Single Answer
Two balls A and B of same masses are thrown from the top of the building. A, thrown upward with velocity V and B, thrown downward with velocity V, then–
A
Velocity of A is more than B at the ground
B
Velocity of B is more than A at the ground
C
Both A and B strike the ground with same velocity
D
None of these
Question 237Single Answer
A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds–
A
h/9 meters from the ground
B
7h/9 meters from the ground
C
8h/9 meters from the ground
D
17h/18 meters from the ground
Question 238Single Answer
When a bus suddenly takes a turn, the passengers are thrown outwards because of-
A
inertia of motion
B
acceleration of motion
C
speed of motion
D
Both (b) and (c)
Question 239Single Answer
A thief snatches a purse and runs due west, going 6.0 meter per second. A policeman, 15 meters to the east, sees the event and gives chase. If the officer is a good sprinter, going at 8.5 meters per second, how far does he have to run to catch the thief.
A
12 m
B
51 m
C
61 m
D
55 m
Question 240Single Answer
A car going at 24 meters per second passes a motorcycle at rest. As it passes, the motorcycle start up, accelerating at 3.2 meters per second squared. If the motorcycle can keep up that acceleration, how long will take for it to catch the car.
A
12 s
B
14s
C
20s
D
18s
Question 241Single Answer
The initial velocity of a body is 15 m/s. If it having an acceleration of 10 m/s², then the velocity of body after 10 seconds from start-
A
110 m/s
B
105 m/s
C
120 m/s
D
115 m/s
Question 242Single Answer
Which of the following can be zero, when a particle is in motion for some time ?
A
Distance
B
Displacement
C
Speed
D
None of these
Question 243Single Answer
The numerical ratio of average velocity to average speed is.
A
always less than one
B
always equal to one
C
always more than one
D
equal to or less than one
Question 244Single Answer
A passenger in a moving train tosses a coin. If the coin falls behind him, the train must be moving with.
A
an acceleration
B
a deceleration
C
a uniform speed
D
any of the above
Question 245Single Answer
A body is imparted motion from rest to move in a straigh line. If it is then obstructed, by an opposite force, then.
A
the body may necessarily change direction
B
the body is sure to slow down
C
the body will necessarily continue to move in the same direction at the same speed
D
None of these
Question 246Single Answer
Which of the following decreases in motion along a straight line with constant retardation while the body is moving away from the origin ?
A
Speed
B
Acceleration
C
Displacement
D
None of these
Question 247Single Answer
Which of the following is not an example of linear motion ?
A
An aeroplane moving on a straight track with increasing speed
B
A body in uniform circular motion
C
Wheel rotating at uniform speed on road
D
A body rolling down an inclines plane
Question 248Single Answer
Which of the following changes when a particle is moving with uniform velocity ?
A
Speed
B
Velocity
C
Acceleration
D
Position vector
Question 249Single Answer
Which one out of the following statement is false ?
A
A body can have zero velocity and still be accelerated
B
A body can have a constant velocity and still have a varying speed
C
A body can have a constant speed and still have a varying velocity
D
The direction of the velocity of a body can change when its acceleration is constant
Question 250Single Answer
What determines the nature of the path followed by the particle.
A
speed
B
velocity
C
acceleration
D
both (b) and (c)
Question 251Single Answer
Which of the following is a key component of effective teaching?
A
Memorization
B
Active Learning
C
Passive Learning
D
Focus on Test Scores
Question 252Single Answer
Which teaching method emphasizes student collaboration and problem-solving?
A
Lecture Method
B
Inquiry-Based Learning
C
Lecture and Note-taking
D
Drill and Practice
Question 253Single Answer
What does the Constructivist theory of learning emphasize?
A
Passive absorption of information
B
Learners constructing their own knowledge
C
Memorizing facts and figures
D
Teacher-centered instruction
Question 254Single Answer
Which of the following is not an effective classroom management strategy?
A
Clear communication of expectations
B
Positive reinforcement
C
Ignoring disruptive behavior
D
Consistent routines
Question 255Single Answer
Which of the following teaching strategies promotes higher-order thinking?
A
Recall-based questions
B
Lecture-based instruction
C
Problem-solving and critical thinking tasks
D
Multiple-choice questions
Question 256Single Answer
According to Vygotsky, the 'Zone of Proximal Development' refers to:
A
The range of tasks a student can perform alone
B
The range of tasks a student cannot perform, even with assistance
C
The tasks a student can perform with minimal support
D
The range of tasks a student can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable other
Question 257Single Answer
In Bloom's Taxonomy, which of the following is the highest level of cognitive skills?
A
Knowledge
B
Comprehension
C
Synthesis
D
Evaluation
Question 258Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the purpose of differentiated instruction?
A
To maintain uniformity in teaching
B
To meet the varied learning needs of students
C
To make learning more challenging for all students
D
To reduce the workload for the teacher
Question 259Single Answer
The flipped classroom model primarily focuses on:
A
Teacher-centered direct instruction
B
Students learning at home through online resources
C
Learning through textbooks alone
D
Peer-teaching and collaboration
Question 260Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an active learning strategy?
A
Reading a textbook chapter
B
Listening to a lecture
C
Group discussion and debates
D
Memorizing facts
Question 261Single Answer
What is the main focus of learner-centered teaching?
A
Teachers controlling the pace of the lesson
B
Encouraging students to take responsibility for their own learning
C
Focusing solely on lectures
D
Providing a rigid structure for the lesson
Question 262Single Answer
What type of teaching strategy is best for developing critical thinking skills?
A
Rote memorization
B
Lecture-based learning
C
Socratic questioning
D
Listening and note-taking
Question 263Single Answer
In what way does collaborative learning benefit students?
A
It encourages individual work
B
It allows students to learn only from the teacher
C
It helps students develop communication and teamwork skills
D
It focuses on rote memorization
Question 264Single Answer
Which of the following best describes 'scaffolding' in the context of teaching?
A
Giving all students the same level of support
B
Providing initial support that is gradually removed as students gain independence
C
Teaching without any prior assessment
D
Reducing the difficulty of tasks for students
Question 265Single Answer
The concept of 'multiple intelligences' was proposed by:
A
Jean Piaget
B
Howard Gardner
C
Lev Vygotsky
D
Benjamin Bloom
Question 266Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of inquiry-based learning?
A
Direct transmission of facts
B
Emphasis on rote memorization
C
Encouraging curiosity and self-directed investigation
D
Strictly following a teacher's script
Question 267Single Answer
Which is an example of summative assessment?
A
Formative quizzes
B
Student discussions
C
End-of-term exams
D
Peer feedback
Question 268Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a 'constructivist' teaching strategy?
A
Lecture-based instruction
B
Problem-solving tasks
C
Memorization drills
D
Teacher-dominated discussions
Question 269Single Answer
What does the term 'active learning' refer to?
A
Students are passively listening to the teacher
B
Students are actively engaged in learning through participation
C
Students only study at home
D
Teachers provide answers for students
Question 270Single Answer
Integrating language across the curriculum helps students to:
A
Focus on one subject at a time
B
Develop language skills only in language classes
C
Use language skills in multiple subject areas
D
Avoid learning languages
Question 271Single Answer
In the context of teaching language across the curriculum, which strategy is most effective for supporting students' language development?
A
Focusing solely on language arts classes
B
Encouraging reading and writing in all subjects
C
Avoiding the use of specialized vocabulary
D
Using only oral communication in all lessons
Question 272Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of 'language awareness' in teaching?
A
Teaching grammar in isolation
B
Encouraging students to understand how language works in different subjects
C
Focusing only on speaking and listening skills
D
Relying on textbooks for all language learning
Question 273Single Answer
The integration of language skills in the science curriculum might involve:
A
Only reading scientific texts
B
Focusing solely on mathematical language
C
Using both writing and speaking skills to explain scientific concepts
D
Teaching science without any reference to language skills
Question 274Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of a language-rich classroom environment?
A
A classroom with few student interactions
B
A classroom where students primarily read textbooks
C
A classroom where students engage in discussions, writing tasks, and presentations
D
A classroom where only the teacher speaks
Question 275Single Answer
The process of 'academic language' development in students refers to:
A
Informal language used in daily conversation
B
The specialized language used in academic disciplines
C
The language used in creative writing
D
Language learned only in foreign language classes
Question 276Single Answer
Which teaching approach focuses on developing students' language proficiency in all subject areas, not just language arts?
A
Content-based instruction
B
Direct instruction
C
Passive learning
D
Grammar translation method
Question 277Single Answer
Which of the following is a method to enhance language learning across the curriculum?
A
Using visual aids and graphic organizers
B
Avoiding the use of academic vocabulary
C
Relying only on textbooks for language instruction
D
Focusing on oral language skills alone
Question 278Single Answer
What role does scaffolding play in teaching language across the curriculum?
A
It is used only in language arts classes
B
It involves providing support to help students engage with complex language in various subjects
C
It focuses on individual student assessments
D
It is used to reduce the use of language in lessons
Question 279Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the 'language demands' of a mathematics classroom?
A
Only speaking and listening
B
Reading and understanding word problems, using mathematical vocabulary
C
Focusing solely on calculations
D
Writing essays on mathematical concepts
Question 280Single Answer
In a history classroom, teaching students to use specialized vocabulary such as "primary sources," "perspective," and "historical evidence" is an example of:
A
Content-based instruction
B
Language awareness
C
Silent reading
D
Memorization techniques
Question 281Single Answer
The term 'literacy across the curriculum' means:
A
Teaching reading and writing only in language arts
B
Encouraging the use of reading, writing, listening, and speaking in all subjects
C
Focusing on non-verbal communication in all subjects
D
Limiting language development to specific subjects
Question 282Single Answer
What is the primary purpose of integrating language learning into subjects such as science, history, and math?
A
To focus exclusively on language skills
B
To help students understand content by using language more effectively
C
To limit language use in content areas
D
To reduce the importance of reading and writing
Question 283Single Answer
Which strategy supports English language learners (ELLs) in content-heavy classrooms?
A
Using only visual aids
B
Simplifying all academic language
C
Using both visual aids and peer support to help with language comprehension
D
Avoiding academic discussions
Question 284Single Answer
The term 'academic discourse' refers to:
A
Informal conversation between students
B
Specialized language used to communicate in academic contexts
C
The use of slang in class discussions
D
Casual conversations with teachers
Question 285Single Answer
Which of the following is a benefit of using 'think-pair-share' in a language-focused classroom?
A
It limits students' ability to interact with each other
B
It encourages students to practice both listening and speaking in the target language
C
It focuses only on reading comprehension
D
It reduces the need for classroom discussion
Question 286Single Answer
The use of 'graphic organizers' in teaching across the curriculum primarily helps students by:
A
Encouraging memorization
B
Organizing their thoughts and ideas visually to support learning
C
Focusing solely on oral language skills
D
Reducing the need for written work
Question 287Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of 'language immersion' in the content classroom?
A
Using subject-specific vocabulary and concepts in all lessons
B
Giving students vocabulary lists without context
C
Focusing only on grammar exercises in the language class
D
Having students learn the language without subject content
Question 288Single Answer
What is the purpose of 'language scaffolding' when teaching subjects like science and math?
A
To ensure students memorize content without understanding it
B
To help students understand complex academic language through support
C
To focus on oral language skills only
D
To limit students’ use of language in these subjects
Question 289Single Answer
In a history class, students are asked to summarize a chapter, compare different historical perspectives, and present their findings. This activity is an example of:
A
Language immersion
B
Writing for content comprehension
C
Memorization
D
Passive learning
Question 290Single Answer
Which of the following activities is most likely to promote reading comprehension in a social studies class?
A
Reading textbooks without further interaction
B
Highlighting key terms and summarizing readings
C
Giving students word-for-word definitions of historical terms
D
Encouraging students to read silently and individually
Question 291Single Answer
Which of the following best describes the role of vocabulary in language across the curriculum?
A
Vocabulary is only important in language arts classes
B
Subject-specific vocabulary helps students understand and communicate content knowledge
C
Vocabulary should be avoided in content classes
D
Vocabulary is irrelevant when learning through hands-on activities
Question 292Single Answer
In a language across the curriculum approach, teachers would most likely:
A
Focus only on language skills during language arts lessons
B
Encourage reading, writing, and speaking in all subject areas
C
Teach content without any consideration of language skills
D
Limit vocabulary instruction to the English language class
Question 293Single Answer
Which of the following strategies best supports the development of writing skills in content-based classes?
A
Focusing on grammar rules only
B
Encouraging students to write regularly in journals related to the content
C
Relying on multiple-choice tests
D
Using written assignments with no connection to class content
Question 294Single Answer
To support English language learners (ELLs) in a math classroom, a teacher might:
A
Teach all concepts in the student's first language only
B
Use visual aids and clear mathematical vocabulary with definitions
C
Avoid using any language at all
D
Focus on oral language without writing tasks
Question 295Single Answer
A teacher using 'peer editing' to review writing in a science classroom is promoting:
A
Writing skills in the context of content understanding
B
Rote memorization of scientific terms
C
Student reading without engaging in writing
D
Teacher-centered learning
Question 296Single Answer
Which of the following is an effective strategy to support literacy development in mathematics?
A
Focusing exclusively on calculations
B
Encouraging students to explain their problem-solving process in writing
C
Using visual aids only
D
Avoiding written language entirely
Question 297Single Answer
The 'language demands' of a geography classroom would most likely include the ability to:
A
Listen to lectures only
B
Understand and use geographical terms such as "longitude," "latitude," and "climate"
C
Focus solely on memorizing place names
D
Avoid using written language
Question 298Single Answer
In a language across the curriculum approach, 'academic writing' is most important because it helps students:
A
Develop informal communication skills
B
Understand content while engaging in higher-order thinking and expression
C
Memorize terms without understanding their meanings
D
Only produce written responses for exams
Question 299Single Answer
Which of the following strategies is most effective for supporting diverse learners in language development across the curriculum?
A
Using a one-size-fits-all approach to teaching language
B
Providing scaffolding, varied learning materials, and peer support
C
Focusing on reading skills exclusively
D
Avoiding the use of subject-specific vocabulary
Question 300Single Answer
Which of the following is a key feature of an academic discipline?
A
A set of unrelated subjects
B
A collection of specialized knowledge, methods, and practices