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Latest DSSSB Section Officer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Hindi Language & comprehension, English Language & comprehension, Horticulture
Question Bank DSSSB Section Officer (Horticulture) Tier I Exam - English
General Awareness
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A.length and mass
B.mass and time
C.length, mass and time
D.None of these
Q 12 :
Electron volt is a unit of
A.potential difference
B.charge
C.energy
D.capacity
Q 13 :
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A.Anygora
B.Rayon
C.Nylon
D.Polyster
Q 14 :
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A.Dictyosomes
B.Endoplasmic reticulum
C.lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 15 :
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A.Cell membrane
B.Plasma membrane
C.Cell wall
D.Nucleus
Q 16 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 17 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
A.27 July 2026
B.29 July 2026
C.31 July 2026
D.30 July 2026
Q 18 :
Who won the silver medal in the men’s javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 19 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 20 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
General Intelligence & Reasoning ability
Q 21 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 22 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 23 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 24 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 25 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 26 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 28 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 30 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 31 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 33 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 34 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 38 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Q 41 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 42 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 43 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 44 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 45 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 46 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 47 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 48 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 49 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 50 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Q 51 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 52 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 53 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 54 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 55 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 56 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 57 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 58 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 59 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 60 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Hindi Language & comprehension
Q 61 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. अधम्र
B. अध्रम
C. अधर्म
D. अध्रिम
Q 62 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A. स्थायि
B. स्थायी
C. स्थाई
D. स्थाइ
Q 63 :
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A. महत्व
B. महतव
C. महत्तव
D. महतत्व
Q 64 :
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A. आयुष्मान
B. आयुश्मान
C. आयुशमान
D. आयुश्यमान
Q 65 :
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A. कवियत्री
B. कौसल्या
C. एश्वर्य
D. श्रृंगार
Q 66 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. पूज
B. पुजय
C. पूज्य
D. पुज्य
Q 67 :
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A. अनुसरण
B. अनूशरणन
C. अनुशरण
D. अणुशर
Q 68 :
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A. एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B. आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C. आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D. निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Q 69 :
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A. उज्जव
B. उज्ज्ल
C. उज्ज्वल
D. उजवल
Q 70 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. जागृत
B. जाग्रति
C. जाग्रित
D. जाग्रत
Q 71 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. उन्नति
B. उनति
C. उन्ती
D. उनती
Q 72 :
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A. अनुशहरण
B. अनोसरण
C. अनुसरन
D. अनुसरण
Q 73 :
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A. आदिकाल
B. रीतिकाल
C. भक्तिकाल
D. आधुनिक काल
Q 74 :
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A. प्राकृत
B. संस्कृत
C. शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D. मागधी
Q 75 :
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A. बी. जी. खरे
B. राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C. प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D. इंशाअल्ला खा
Q 76 :
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A. मैथिली
B. अवधी
C. ब्रज
D. खड़ी बोली
Q 77 :
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A. पालि
B. प्राकृत
C. संस्कृत
D. इसमें से कोई नहीं
Q 78 :
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A. हिन्दी प्रदीप
B. इन्दु
C. कविवचन सुधा
D. भारतबन्धु
Q 79 :
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A. पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B. अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C. शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D. मागधी अपभ्रंश
Q 80 :
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A. खड़ी बोली
B. अपभ्रंश
C. पूर्वी हिन्दी
D. परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
English Language & comprehension
Q 81 :
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A.a
B.an
C.some
D.the
Q 82 :
Have the car stolen!
A.Steal the car
B.You should have the stolen car
C.Get someone to steal the car
D.They have stolen the car
Q 83 :
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A.The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B.the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C.to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D.The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Q 84 :
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A.All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B.For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C.For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D.To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Q 85 :
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A.The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B.The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C.The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D.The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Q 86 :
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A.Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B.The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C.The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D.The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Q 87 :
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A.To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B.Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C.Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D.By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Q 88 :
We shall invite Suresh.
A.Suresh would be invited by us
B.Suresh would have been invited by us
C.Suresh will be invited by us
D.Suresh will have been invited by us
Q 89 :
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A.By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B.The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C.Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D.The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Q 90 :
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B.The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C.The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D.The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Q 91 :
Why did break the vase?
A.why is the vase broken by him
B.why was the vase broken by him
C.why had been the vase broken by him
D.why has been the vase broken by him
Q 92 :
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A.A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B.A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C.A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D.A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Q 93 :
The baby really enjoys that music.
A.That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B.That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C.That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D.This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Q 94 :
The weather disrupted the final match.
A.The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B.The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C.The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D.The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Q 95 :
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A.report would be published by the management committee every year.
B.A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C.A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D.Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Q 96 :
Preeti ran the race in record time.
A.In record time Preeti ran the race.
B. The race was run by Preeti in record time
C.The race was being run by Preeti in record time
D.The race had been run by Preeti in record time
Q 97 :
I shall have written the full thesis by December
A.By December I shall have wrote the full thesis.
B.The full thesis will have been written by me by December.
C.The full Thesis will be wrote by me by December
D.By December the full thesis must have been wrote by me.
Q 98 :
One must keep one’s promises.
A.One’s promises must be kept by one.
B.One’s promises had to be kept.
C.Promises must be kept.
D.Promises have to be kept by one.
Q 99 :
I read the story in one night.
A.The story had been read by me in one night.
B.The story has been read by me in one night
C.n one night the story has been read by me.
D.the story was read by me in one night
Q 100 :
We must take care of the old.
A.Those who are old need to be taken care of by us.
B.The old must be taken care of by us.
C.Those who are old need care by us
D.The old should be taken care of by us.
Horticulture
Q 101 :
In anemophylous plants, pollen are disseminated by means of_______
A.Insects
B.Water
C.Wind
D.Gravity
Q 102 :
Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as______
A.Parthenocarpy
B.Parthenogenesis
C.Gametogenesis
D.All of the above
Q 103 :
Removal of off type plants from a seed field is termed as_________
A.Weeding
B.Rouging
C.Hoeing
D.Clearing
Q 104 :
Hormones which control apical dominance are______
A.Auxins
B.Cytokinins
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.Gibberellins
Q 105 :
Turmeric is propagated by _____
A.Corms
B.Seed
C.Rhizome
D.Bulbs
Q 106 :
Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time is called as_______
A.Homogamy
B.Chasmogamy
C.Cleistogamy
D.Dichogamy
Q 107 :
The cause of pungency in chillies is______
A.Cucurbitacin
B.Capsaicin
C.Allicin
D.Solanin
Q 108 :
Regular consumption of garlic will reduce the level of_____
in human beings.
A.Cholesterol
B.Sugar
C.Uric acid
D.None of above
Q 109 :
Which of the flower type cannot produce seed and/or
fruit ?
A.Pistillate
B.Perfect
C.Hermaphrodite
D.Staminate
Q 110 :
Truck gardening means vegetable production for________
A.Home consumption
B.Distant markets
C.For local market
D.At commercial level
Q 111 :
The true fruits develop from_______
A.Ovary
B.Thalamus
C.Pericarp
D.All of above
Q 112 :
Fertigation refers to the application of fertilizers with_________
A.Water
B.Rain
C.Both of (a) and (b)
D.None of (a) and (b)
Q 113 :
Early blight and late blight diseases of potato are
A.Fungal
B.Viral
C.Bacterial
D.Physiological
Q 114 :
Auxins have effective role in_____
A.Rooting
B.Cell division
C.Reduction in pre-harvest fruit drop
D.All of above
Q 115 :
______is monocot dioecious fruit tree.
A.Banana
B.Pomegranate
C.Date palm
D.Pineapple
Q 116 :
Both mango and pistachio belong to one family __
A.Anacardiaceae
B.Mangiferae
C.Sapotaceae
D.None of above
Q 117 :
Guava is a rich source of_______
A.Vitamin C
B.Pectin
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.Vitamin A and Vitamin B
Q 118 :
Bearing habit of mango is_______
A.Terminal
B.Lateral
C.Axillary
D.Basal
Q 119 :
Edible part of pomegranate is
A.Seed
B.Vesicles
C.Mesocarp
D.Arils
Q 120 :
Apples and pears are classified as_______
A.Drupe
B.Pome
C.Berry
D.Hesperidium
Q 121 :
Mushroom seed is called________
A.Button
B.Seed
C.Spawn
D.None of above
Q 122 :
Jamun has medicinal value against______
A.Diabetes
B.Cancer
C.Blindness
D.All of above
Q 123 :
Physiological activity in which plants tissue degenerate
and ultimately die is called as_______
A.Senescence
B.Juvenility
C.Climacteric
D.Degeneration
Q 124 :
Plant response to the relative length of daylight or
darkness is known as_______
A.Long day
B.Short day
C.Geotropism
D.Phototropism
Q 125 :
Spongy tissue in mango is due to_______
A.Fungus
B.Virus
C.Bacteria
D.Physiological disorder
Q 126 :
A plant which is able to live under very dry conditions
is called_____
A.Xerophyte
B.Halophyte
C.Mesophyte
D.None of above
Q 127 :
Which state has highest grape productivity?
A.Karnataka
B.Andhra Pradesh
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Maharashtra
Q 128 :
Litchi is commonly propagated by______
A.Air layering
B.Cuttings
C.Grafting
D.Budding
Q 129 :
Cauliflorous fruiting is observed in__
A.Jackfruit
B.Mango
C.Papaya
D.Guava
Q 130 :
The nutrient element which is immobile in soil and
applied only as basal dose is_____
A.Mg
B.K
C.N
D.P
Q 131 :
Botanically Sapota fruit is______
A.Drupe
B.Berry
C.Nut
D.None of above
Q 132 :
Most commonly used thickness of UV stabilized sheet
for polyhouse_______
A.100 u
B.300
C.500 u
D.200 u
Q 133 :
Precooling means________
A.Removal of field heat
B.Fruit preservation
C.Cold storage
D.Refrigeration
Q 134 :
TSS is measured by______
A.Refractometer
B.Hydrometer
C.Lactometer
D.Peintrometer
Q 135 :
In Lye-peeling which chemical is commonly used ?
A.KOH
B.NaOH
C.K2SO4
D.All above
Q 136 :
Which of the following methods is commonly used for
rejuvenation of orchards?
A.Tongue grafting
B.Top working
C.Side grafting
D.Epicotyl grafting
Q 137 :
Which of the following varieties is a seedless type
mango variety ?
A.Sonpari
B.Dasheri
C.Sindhu
D.Amrapali
Q 138 :
Mallika is a hybrid between________
A.Amrapali - Neelum
B.Langda * Neelum
C.Neelum * Dashehari
D.Dashehari * Neelum
Q 139 :
Banana is propagated by means of______
A.Sucker
B.Runner
C.Stolon
D.Rhizome
Q 140 :
National Research Center (NRC) for Grapes is located
in________
A.Nagpur
B.Pune
C.Bangalore
D.Trichy
Q 141 :
Which of the following phytohormone is used for
regulating flowering in mango ?
A.NAA
B.2,4-D
C.Paclobutrazol
D.GA
Q 142 :
Gladiolus is generally propagated by_______
A.Bulb
B.Tuber
C.Bulbil
D.Corns
Q 143 :
Freesia is a______
A.Climber
B.Flowering tree
C.Cacti
D.Bulbous plant
Q 144 :
Which spice is called King of spices ?
A.Cardamom
B.Vanilla
C.Black pepper
D.None of above
Q 145 :
Which fruit is exported maximum quantity from India
now?
A.Banana
B.Mango
C.Grapes
D.Pomegranate
Q 146 :
What is the contribution of Horticulture to the GDP of
Agriculture in India ?
A.15%
B.28%
C.20%
D.40%
Q 147 :
Browning in cauliflower results from______
A.N deficiency
B.B deficiency
C.Mn toxicity
D.K deficiency
Q 148 :
Little leaf in brinjal is caused by_________
A.Fungus
B.Phytoplasma
C.Bacteria
D.Nematode
Q 149 :
Plants which do not set fruits with their own pollen are
called________
A.Cross pollinated
B.Unfruitful
C.Self incompatible
D.Cross fruitful
Q 150 :
A common pre-emergent herbicide is______
A.Atrazine
B.Paraquat
C.2,4-D
D.Glyphosate
Q 151 :
Edible part of coconut is_________
A.Endosperm
B.Thalamus
C.Aril
D.Epicarp
Q 152 :
Curcumin is extracted from______
A.Turmeric
B.Ginger
C.Kokum
D.Curry leaf
Q 153 :
Vernalization treatment is necessary for________
A.Flowering
B.Vegetative growth
C.Fruiting
D.Germination
Q 154 :
Edible button mashroom is a_______
A.Vegetable
B.Spice
C.Mould
D.Fungus
Q 155 :
Tomato, chillies and brinjal are grouped as_______
A.Cole crops
B.Fruit crops
C.Solanaceous crops
D.Summer crops
Q 156 :
Which state has maximum area under Onion ?
A.Gujarat
B.West Bengal
C.Maharashtra
D.Bihar
Q 157 :
Arka Meghna is a variety of________
A.Tomato
B.Chilli
C.Brinjal
D.Cabbage
Q 158 :
Sprouting of onion during storage is checked by the use
of__________
A.NAA
B.MH
C.GA3
D.Thiourea
Q 159 :
The vector for transmission of leaf curl virus of
vegetables is________
A.Aphids
B.White flies
C.Honey bee
D.Thrips
Q 160 :
Indian State having the highest production of spices is_____
A.Rajasthan
B.Gujarat
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Tamil Nadu
Q 161 :
The CFTRI is located at_________
A.Hyderabad
B.Mysore
C.Bangalore
D.Bhopal
Q 162 :
Vegetables are canned in_______
A.Syrup
B.Distilled water
C.Brine solution
D.None of the above
Q 163 :
National Centre for Organic Farming is located at_____
A.Bhopal
B.Ghaziabad
C.Pune
D.Lucknow
Q 164 :
Disbudding and pinching are the common practices in_____
A.Rose
B.Chrysanthemum
C.Lotus
D.Gerbera
Q 165 :
Who is known as Father of Systematic Pomology ?
A.De Candole
B.Williams
C.MS Swaminathan
D.B P Pal
Q 166 :
Which is the high papain yielding cultivar of papaya ?
A.CO 1
B.CO 2
C.Surya
D.Ranchi
Q 167 :
Dwarf Cavendish variety belongs to genomic group________
A.AAA
B.AAB
C.ABB
D.AABB
Q 168 :
Which of the following is a non-climacteric fruit?
A.Jackfruit
B.Pineapple
C.Banana
D.Mango
Q 169 :
Fruit development in mangosteen is by the process of______
A.Parthenogenesis
B.Parthenocarpy
C.Double fertilization
D.None of the above
Q 170 :
What is the type of fruit in mango ?
A.Drupe
B.Berry
C.Pome
D.Nut
Q 171 :
Hen and chicken physiological disorder is seen in________
A.Grape
B.Mango
C.Jamun
D.Banana
Q 172 :
Widely grown mandarin in North West India is________
A.Kinnow
B.Khasi
C.Coorg
D.Nagpur
Q 173 :
Pusa Surya mango cultivar is a clonal selection from_______
A.Eldon
B.Haden
C.Kent
D.Tommy Atkins
Q 174 :
Sometimes seedlessness in guava is observed due to________
A.Parthenocarpy
B.Triploidy
C.Self-incompatibility
D.Parthenogenesis
Q 175 :
Effect of pollen on tissues outtside the endosperm is
called_________
A.Xenia
B.Metaxenia
C.Parthenocarpy
D.None of the above
Q 176 :
Salt creek is rootstock for______
A.Mango
B.Grape
C.Jamun
D.Guava
Q 177 :
Bitter pit is a disorder in
A.Mango
B.Apple
C.Pineapple
D.Ber
Q 178 :
Types of flowers present in mango inflorescence are_______
A.Male & hermaphrodite
B.Female only
C.Male & female
D.Only male
Q 179 :
_____is a strictly subtropical fruit crop having very
exacting climate requirement.
A.Litchi
B.Grape
C.Loquat
D.Mango
Q 180 :
Hexagonal system of planting accommodates more than square system of planting to the extent of_____
A.10%
B.15%
C.30%
D.40%
Q 181 :
The T.S.S. of jam should be________
A.40° Brix
B.50° Brix
C.68° Brix
D.70° Brix
Q 182 :
The main insect responsible for pollination in mango is______
A.Common House fly
B.Honey bee
C.A dipterous fly
D.Butter fly
Q 183 :
Which of the following mango variety is selected by
clonal selection ?
A.Niranjan
B.Manjeera
C.Arka Nilkiran
D.Jumbo Kesar
Q 184 :
The February flowering in Citrus is known as________
A.Hastha bahar
B.Mrig bahar
C.Ambe bahar
D.None of above
Q 185 :
Which of the following fruits is climacteric?
A.Sapota
B.Papaya
C.Both (a) & (b)
D.None of above
Q 186 :
Which is a gynodioecious variety of papaya?
A.Solo
B.CO 1
C.CO 2
D.Pusa Delicious
Q 187 :
Which is the most salt tolerant fruit crop ?
A.Ber
B.Citrus
C.Strawberry
D.Pomegranate
Q 188 :
After harvesting, cutting of banana pseudo-stem is known as______
A.Desuckering
B.Propping
C.Mattocking
D.Pairing
Q 189 :
Optimum salinity in irrigation water for Horticulture
crops is
A.< 1000 uS/cm
B.1000 - 1500 uS/cm
C.1500 - 2000 uS/cm
D.2000 - 3000 uS/cm
Q 190 :
Cryopreservation of pollen grains is done at_______
A.-196°C
B.-55°C
C.0°C
D.1°C
Q 191 :
Seedless fruit development by way of stenospermacarpy
is observed in________
A.Citrus
B.Guava
C.Grapes
D.Banana
Q 192 :
In which fruit seed develops earlier than pulp/flesh ?
A.Litchi
B.Ber
C.Mango
D.Papaya
Q 193 :
Dormex (Hydrogen cynamide) is used for early bread
break in_______
A.Litchi
B.Grapes
C.Papaya
D.Mango
Q 194 :
Ratna mango variety is a cross of______
A.Alphonso * Banganpalli
B.Neelum * Langada
C.Neelum * Alphonso
D.Alphonso * Neelum
Q 195 :
Marmalade is prepared from________
A.Mango
B.Grapes
C.Litchi
D.Oranges
Q 196 :
Botanically Tomato is a______type of fruit
A.Berry
B.Multiple
C.Drupe
D.Pome
Q 197 :
Which fruit crop is propagated on large scale by tissue
culture?
A.Papaya
B.Banana
C.Citrus
D.Strawberry
Q 198 :
Edible part of saffron is_________
A.Leaves
B.Stigma
C.Stem
D.Bark
Q 199 :
National Research Center for Medicinal & Aromatic
Plants is located in_________