Latest DSSSB Sub Station Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability, Arithmetical & Numerical Ability, Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension, Test of English Language & Comprehension, Concerned Subject
Question Bank DSSSB Sub Station Apprentice Exam - English
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 5Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 6Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 7Single Answer
Which Delhi Sultan captured Qutub Minar while it was under construction?
A
Iltutmish
B
Alauddin Khalji
C
Qutub-ud-din Aibak
D
Muhammad Tughlaq
Question 8Single Answer
Where did the First Battle of Panipat take place?
A
Panipat
B
Delhi
C
Kurukshetra
D
Agra
Question 9Single Answer
Who built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?
A
Shah Jahan
B
Jahangir
C
Akbar
D
Aurangzeb
Question 10Single Answer
The iconic Humayun's Tomb was built by:
A
Babur
B
Humayun
C
Hamida Banu Begum
D
Akbar
Question 11Single Answer
The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar was originally from:
A
Kanauj
B
Mathura
C
Ujjain
D
Pataliputra
Question 12Single Answer
Which Act gave separate electorate rights to Muslims in India ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
The Government of India Act, 1915
C
The Government of India Act, 1919
D
The Government of India Act, 1935
Question 13Single Answer
Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral ?
A
The Indian Councils Act, 1909
B
Government of India Act, 1919
C
Government of India Act, 1935
D
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Question 14Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 15Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 16Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 17Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 18Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 19Single Answer
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A
Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B
Purchase of Rafale jets
C
Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D
Signing of a nuclear agreement
Question 20Single Answer
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
A
GSAT-31
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
INSAT-4CR
D
GSAT-32
General Intelligence & Reasoning Ability
Question 21Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 22Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 23Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 24Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 25Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 26Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 27Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 28Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 29Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 30Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 31Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 33Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 34Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 35Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 38Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 40Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 41Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 43Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 44Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 45Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 46Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 48Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 49Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 50Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
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Arithmetical & Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 52Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 53Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 54Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 55Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 56Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 57Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 58Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 59Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 60Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Test of Hindi Language & Comprehension
Question 61Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम
Question 62Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ
Question 63Single Answer
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व
Question 64Single Answer
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान
Question 65Single Answer
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार
Question 66Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
पूज
B
पुजय
C
पूज्य
D
पुज्य
Question 67Single Answer
शुद्ध वर्तनी है -
A
अनुसरण
B
अनूशरणन
C
अनुशरण
D
अणुशर
Question 68Single Answer
किस क्रमांक में सभी शुद्ध हैं?
A
एक्य,साप्ताहिक
B
आजीविका,आशीर्वाद
C
आर्शिवाद ,अनूकूल
D
निरिक्षण ,कृपालु
Question 69Single Answer
'उज्वल' शब्द का शुद्ध रूप है ?
A
उज्जव
B
उज्ज्ल
C
उज्ज्वल
D
उजवल
Question 70Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
जागृत
B
जाग्रति
C
जाग्रित
D
जाग्रत
Question 71Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न में चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
उन्नति
B
उनति
C
उन्ती
D
उनती
Question 72Single Answer
निम्नलिखित प्रश्न मे चार वैकल्पिक वर्तनियाॅ दी गई है?
A
अनुशहरण
B
अनोसरण
C
अनुसरन
D
अनुसरण
Question 73Single Answer
'पृथ्वीराज रासो' किस काल की रचना है ?
A
आदिकाल
B
रीतिकाल
C
भक्तिकाल
D
आधुनिक काल
Question 74Single Answer
हिन्दी की उत्पत्ति किस भाषा से हुई है?
A
प्राकृत
B
संस्कृत
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी
Question 75Single Answer
राजभाषा आयोग के प्रथम अध्यक्ष थे ?
A
बी. जी. खरे
B
राजा लक्ष्मण सिंह
C
प्रताप नारायण मिश्र
D
इंशाअल्ला खा
Question 76Single Answer
निम्नलिखित बोलियों में से कौन - सी बोली उत्तर प्रदेश में नहीं बाली जाती?
A
मैथिली
B
अवधी
C
ब्रज
D
खड़ी बोली
Question 77Single Answer
भारत की प्रथम देशज भाषा कौन-सी है?
A
पालि
B
प्राकृत
C
संस्कृत
D
इसमें से कोई नहीं
Question 78Single Answer
भारतेन्दु ने किस पत्रिका का संपादन किया?
A
हिन्दी प्रदीप
B
इन्दु
C
कविवचन सुधा
D
भारतबन्धु
Question 79Single Answer
पूर्वी हिन्दी विकसित हुई है?
A
पैशाची अपभ्रंश
B
अर्धमागधी अपभ्रंश
C
शौरसैनी अपभ्रंश
D
मागधी अपभ्रंश
Question 80Single Answer
मानक हिन्दी का आधार क्या है?
A
खड़ी बोली
B
अपभ्रंश
C
पूर्वी हिन्दी
D
परिनिष्ठ हिन्दी
Test of English Language & Comprehension
Question 81Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 82Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 83Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 84Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 85Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 86Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 87Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 88Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 89Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 90Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 91Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 92Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 93Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 94Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 95Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 96Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 97Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 98Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 99Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 100Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Concerned Subject
Question 101Single Answer
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω
Question 102Single Answer
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
A
7.0 × 1012 m-3
B
7.0 × 10-12 m-3
C
7.0 × 10-12 m3
D
7.0 × 1012 m3
Question 103Single Answer
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
A
9.2 × 105/m3
B
2.77 × 103/m3
C
2.43 × 1019/m3
D
8.9 × 1012/m3
Question 104Single Answer
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Question 105Single Answer
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above
Question 106Single Answer
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Question 107Single Answer
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
Question 108Single Answer
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile
Question 109Single Answer
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Question 111Single Answer
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Question 112Single Answer
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature
Question 113Single Answer
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect
Question 114Single Answer
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only
Question 116Single Answer
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Question 117Single Answer
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
A
GeO2
B
B2O3
C
P2O5x
D
Al2O3
Question 118Single Answer
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged
Question 119Single Answer
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 120Single Answer
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC
Question 121Single Answer
Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4 and 5 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 122Single Answer
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
A
Transistor
B
Varistor
C
Thyristor
D
Thermistor
Question 123Single Answer
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
A
The carrier concentration increases
B
The mobility of carrier increases
C
Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D
The band gap decreases
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
A
2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 125Single Answer
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
A
An ellipse
B
A parabola
C
Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D
A circle
Question 126Single Answer
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
A
Ferromagnetic materials
B
High-energy hard magnetic materials
C
Superconductors
D
Ferromagnetic materials
Question 127Single Answer
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Not change
D
Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
Question 128Single Answer
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
A
Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
B
Component of energy absorbed per m3
C
Amount of applied field
D
Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Question 129Single Answer
Direction:Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
A
Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets. Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
B
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
C
Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
D
Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
E
Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Question 130Single Answer
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is
A
(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
B
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
C
(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
D
(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Question 131Single Answer
If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is
A
Diamagnetic
B
Paramagnetic
C
Ferromagnetic
D
Non-magnetic
Question 132Single Answer
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
A
Manganese nitride and iron oxide
B
Manganese oxide and iron nitride
C
Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
D
Manganese oxide and iron sulphide
Question 133Single Answer
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
A
Magnetic hysteresis
B
Magnetic expansion
C
Magnetostriction
D
Magneto-calorisation
Question 134Single Answer
In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments, thereby causing
A
Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
B
Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
C
No effect on dipole alignment
D
Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments
Question 135Single Answer
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
A
Is positive
B
Is zero
C
Is negative
D
Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field
Question 136Single Answer
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
A
A very wide range gap
B
High resistivity at room temperature
C
High carrier mobility
D
Very low conductivity at room temperature
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive devices?
A
Caesium antimonide
B
Barium oxide
C
Lead sulphide
D
Zinc oxide
Question 138Single Answer
Consider the following transducers:
1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 139Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 4
D
1 and 3
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 141Single Answer
Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy dielectrics will be
A
Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
B
Inversely proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
C
Inversely proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
D
proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
Question 142Single Answer
Orientational polarization is
A
Inversely proportional to temperature and proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
B
proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
C
proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
D
Inversely proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
Question 143Single Answer
Behavior of conductors, semiconductors and insulators is explained on the basis of
A
Atomic nature
B
Molecular structure
C
Energy band structure
D
All of the above
Question 144Single Answer
In general, for a superconductor, which of the following statements is true?
A
A superconductor is a perfect paramagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive unity
B
A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
C
A superconductor is a perfect ferromagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive one
D
A superconductor is a perfect piezoelectric material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
Question 145Single Answer
Ferro-electric materials have a
A
High dielectric constant which varies non linearly
B
Low dielectric constant and is non-linear
C
High dielectric constant which varies linearly
D
Low dielectric constant but linear
Question 146Single Answer
In the magnetic core the electromotive forces (emf) induced in accordance with Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction give rise to
A
Eddy current
B
Excitation current
C
Armature current
D
Field current
Question 147Single Answer
Consider the following characterizing parameters of a material:
1.Magnetic permeability
2.Electron relaxation time 3.Electron effective mass
4.Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of the above parameter decreases its conductivity, while increase in another increases the conductivity. There are respectively
A
1 and 3
B
3 and 2
C
4 and 3
D
1 and 2
Question 148Single Answer
Some magnetic materials may be classified on the basis of
1.Susceptibility
2.Saturation
3.Spin arrangement
4.Nature of hysteresis loop
5.Domain structure
6.Critical temperature above which it behaves as a paramagnetic material
Which of these can be used to distinguish between ferri and ferromagnetic materials?
A
1, 3 and 4 only
B
2, 3 and 6 only
C
3, 4 and 5 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Question 149Single Answer
Magnetism is mainly due to only electron spin around their axis in case of
A
Diamagnetic materials
B
Paramagnetic materials
C
Ferromagnetic materials
D
Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic materials
Question 150Single Answer
For Paramagnetic materials, the relative permeability is
A
Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively small and positive
B
greater than unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively small but positive
C
equal to unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively large but positive
D
Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively large and positive
Question 151Single Answer
Resistance switching is normally resorted in case of
A
Air blast CB
B
Bulk oil CB
C
Minimum oil CB
D
All types of CB
Question 152Single Answer
By transmitting power at high voltage
A
it will give poor voltage regulation
B
it will give better voltage regulation
C
it will not effect voltage regulation
D
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
Which statement about the daily load curve is valid ?
A
The area under the curve gives the average demand
B
The ratio of the area under the curves to the total area of rectangle in which it is contained gives the load factor for the day
C
The peak of the curve gives the installed capacity of the plant
D
The area of the curves divided by the number of hours gives load factor
Question 154Single Answer
High voltage Schring bridge is used to measure
A
large capacitance without additional element
B
small capacitance without additional element
C
medium value capacitance
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
Draw - in - system of laying underground cables has the drawback (s) of
A
higher cost
B
reduced current carrying capacity of the cables
C
requirements of much deeper and wider trenches
D
repairs, alterations or additions difficult
E
all of the above except
Question 156Single Answer
Surge impedance of a transmission line is
A
independent of its length
B
dependent on its length
C
independent on its temperature
D
none of the above
Question 157Single Answer
If two synchronous generators connected in parallel loose synchronism, it will lead to
A
stalling of generators
B
wild fluctuations in current
C
wild fluctuations in current and voltage
D
None of these
Question 158Single Answer
A differential relay responds to
A
algebraic difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
B
vector difference of two or more similar electrical quantities
C
algebraic difference between two currents
D
algebraic difference between two voltages
Question 159Single Answer
The conductor carries more current on the surface in comparison to its core. This phenomenon is called the
A
Skin effect
B
Corona
C
Ferranti effect
D
Lenz's effect
Question 160Single Answer
A booster is connected in
A
series with the feeder
B
parallel with the feeder
C
both (a) and (b) are correct
D
none of these
Question 161Single Answer
Fuses have got advantages of
A
cheapest type of protection
B
inverse time - current characteristic
C
no maintenance
D
current limiting effect under short - circuit conditions
E
all of the above
Question 162Single Answer
The power transmitted will be maximum when
A
line reactance is high
B
corona losses are minimum
C
sending end voltage is more
D
receiving end voltage is more
Question 163Single Answer
The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load factor of the consumer is
A
0.75
B
0.375
C
1.33
D
None of these
Question 164Single Answer
In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
A
only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
B
only the core loss is ignored
C
both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
D
only the no - load copper loss is ignored
Question 165Single Answer
Which of the following techniques is used for the measurements of a.c. high frequency voltages ?
A
Peak voltmeter
B
Series resistance mircro - ammeter
C
Resistance potential divider
D
All of these
Question 166Single Answer
Use of additional shunt capacitor can be made for increasing the capability of line as it
A
reduces surge impedance Z0
B
increases phase shift β
C
increase in α
D
all of the above
Question 167Single Answer
The sag of a transmission line is least affected owing to
A
weight of the conductor
B
current through the conductor
C
atmospheric temperature
D
ice deposited on the conductor
Question 168Single Answer
In case of Impulse Thermal break down of solid insulating materials, the critical electric field is proportional to
A
critical absolute temperature
B
square of critical absolute temperature
C
square of T0
D
none of these
Question 169Single Answer
The insulation of the modern EHV lines is designed based on
A
corona
B
switching voltages
C
lightning voltage
D
all of these
Question 170Single Answer
For constant voltage transmission, the voltage drop along the line is maintained constant by installing
A
capacitors
B
inductors
C
resistors
D
synchronous phase modifiers at the receiving end
Question 171Single Answer
AC network analyser is employed for solving the problems of
A
load flow
B
load flow and stability
C
load flow and short - circuit
D
load flow, stability and short - circuit
Question 172Single Answer
The change in excitation in an alternator connected to an infinite line provides a corresponding change in
A
terminal voltage
B
speed of rotor
C
power generated
D
power factor
Question 173Single Answer
Different types of insulators used for transmission lines are
A
pin type only
B
suspension type only
C
strain type only
D
pin type, suspension type and shackle type
Question 174Single Answer
The conductor connecting consumer's terminals to the distributor is called the
A
feeder
B
distributor
C
service main
D
none of the above
Question 175Single Answer
Which of the following method or techniques can be used for the measurement of high d.c. voltages ?
A
Generating voltmeter
B
Electrostatic voltmeter
C
Peak voltmeter
D
Half effect generators
Question 176Single Answer
The ripple voltage in dc output is small if
A
frequency of supply voltage is small
B
the filtering capacitor is small
C
load current is small
D
none of these
Question 177Single Answer
The voltage measurements using uniform spark gap are
A
affected by dust particles
B
affected by polarity of supply
C
affected by temperature
D
none of these
Question 178Single Answer
Neutral earthing is provided for
A
the safety of personnel from electric shock
B
the safety of equipment and personnel against lightning and voltage surges
C
reducing the voltage stress on lines and equipment with respect to earth under various operating and fault conditions
D
controlling the earth fault currents for protective relaying
E
both (c) and (d)
Question 179Single Answer
The function of Lightning arrester is
A
to limiting the short - circuit fault current
B
to provide path to high voltage surge to earth
C
to reduce arcing
D
none of these
Question 180Single Answer
In which of the following cases are delay fuses used ?
A
For the protection of light circuits
B
For the protection of power out - let circuits
C
For the protection of fluorescent lamps
D
For the protection of motors
Question 181Single Answer
In order to improve the voltage profile of the line, compensation is resorted by providing
A
capacitors at the receiving end
B
reactors at the receiving end
C
resistors at the receiving end
D
none of these
Question 182Single Answer
Skin effect in conductor is proportional to
A
(diameter of conductor) 1/2
B
diameter of conductor
C
(diameter of conductor)2
D
(diameter of conductor)4
Question 183Single Answer
The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
A
compensate for skin effect
B
take care of surges
C
provide additional mechanical strength
D
reduce inductance
Question 184Single Answer
A fault is more severe from the view point of RRRV if it is a
A
Short length fault
B
Medium length line fault
C
Long length line fault
D
None of these
Question 185Single Answer
Protective resistance to be connected between the sphere gap and the test equipment is required while measuring
A
power frequency and higher frequency a.c. voltage
B
power frequency and impulse voltage
C
all kinds of voltages
D
none of these
Question 186Single Answer
Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to
A
compensate the voltage drop
B
reduce line loss
C
limit short circuit current
D
improve load power factor
Question 187Single Answer
The passive element that is used as interconnecting element for the stable operation of interconnected system is
A
reactor
B
resistor
C
capacitor
D
resistor and capacitor
Question 188Single Answer
Corona loss in a transmission line is dependent on
A
diameter of the conductor
B
material of the conductor
C
height of the conductor
D
none of these
Question 189Single Answer
In a minimum oil circuit breaker the oil is used
A
to act as circuit breaking medium only
B
for circuit breaking and providing insulation
C
for providing insulation only
D
for none of the above purposes
Question 190Single Answer
Skin effect is
A
proportional to frequency
B
proportional to square of frequency
C
inversely proportional to frequency
D
independent of frequency
Question 191Single Answer
Rated making capacity of breaker is equal to
A
X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
B
2.55 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
C
1 X rated symmetrical breaking capacity
D
none of these
Question 192Single Answer
The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
A
reduction in transmission losses
B
reduction in time of transmission
C
increase in system reliability
D
none of the above
Question 193Single Answer
Bus - coupler is very essential in
A
single bus - bar arrangement
B
ring bus - bar arrangement
C
double bus, double breaker arrangement
D
main and transfer bus
Question 194Single Answer
With the rise in temperature, the insulation resistivity
A
remains unchanged
B
decreases linearly
C
increases linearly
D
reduces exponentially
Question 195Single Answer
The effect of bonding the cable is
A
to increase the effective resistance and inductance
B
to increase the effective resistance but reduce inductance
C
to reduce the effective resistance and inductance
D
to reduce the effective resistance but increase the inductance
Question 196Single Answer
Increase in temperature in overhead transmission lines causes
A
increase in stress and length
B
decrease in stress and length
C
decrease in stress but increase in length
D
none of the above
Question 197Single Answer
The insulation resistance of the cable decreases with the
A
increase in length of cable
B
decrease in length of cable
C
electric stresses
D
none of these
Question 198Single Answer
Corona has the disadvantage(s) of
A
power loss
B
interference with neighbouring communication circuits
C
introducing the harmonics, predominately third harmonics, into the transmission lines
D
all of the above
Question 199Single Answer
In a load duration curve for an intergrated power system the uppermost crest represents the energy contributed by
A
base power stations
B
major thermal stations
C
peaking hydro or gas turbine stations
D
non - conventional power stations
Question 200Single Answer
At bridge crossing and near the railway track ternary lead cables are used because they